EX MARZO 2023 REF.PDF Aviation Exam Questions

CONVERSIONES i) ii) -40 Celsius to F? -40F (ºF = ºC x 1.8 + 32) 70m/s → 136 kt (1m/s → 1,94kt) LOCATOR Range of Locator: 10NM – 25NM VHF 1 dot = 0,5º Amplitud de señal: 10NM→+/- 8º, 17NM→+/-35º, 25NM→+/-10ª PREGUNTAS ENCONTRADAS 10.5.1.0 (107) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if...

CONVERSIONES i) ii) -40 Celsius to F? -40F (ºF = ºC x 1.8 + 32) 70m/s → 136 kt (1m/s → 1,94kt) LOCATOR Range of Locator: 10NM – 25NM VHF 1 dot = 0,5º Amplitud de señal: 10NM→+/- 8º, 17NM→+/-35º, 25NM→+/-10ª PREGUNTAS ENCONTRADAS 10.5.1.0 (107) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than: a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter b) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter c) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter d) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 10.6.2.0 (117) What does the abbreviation OIS mean? a) Obstacle identification surface. b) Obstacle in surface. c) Obstacle identification slope. d) Obstruction in surface. 10.6.2.0 (118) What does the abbreviation DER mean? a) Depature end of runway. b) Distance end of route. c) Departure end of route. d) Distance end of runway. 10.6.4.0 (150) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: a) 2.5%. b) 0.8%. c) 3.3%. d) 5%. 10.6.7.0 (197) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? a) Mode A code 7600. b) Mode A code 7500. c) Mode B code 7600. d) Mode A code 7700. 10.7.3.1 (283) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist. b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. c) Crossing arms extended above his head. d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground. 10.8.1.0 (403) In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? a) GEN. b) RAC. c) COM. d) MET. 10.9.1.2 (445) In the ""VASIS"" , how many light units are in each wing bar? a) 3. b) 2. c) 4. d) 5. 10.9.1.2 (454) Taxiway edge lights shall be: a) Fixed showing blue. b) Fixed showing green. c) Fixed showing yellow. d) Flashing showing blue. 10.9.1.2 (457) Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : a) information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. b) mandatory instruction signs , red background with black inscriptions. c) information signs, orange background with black inscriptions. d) mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions. 21.1.6.2 (564) On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: a) leading edge flap b) trailing edge flap c) leading edge flap close to the wing root d) leading edge flap close to the wing tip 21.2.1.6 (753) A static inverter is a: a) transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC. b) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge. c) static discharger. d) filter against radio interference. 21.3.4.8 (997) The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: a) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. b) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure. c) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. d) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure. 22.1.1.2 (1141) The altimeter is fed by : a) static pressure b) dynamic pressure c) total pressure d) differential pressure 22.1.1.3 (1143) When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will: a) decrease b) increase at a linear rate c) remain constant d) increase at an exponential rate 22.1.1.4 (1174) The mach number is the: a) true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound b) corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound c) indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound d) equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound 22.1.1.5 (1183) The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by : a) static pressure b) dynamic pressure c) total pressure d) differential pressure 22.4.3.0 (1461) The operating principle of an ""electronic"" tachometer is to measure the: a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field. b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator. c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator. d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator. 22.4.3.0 (1462) The operating principle of the ""induction"" type of tachometer is to measure the: a) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator. b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator. c) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field. d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator. 31.1.2.5 (1532) If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane? a) It will cause the cg to move aft. b) It will not affect the cg location. c) It will cause the cg to move forward. d) The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given. 31.2.1.3 (1561) On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to: a) The bending moment at the wing root. b) Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass. c) Wing loaded trip fuel. d) Variable equipment for the flight. 31.3.1.3 (1651) Which one of the following is correct? a) Arm = Moment / Force b) Arm = Force / Moment c) Moment = Force / Arm d) Arm = Force X Moment 32.3.1.1 (1886) V2 has to be equal to or higher than a) 1.1 VMCA. b) 1.15 VMCG. c) 1.1 VSO. d) 1.15 VR. 32.3.1.3 (1908) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: a) windshear is reported on the take-off path. b) it is dark. c) the runway is dry. d) the runway is wet. 32.3.1.5 (1925) Which statement is correct? a) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1. b) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1. c) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1. d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1. 