Clinical Chemistry Post Lecture Exam PDF

## CLINICAL CHEMISTRY POST LECTURE EXAM Prepared by: Bryan Kier O. Villanueva, RMT **INSTRUCTION:** - Encircle the CORRECT/BEST answer. - Drink plenty of water & master your mind conditioning when taking the exam. - PLEASE! WAG NYO PO ISHARE TONG MGA QUESTIONS NA TO **1. Convert 10 mg/dL of immu...

## CLINICAL CHEMISTRY POST LECTURE EXAM Prepared by: Bryan Kier O. Villanueva, RMT **INSTRUCTION:** - Encircle the CORRECT/BEST answer. - Drink plenty of water & master your mind conditioning when taking the exam. - PLEASE! WAG NYO PO ISHARE TONG MGA QUESTIONS NA TO **1. Convert 10 mg/dL of immunoglobulins to g/L** - 0.01 g/L - 1 g/l - 5 g/L - 100 g/L **2. Extreme Danger:** - 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 **3. Pre-analytical phase:** - Patient identification - Patient identification & test order accuracy - Test order identification and blood culture contamination - Test order identification, patient identification, and blood culture contamination **4. All of the following are possible cause of a random error, EXCEPT:** - Pipetting error - Deterioration of reagents - Mislabeling of samples - Temperature fluctuations **5. All of the following are possible cause of systematic error, EXCEPT:** - Contaminated solutions - Leaky ISE - Improper mixing of sample and reagents - Unstable reagent blanks **6. Gradual change in the control sample results:** - Trend - Shift **7. In the acronym RACE for fire safety, the E stands for?** - Exercise caution - Exhale - Extinguish - Evacuate **8. It is the difference between two consecutive measurements of the same individual** - CUSUM - Youden Plot - Delta check - NOTA **9. Which Westgard rule is used as a warning?** - 2 2s - 1 2s - 3 1s - 13s **10. What do you call the quality management wherein patient's results are checked against their previous records?** - Benchmarking - Delta-check **11. This type of chemistry analyzer uses reagents from different manufacturers:** - open reagent - closed reagent - sequential - batch **12. the ability of an analytical method to measure only the analyte of interest** - accuracy - precision - specificity - sensitivity **13. it is important in maintaining the long-term accuracy of the analytical methods** - chain of evidence - quality assurance - intralab QC - Interlab QC **14. What is the best way of ensuring the reliability of laboratory procedures?** - By using standard solutions - By incorporating control sera in testing patient sample - By duplicate testing of unknown sample - Correct pipetting using air displacement **15. The chain begins when the sample is collected and terminates with the person who performs the actual analysis. All individuals who handle the sample must document the time and date when they had the sample in their control, as well the particular process they carried out.** - Chain of infection - Chain of evidence - Chain of custody - Both B & C **16. The methodology for lean six sigma quality improvement team will include consideration of all the following factors, EXCEPT:** - Define - Measure - Analyze - Communicate **17. A solution used to correct for absorbance caused by the color of the reagents.** - Control - Reagent blank - Sample Blank - Standard **18. In lean Sigma who is responsible for the Project and development** - Green Belts - Black Belts - Purple Belts - Blue Belts **19. In the lean six sigma, these people belong to project team members who are committed to achieving quality assurance.** - Green belt - Black belt - Blue belt - Red belt **20. Y-axis** - Horizontal, Abscissa and Dependent - Horizontal, Abscissa and Independent - Vertical, Ordinate and Dependent - Vertical, Ordinate, and Independent **21. What is the value of 2SD in the gaussian curve?** - 50% - 68% - 95% - 99% **22. It is used to compare result obtained on high and low control serum from different laboratories.** - Gaussian curve - Youden/Twin Plot - Cumulative sum graph - Shew-hart Levey-Jennings chart **23. Known to give the best visualization of QC data** - Youden Twin Plot - Gaussian Curve - LJ Chart - Pie chart **24. What is the normal shape of the gaussian curve?** - Bullet-shaped - Finger-shaped - Bell-shaped - NOTA **25. A perfect standard curve:** 1. The line is straight 2. The line connects all points 3. The line goes through the origin of the two axes - 1 & 3 - 1 to 3 - Only 1 - 1 & 2 **26. What is the SI unit of temperature?** - Celsius - Farenheit - Kelvin **27. This type of QC compares performance between laboratories:** - Intralab QC - Youden - Interlab QC - Internal QC **28. It is a highly purified chemical that can be measured directly to produce a substance of exact known concentration and purity.** - National Formulary - Secondary Standard - Primary Standard - Ultrapure chemical **29. This acronym is used to remember the steps in operating a fire extinguisher:** - PASS - MSDS - NFPA - RACE **30. BMI of an obese individual in kg/m²:** - 25 - 30 - 18.5 - 29.9 **31. What system of units is preferred in scientific literature and clinical laboratories?** - Derived Unit - Systeme International d Unites - Conventional Unit - Basic Unit **32. Point of Care Testing** 1. Near patient testing 2. Alternate site testing 3. Bedside testing 4. Decentralized testing - 1 only - 1 & 2 - 1, 2 & 3 - All of the above **33. POCT can be performed by:** - Laboratory staff - Diabetic patient - Anesthesiologist - All of the above **34. All emergency (STAT) Laboratory analyses should be reported to the ordering physician within:** - 30 min to 1 hour - 10 to 20 minutes - 1 to hours - 3 hours **35. It consist of combustible chemicals or metals, such as sodium or magnesium and are extinguished with highly specialized or bulk materials** - Class A - Class B - Class C - Class D **36. It consists of flammable liquids, including alcohol, gas, and solvents. It requires dry-chemical or carbon dioxide extinguishers which smother the fire by depriving it of oxygen.** - Class A - Class B - Class C - Class D **37. Class A fires:** - Involve energized equipment - Involve ordinary combustible materials - Involve flammable liquid, gases and greases - A and B - B and C **38. Mechanical hazards:** - Centrifuges - Autoclaves - Homogenizers - All of these **39. A material of known composition available in highly purified form is:** - Standard - Control - Technical reagent - Test analyte **40. The amount of impurities of a substance is known in all following EXCEPT:** - Technical Grade - Reagent Grade - Analytical Grade - Spectroquality - USP Grade **41. Skin puncture value compared to venous sample values are usually:** - Lower in plasma, higher in serum - Identical - Slightly different but enough to be significant - Generally lower in plasma or serum - Clinically significant variable depending on substance tested **42. Light source used in vein finder** - Laser - Tungsten - Infrared - UV Light **43. Xenon, tungsten and mercury lamps are used to measure light in what spectra?** - Infrared - Visible - Light - UV - Microwave **44. The recommended color for biohazard label is:** - White - Fluorescent red - Fluorescent yellow - Fluorescent orange **45. What is the best type of all-purpose fire extinguisher?** - CO2 foam - Dry powder - Overhead shower - Fire blanket - Sand **46. What reference material should you consult after accidentally spilling a potentially hazardous chemical?** - PPE brochure - Laboratory newsletter - SOP manual - MSDS **47. Color for HEALTH hazard:** - Blue - White - Yellow - Red **48. The yellow diamond in the NFPA Diamond Symbol is for?** - Specific hazard - Stability - None of these - Health hazard **49. What are the causes of class C fire?** - Flammable organic materials - Combustible metals - Electrical equipment - Combustible material **50. This type of testing involves measurement of a single test on each sample loaded at the same time:** - Batch - Sequential - Parallel - Random access **51. Which of these tubes is the choice for LEAD testing?** - Brown top - Orange top - Lavender top - Green top **52. In dry slide technology, the preferred method for measuring analytes is by:** - Nephelometry - PCR - Reflectance photometry - Fluorometry **53. What type of measuring circuit is used in a freezing point osmometer?