32.3.1.5 (1929) The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than: a) 1.2Vs. b) 1.2VMCG. c) 1.05VLOF. d) 1.3V1. 32.3.1.6 (1933) During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles. a) By selecting a higher flap setting. b) By selecting a higher V2. c) By selecting a lower V2. d) By selecting a lower flap setting. 32.3.2.1 (1938) Balanced V1 is selected a) if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance. b) for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass. c) for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass. d) if it is equal to V2. 32.3.2.1 (1939) A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available. b) The clearway does not equal the stopway. c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. 32.3.3.1 (1953) At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? a) 400 ft above field elevation. b) 35 ft above ground. c) When gear retraction is completed. d) 1500 ft above field elevation. 32.3.3.1 (1955) The second segment begins a) when landing gear is fully retracted. b) when flap retraction begins. c) when flaps are selected up. d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction. 32.3.3.1 (1960) During take-off the third segment begins: a) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. b) when landing gear is fully retracted. c) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2. d) when flap retraction is completed. 32.3.4.2 (1982) How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere? a) TAS decreases. b) TAS increases. c) TAS is constant. d) TAS is not related to Mach Number. 32.3.4.2 (1988) Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The speeds for: a) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle. b) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle. c) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle. d) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range. 32.3.5.3 (2050) The drift down requirements are based on: a) the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed. b) the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure. c) the maximum flight path gradient during the descent. d) the landing mass limit at the alternate. 33.1.2.3 (2157) A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines,is flying from PARlS to LYON. The final reserve corresponds to: a) 45 minutes at holding speed b) 2 hours at cruise consumption c) 1 hour at holding speed d) 30 minutes at holding speed 33.1.2.3 (2158) In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: a) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B b) 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B c) 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A d) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A 33.1.2.4 (2160) The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/ h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway.What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? a) 13 000 kg b) 13 050 kg c) 12 700 kg d) 10 000 kg 33.5.1.1 (2402) A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of : a) 8120 kg. b) 7380 kg. c) 1845 kg. d) 3500 kg. 33.5.1.1 (2424) The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is a) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. b) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. c) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. d) fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. 40.2.1.2 (2598) A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: a) the pilot is emotionally aroused b) there is a low CO-pressure in the blood c) he is flying a tight turn d) there is an increased blood flow to the brain 40.2.1.2 (2602) Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as: a) 8000 FT b) 12000 FT c) 15000 FT d) 20000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2614) Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur a) when descending rapidly b) during a long high altitude flight c) when climbing d) in sudden steep turns 40.2.1.2 (2628) Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are symptoms of a) decompression sickness b) barotrauma c) air-sickness d) hypoxia 40.2.1.2 (2637) The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur a) with colds and rapid descents b) with colds and fast climbs c) with colds and slow ascents d) after a decompression 40.2.2.2 (2805) The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night vision are called: a) the rods b) the fovea c) the cones d) the cones and the rods 40.2.2.5 (2894) Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of a) spinning into the opposite direction b) spinning into the same direction c) straight and level flight d) climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin 50.1.6.3 (3402) After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome? a) 1028 hPa. b) 1015 hPa. c) 1013 hPa. d) 998 hPa. 50.10.3.1 (3967) In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a) METAR b) SIGMET c) GAFOR d) TAF 50.10.3.1 (3968) In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest? a) VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 = b) 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG = c) VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG = d) 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG = 61.1.4.0 (4143) The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called: a) isogonals b) isotachs c) isogrives d) isoclines 61.5.2.0 (4518) An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? a) 1900 FT/MIN b) 2000 FT/MIN c) 1700 FT/MIN d) 1800 FT/MIN 62.1.5.0 (4683) The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is: a) 400 Hz, blue b) 3000 Hz, blue c) 1300 Hz, blue d) 400 Hz, amber 62.1.5.0 (4689) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? a) 600 FT/MIN b) 550 FT/MIN c) 800 FT/MIN d) 950 FT/MIN 71.1.1.0 (4919) The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : a) the manufacturer. b) the operator. c) the aircraft manufacture'rs list. d) the aircraft state of registry. 