** - Wheatstone bridge - Thermal conductivity bridge - Electrometer - Potentiometer **54. Water passed through resin with charged particles is used for:** - Uncharged water - Resinous water - Distilled water - Deionized water **55. This analytical method dissociates element by using heat energy rather than excite electrons:** - Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry - Fluorometry - Nephelometry - Flame Photometry **56. Spectrophotometry measures** - Sound waves - Electromagnetic radiation - Magnetic waves - Light reflectance **57. The degree of correspondence between the obtained value and the true value is called:** - Reliability - Accuracy - reproducibility - precision **58. Strobe light is used to calibrate:** - Water bath - Spectrophotometer - Centrifuge - Refrigerator **59. Which does not require calibration** - Analytical Balance - Centrifuge - Automatic Pipette - Microscope **60. Skin puncture value compared to venous sample values are usually:** - Lower in plasma, higher in serum - Identical - Slightly different but enough to be significant - Generally lower in plasma or serum - Clinically significant variable depending on substance tested **61. Interference in atomic absorption spectrophotometry caused by differences in viscosity is called:** - lonization interference - Quenching - Absorption interference - Matrix effect **62. The process by which fluorescence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by interacting with other substances in a solution is known as:** - lonization - Quenching - Phosphorescence - Self-absorption **63. What is the main cause of the appearance of trend error in the Shewhart Levey Jennings Chart?** - Improper calibration of the instrument - Improperly made standard solutions - Deterioration of reagents - Unstable reagent blanks **64. A quality of the traditional paradigm of Quality assurance that is NOT used anymore?** - Error-free - Quality as means to reduce expenses - Continuous quality improvement - Acceptable quality **65. It is a value obtained by observation or measurement of a particular type of quantity on an individual. It is a pair of medical decision points that extend the limits of test results for a certain healthy population.** - Quality patient care - Quality assurance - Reference limit - Recovery experiment **66. Which Westgard rule is used as a warning?** - 2 2s - 1 2s - 3 1s - 1 3s **67. What do you do if there are 2 consecutive values outside the 2s region?** - Rerun the control - Continue with the analysis - Inform supervisor - Reject the specimen **68. Is the ability of the analytical method to detect the proportion of the individuals without the disease** - Variations - Diagnostic Sensitivity - Diagnostic Specificity - Constant error **69. It is important in maintaining long term accuracy of the analytical methods and involves proficiency testing programs that periodically provide samples of unknown concentrations to participating clinical laboratories.** - Intralab quality control - Interlab quality control - Practicability - Delta check **70. What is the goal of Six Sigma?** i. Improved performance ii. Improved quality iii. Improved precision iv. Improved accuracy - i,iii, iv - iii, iv - i, ii - i, ii, iii, iv **71. Convert 86 mg/dL of glucose to mmol/L.** - 4.8 mmol/L - 21.5 mmol/L - 5.12 mmol/L - 43 mmol/L **72. Conversion factor of thyroxine to nmol/L?** - 1.0 - 0.25 - 12.9 - 17.1 **73. Round-off 5.568** - 6 - 5.568 - 5.6 - 5.57 **74. Colligative properties of the solution include all of the following, EXCEPT;** - Boiling point, freezing point - pH - Osmotic pressure - Vapor pressure **75. Used to measure osmolality** - Molality - Specific gravity - Freezing point depression - Molarity **76. All factors are included in the quality assessment program of the laboratory, EXCEPT:** - Accuracy and precision of analyses - Duty schedules of staff - Preventive maintenance of instruments - Specimen collection **77. Referred to as the standard deviation squared and represents the difference between each value and the average of the data.** - Coefficient of variation - Variance - Both - Neither **78. This statistical test is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the means of two groups of data** - T test - F test - ANOVA - Pearson r **79. Compute for concentration of unknown for serum triglyceride determination (abs of blank =0.0, abs of unknown = 0.40, abs of standard = 0.50, concentration of standard = 150 mg/dL)** - 120 mg/dL - 135 mg/dL - 188 mg/dL - 202 mg/dL **80. A type of chromatography that uses pressure for fast separations, controlled temperature and gradient elution technique. Use for fractionation of hormones and HBA1c.