71.1.3.1 (4984) On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during : a) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption b) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft c) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft d) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption 71.1.3.3 (5046) At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region? a) Between FL290 and FL410. b) Between FL275 and FL400. c) Between FL245 and FL410. d) Below FL290. 71.2.5.0 (5111) To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: a) useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen. b) useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions. c) useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions. d) possible and recommended. 81.1.1.3 (5285) Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the a) relative wind/airflow. b) chord line. c) longitudinal axis. d) horizon. 81.1.1.4 (5286) The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle between the: a) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow. b) bottom surface and the horizontal c) bottom surface and the relative airflow. d) bottom surface and the chord line. 81.1.2.4 (5301) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is: a) the centre of pressure. b) the c.g. location. c) the point of maximum thickness of the wing. d) the suction point of the wing. 81.6.2.1 (5626) Which load factor determines VA? a) manoeuvring limit load factor. b) manoeuvring ultimate load factor. c) gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust. d) manoeuvring flap limit load factor. REMARKS - - - En una pregunta sobre el Angle of Attack había unas respuestas que hablaban sobre “local wind flow” lo más parecido que he encontrado es “undisturbed airflow”. “Lift y Weight son paralelos a…” en las preguntas he encontrado “son verticalmente paralelos a..”. En el examen no recuerdo que dijera lo de vertical, pero puede que sea fallo mío de memoria. Había una pregunta que decía “cuáles eran los síntomas del estrés..” no he encontrado esa pregunta con las respuestas que daban del examen. Había preguntas sobre el Efecto suelo, las que he encontrado no eran como las del examen, una de ellas te decía que en aproximación si entras en efecto suelo qué tienes que hacer para salir de él (respuestas: increase power, reduce power…) esa no la he encontrado. SI HAY EFECTO SUELO→ REDUCE POWER. Había un problema de cambios de estación (Mass and Balance) que, como no tenía ni idea, ni me fijé en los datos y no sé cuál puede ser. PREGUNTAS ENCONTRADAS Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur: a) b) c) d) When a higher than normal angle of attack is used. When the height is less than twice the length of the wingspan above the surface. At a speed approaching the stall. When the height is less than half of the length of the wingspan above the surface. A primary radar operates on the principle of: a) b) c) d) Continuous wave transmission. Phase comparison. Transponder interrogation. Pulse Technique. A pilot approaching an upslope runway: a) b) c) d) Is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long. May feed that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short. Establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out. Establishes a higher than normal approach speed. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness? a) The pilot´s reaction time when faced with hypoxia. b) The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression. c) The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes aware of it. d) The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency, measured from the moment at which an adequate oxygen supply is no longer available. When suffering from hypoxia, short-term memory impairment starts at approximately: a) b) c) d) 22.000 ft 16.000 ft 12.000 ft 8.000 ft ESTA PREGUNTA TIENE UNA MUY PARECIDA EN EL APARTADO SUPERIOR, OJO CUANDO PREGUNTA “STARTS AT APP” O “SHORT TERM MEMORY CAN ALREADY BE AFFECTED WHEN..” AHÍ LA RESPUESTA ES 8.000FT Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog? a) b) c) d) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air. Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air. Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air. Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air. A weather radar, set to the 100NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50NM, the return on the radar screen should: a) b) c) d) Decrease in area and move to the top of the screen. Increase in area and move to the top of the screen. Decrease in area but not change in position on the screen. Increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL100 with a true altitude of 10.000ft, local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? a) b) c) d) It is colder than ISA. There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion. It is warmer than ISA. Its average temperature is about ISA. To prevent vertigo in flight we should: a) b) c) d) Look towards the sides when we make a turn. Keep breathing normally. Not move the head suddenly while we are turning. Breathe deeply but control the respiratory frequency. If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the troposphere under standard atmospheric conditions, the MACH number will: a) b) c) d) Decrease. Not change. Increase. Increase or decrease, depends on the type of aeroplane. Which FL corresponds with the 400hPa pressure level? a) b) c) d) FL240 FL140 FL340 FL300