** - Thin layer chromatography - Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry - Gas Chromatography Mass Spectroscopy - High Performance Liquid Chromatography **81. Trace the pathway of a single beam spectrophotometer.** - Light source -> Entrance slit -> Monochromator -> Cuvet -> Exit Slit -> Photodetector -> Read out device - Light source -> Entrance slit -> Monochromator -> Exit slit -> Cuvet -> Photodetector -> Read out device - Light source -> Entrance slit -> Photodetector -> Cuvet -> Exlit slit -> Monochromator -> Read out device - Light source -> Entrance slit -> Photodetector -> Exit slit -> Cuvet -> Monochromator -> Read out device **82. A type of monochromator in wedged shaped pieces of glass that can be rotated allowing only the desired wavelength to pass through an exit slit.** - Prisms - Filters - Diffraction gratings - Cuvet **83. Most commonly used photodetector which measures visible and UV regions.** - Photodiode - Barrier Layer Cell - Phototube - Photomultiplier tube **84. It determines the amount of light blocked by a particulate matter in a turbid solution** - Turbidimetry - Electrophoresis - Nephelometry - Thin Layer chromatography **85. What is the purpose of the holmium oxide glass filter?** - To assess wavelength accuracy - To prevent stray light - To validate linearity of the photodetector - To check absorbance accuracy **86. What is the effect of excess EDTA anticoagulant in blood samples?** - Lysis of red blood cells - Shrinkage of red blood cells - Clotted blood sample - Nuclear destruction of white blood cell **87. Which parameters are tested when there is a NEW laboratory machine** 1. Linearity 2. Accuracy 3. Precision - 2,3 - 1 only - 1,2,3 - None of the above **88. In times of decrease in blood flow in the performance of skin puncture, the site of collection can be warmed with water with a temperature that does not exceed** - 60 C - 56 C - 42 C - 37 C **89. What should be done first in a blood spill?** - Wash with warm water - Let it dry then wash with water - Use disposable paper towels to absorb - Add freshly prepared 10% chlorine solution **90. What is the SI unit of temperature?** - Celsius - Farenheit - Kelvin **91. Best fasting instructions for lipid profile** - 16 hours, can smoke, drink coffee, drink wine - 10 hours, can smoke, drink coffee, drink wine - 8 hours, nothing but water - 12 hours, nothing but water **92. What is the most commonly used area for an adult skin puncture** 1. 1st finger II. 2nd finger III. 3rd finger IV. 4th finger - IV, II - I, II - IV, III - III only **93. This is usually caused by a procedural error such as using too small bore of the needle or pulling back too hard on the plunger.** - Hemodilution - Hemoconcentration - Hemolysis - Edema **94. Best advice to give to an elderly woman that is asked to FAST for a test** - Breathe regularly - She can eat small meals - Exercise lightly - Drink water **95. Engineering Controls:** - Masks, including particulate respirators - Cleaning surfaces with disinfectant - Puncture resistant sharps container - Warning signage **96. Red color in biosafety means** - Radiation Hazard - Stop - Be careful - Caution **97. Which of the following conditions causes artifactual hyperalbuminemia?** - Malabsorption - Severe dehydration - Prolonged tourniquet application - Bacterial infection **98. This type of tube is used for lead determination and toxicity** - White top tube - Black top tube - Pink top tube - Tan top tube **99. All of the following are examples of pre-analytical errors in the clinical laboratory, except?** - Incorrect sample and reagent volume - Mislabeled specimen - Incorrectly interpreted/ ordered laboratory test - Incomplete centrifugation **100. Specimens that requires chilling:** 1. Ammonia 2. Blood gases 3. Gastrin 4. Lactic acid - 1 only - 1 & 2 - 1, 2 & 3 - All of the above **101. Venous blood is _______ than capillary blood due to tissue metabolism.** - 4 mg/dL higher - 4 mg/dL lower - 7 mg/dL higher - 7 mg/dL lower **102. Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of mg/dL per hour.** - 2 mg/dL per hour - 3 mg/dL per hour - 5 mg/dL per hour - 7 mg/dL per hour **103. This type of additive allows initiation of clotting mechanism that provides increased surface area for platelet activation** - Separator gels - Antiglycolytic agent - Clot activator - Anticoagulants **104. Select the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas studies.** - Sodium citrate, 3.2% - Lithium heparin, 100 U/mL blood - Sodium citrate, 3.8% - Ammonium oxalate, 5.0% **105. A type of biosafety cabinet that has an inflow velocity of 100 FPM in 30 % of air is recirculated and 70% is exhausted.** - Class I - Class II A1 - Class II B1 - Class II B2 **106. All of the following are characteristics of an ideal material for quality control, except?** - Resembles human sample - With known analyte concentrations - No known matrix effects - None of these. **107. A cholesterol quality control chart has the following data: 2SD = 6.0, mean = 120 mg/dL. What is the coefficient of variation?** - 2.5% - 5% - 0.05% - 0.03% **108. Convert 5 g/dL of total protein to g/L.** - 5 g/L - 50 g/L - 85.5 g/L - 75.5 g/L **109. Which wavelength would be absorbed strongly by a red-colored solution?** - 450 nm - 650 nm - 600 nm - 585 nm **110. Which of the following statements is true regarding Beer's law** - Transmittance increases as concentration increases - Absorbance increases as concentration increases - Transmittance decreases as concentration decreases - Absorbance decreases as concentration increases **111. Which of the following is an expression of the Beer-Lambert law that states the relationship between absorbance and transmittance?** - Au x Cs / As = Cu - Cu X Cs/ As = Au - As x Cs/ Cu = Au - A = 2- log% T **112. What would be mean result if the total glucose value in a group of 30 samples is equivalent to 1840 mg/dL** - 61.3 - 0.012 - 30.6 - 552 **113. Hemolyzed sample will cause:** - Elevated potassium level - Elevated sodium level - Elevated blood sugar level - No effect on any of the tests above **114. Serum samples drawn for glucose analysis should:** - Be stable indefinitely. - Be allowed to clot and centrifuged immediately. - Be rejected as unsuitable, ask for redraw in sodium fluoride. - Be frozen until analysis. - None of the choices **115. In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:** - hemolyzed the sample - precipitates protein - serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase. - it inhibits glycolysis. - prevent reactivity of non-glucose reducing **116. The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:** - Glycogenesis - Glycogenolysis - Gluconeogenesis - Glycolysis - Glycogenolysis **117. All of the following statement is true about insulin, EXCEPT:** 1. It is synthesized by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. 2. It is normally released when glucose levels are LOW. 3. It is the only hormone that decreases glucose levels. 4. It is stored from sources such as liver, fat and muscle. 5. It promotes decrease glycogenolysis **118. Which of the hormones that tend to increase glucose concentration?** - Thyroxine - Cortisol - catecholamine - ACTH - all of the choices **119. ingestion of which of the following drugs may cause hypoglycemia** - ethanol - propanol - salicylate - all of the above **120. This test will strongly differentiate type 1 diabetes from type 2 diabetes:** - C-peptide - Fasting plasma glucose - HbA1c - 2-hour OGTT **121. Which of the following is a characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus?** - Insulin levels are consistently low. - Most cases require a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose. - Hyperglycemia is often controlled without insulin replacement. - The condition is associated with unexplained weight loss. **122. After OGTT, which of the following values would be classified as impaired glucose tolerance at 2-hour testing?** - <110mg/dL - 123mg/dL - 170mg/dL - 205mg/dL **123. It is the require glucose load for pregnant patients after glucose challenge test.** - 75 grams - 50 grams - 100 grams - 1.75g - either a or b **124. The primary hyperglycemic hormone is produced by which of the following cells in the pancreas?** - alpha - beta - delta - phagocytic cells **125. C-peptide is formed during the conversion of pro-insulin to insulin. As such, assessment of serum C-peptide concentration provides reliable indicators for beta cell function. The concentration of C-peptide is decreased or undetectable in the presence of:** - Insulinoma - Ingestion of metformin - Type 1 DM - Type 2 DM **126. Gestational diabetes, one of the most common complications arising during pregnancy, happens when the extra metabolic demands of the fetus put stress on the ability of the mother to produce and adequate amount of insulin for proper glucose homeostasis. A large percentage of GDM patients develop full blown diabetes within:** - 2 to 3 years - 5 to 10 years - 10 to 15 years - 15 to 20 years **126. A positive test for glucose in urine suggests that the blood glucose level is above** - 175 mg/dL - 200 mg/dL - 180 mg/dL - 160 mg/dL **127. Total glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:** - Average blood glucose levels for the past week - Blood glucose level at the time the sample is drawn. - Hemoglobin A1C level at the time the sample is drawn. - Average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months - None of the choices **128. The hexokinase method of glucose determination measures:** - Absorbance of NADPH at 340 nm - Oxidized o-dianisdine in pink color - The amount of oxygen consume in the reaction - A green colored product as anthrone condenses with hydroxymethyl furfural **129. For asymptomatic diabetes which of the following are checked:** 1. Hypertension 2. History of Insulin Resistance 3. History of Vascular Disease - 1, 2, & 3 - 2 & 3 - 1 & 2 - 1 & 3 **130. It measures glucose homeostasis:** - 2-hour PPBS - fructosamine - FBS - OGTT **131. Ability to maintain steady Glucose concentration in blood?** - Glucoregulation - Gluconeogenesis - Glycogenesis - Glycolysis **132. Boots, a 24 year-old male patient, is diabetic and was diagnosed with hemolytic anemia since he was 15. Which of the following glucose monitoring tests can Boots be tested for if the doctor wants to know his patient's compliance to his blood sugar medications?** - Glycated albumin - 2-hour post prandial blood sugar - Ferritin - 50 g oral glucose tolerance test **133. In measuring glucose using the glucose oxidase method, which of the following enzymes may be added to the reaction mixture to facilitate the conversion of alpha-D-glucose to beta-D-glucose?** - Hexokinase - G6PD - Phosphohexisomerase - Mutarotase **134. Hormone produced by the alpha-cells of the pancreas responsible for regulating glucose levels.** - Insulin - Somatostatin - Glycogen - Glucagon **135. In diabetic patients, which of the following tests can be performed to significantly predict the patient's chance of developing diabetic nephropathy in the future?** - Ketones - Glycosylated hemoglobin - Microalbuminuria - Fructosamine **136. Each lipoprotein fraction is composed of varying amounts of lipids and protein components. The beta lipoprotein fraction consists primarily of which lipid?** - Cholesterol - Fatty acids - Phospholipids - Triglycerides - Lipoproteins **137. It is known as the floating beta lipoprotein, and it is elevated in dysbetalipoproteinemia:** - Beta-VLDL - Chylomicrons. - Intermediate density lipoprotein - Lipoprotein (a) **138. Which of the following result would be most consistent with high risk for coronary heart disease?** - 55mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 180mg/dL total cholesterol - 60mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 170mg/dL total cholesterol - 20mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 250mg/dL total cholesterol - 50mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 190mg/dL total cholesterol **139. Arrange the lipoprotein fractions from highest density to the one with lowest density?** - CM-IDL – VLDL – LDL - CM - VLDL - IDL – LDL - VLDL - IDL - LDL – CM - LDL-IDL – VLDL – CM - IDL-LDL-VLDL-CM **140. Apo A-1 which activates LCAT that esterifies cholesterol in plasma is the primary protein component of:** - HDL - IDL - LDL - VLDL **141. With the following data, compute for the LDL-C: ☐ Triglycerides = 150 mg/dL ☐ Total Cholesterol = 350 mg/dL ☐ HDL-Cholesterol = 30 mg/dL** - 40 mg/dL - 90 mg/dL - 290 mg/dL - 30 mg/dL **142. Exogenous Triglycerides are transported in the plasma in which of the following forms** - LDL - Chylomicrons - VLDL - HDL **143. Which lipoprotein is the major carrier of cholesterol to peripheral tissue?** - LDL - Chylomicrons - VLDL - HDL **144. The turbid, or milky, appearance of serum after fat ingestion is termed postprandial lipemia, which is caused by the presence of what substance** - Chylomicron - Bilirubin - Phospholipid - Cholesterol **145. Which of the following result would be most consistent with high risk for coronary heart disease?** - 55mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 180mg/dL total cholesterol - 60mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 170mg/dL total cholesterol - 20mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 250mg/dL total cholesterol - 50mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 190mg/dL total cholesterol **146. The Friedewald formula is not valid for triglycerides over:** - 100 mg/dL - 200 mg/dL - 300 mg/dL - 400 mg/dL **147. The current reference standard for cholesterol determination is described as:** - a four-step procedure involving colorimetry, extraction, saponification, and precipitation - a three-step procedure involving colorimetry, extraction, and saponification - a two-step procedure involving colorimetry and extraction procedures only - an enzymatic, colorimetric assay **148. What is the recommended or desirable CV of TAG?** - CV of less than or equal to 5% - CV of less than or equal to 9% - CV of less than or equal to 3% - CV of less than or equal to 4% **149. the simplest approach for quantification of cholesterol is one-step direct method, known as the:** - Liebermann-burchardt procedure - Abell-kendall method - Van handel & Zilversmith - Hantzch condenstation **150. This disorder is characterized by the complete absence of HDL due to a mutation in the ABCA1 gene on chromosome 9:** - Niemann Pick disease - Tangier's disease - Gaucher's disease - Abetalipoproteinemia **151. Increased cholesterol is seen in the following condition/s:** 1. Biliary cirrhosis 2. Nephrotic syndrome 3. Alcoholism 4. Hyperthyroidism - 1 only - 1 & 2 - 1,2 & 3 - All of the above **152. Increased Triglyceride is seen in the following condition/s:** 1. Alcoholism 2. Nephrotic syndrome 3. Pancreatitis 4. Hypothyroidism - 1 only - 1 & 2 - 1,2 & 3 - All of the above **153. Triple screen test used for the diagnosis of Down syndrome consist of:** - Estriol level, HCG and alpha-fetoprotein - Alpha-fetoprotein, estradiol and L/S ratio - Alpha-fetoprotein, estradiol and HCG - HCG, alpha-fetoprotein and catecholamine **154. Dora, a junior medical technologist, was tasked to perform protein electrophoresis using a buffer with a pH of 8.6. After the electrophoretic run upon visualization of the bands, she was puzzled to see an extra band between the beta and gamma fractions. What could be the possible cause of this occurrence?** - The sample came from a patient with multiple sclerosis. - The patient has AAT deficiency. - Dora used a frozen serum sample from a patient with nephrotic syndrome. - Dora used a sample coming from a light green-top tube. **155. Which of the following tests evaluates the degree of intravascular hemolysis, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and hemolytic transfusion reaction?** - Ceruloplasmin - Transferrin - Pre-albumin - Haptoglobin **156. Which of the following is a beta globulin?** - Complement - Ceruloplasmin - Pre-albumin - Haptoglobin **157. This protein appears in the urin when reabsorption is incomplete because proximal tubular damage as seen in kidney injury:** - Ceruloplasmin - Alpha2 macroglobulin - Beta2 microglobulin - Pre-albumin **158. Retinol-binding protein, which in turns binds vitamin A. this protein-vitamin complex formation is essential to transport the oil-soluble vitamin A throughout the body** - Prealbumin - Ceruloplasmin - Haptoglobin - Transferrin **159. Causes polyclonal gammopathy:** - Chronic Hepatitis - Amyloidosis - Multiple myeloma - Paraproteinemia **160. Which of the following proteins seldom exhibits an increased level in the blood?** - alpha 1 globulin - beta globulin - alpha 2 globulin - albumin - gamma globulin **161. In cirrhosis, a predominant characteristic observed on an electrophoretic serum protein pattern is a/an:** - increase in the alpha 2 globulin fractions. - bridging effect between the beta and gamma globulin fractions. - monoclonal band in the gamma-globulin region. - polyclonal band in the gamma-globulin region. **162. A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for 4 hours before it is delivered to the laboratory. Which group of tests could be performed?** - Glucose, Na, K, CI, TCO2 - Total and direct bilirubin - Uric acid, BUN, creatinine - CK, ALT, ALP, ACP **163. A patient has the following results: ☐ Total protein - INCREASED ☐ Albumin - INCREASED; ☐ Globulin