CONCEPT-INTEG-without answers-merged.pdf

CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 13 1. A patient with vascular problem develops an infected skin ulcer on the left heel. The modality that would NOT be applied for this patient is a. low intensity direct curr...

CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 13 1. A patient with vascular problem develops an infected skin ulcer on the left heel. The modality that would NOT be applied for this patient is a. low intensity direct current – can be used for wound healing b. ultraviolet radiation – can be used for wound healing c. high voltage galvanic stimulation – still a galvanic type of current that can be used for wound healing d. hot moist pack 2. Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 2 chronic dermal wound? a. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt.cm2 b. 3 MHz at.2-1 watt/cm2 c. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm d. 1 MHz at.2-1 watt/cm2 3. Electrical stimulation of spastic muscles has been proven to effectively reduce spasticity. The following are parameters to apply EXCEPT a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with 200-500 microseconds duration b. stimulus: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction c. duty cycle: 1:2 d. pulse rate: greater than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contraction 4. Ohm's Law describes the relationship among a. voltage, resistance and amperage b. amperage, conductance and resistance c. conductance, voltage and resistance d. voltage, conductance and amperage 5. A PT will apply electrical stimulation to a patient with venous stasis ulcer on the right lower extremity. The correct type of electrical stimulation to promote wound heating is a. direct b. biphasic pulsed c. interferential d. TENS 6. In electrotherapy, the frequencies generated by high voltage units are usually no greater than 100 to 140 Hz while that produced by low voltage units are ________ Hz. a. 500 - 1,000 b. 2,000 - 3,000 c. 3,000 - 4,000 d. 1,000 - 2,000 7. Patient is a 16 year old female student with idiopathic scoliosis. PT plans to apply bipolar or quadripolar electrodes over the overstretched and weakened muscles. He can select the following parameters EXCEPT a. duration: gradually increased until patient tolerates 8 hours of stimulation b. pulse rate: 50 pes c. waveform: rectangular monophasic waveform with 220 microseconds output d. stimulus amplitude: 50 to 70 mmA 8. In electrotherapy, if the peak pulse duration in high voltage generators ranges from 50-100 usec, for low voltage generators it is msec. (Possible Ref: Michlovitz 6th Ed Chapter 9 pp. 278-9) a. 600-800 b. 01-02 c. 900-950 d..03-500 9. Pt applies ultraviolet treatment to a female patient who the day after complained of peeling and itching. These disappear after 3 days. The dosage received was dose. (Ref: Dunaway Set A Question 25) a. Minimal erythemal b. First degree erythemal  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 13 c. Suberythemal d. Third degree erythemal 10. The major advantage of using red-glass in heat lamp is _____________. a. there is less light glare b. it filters out long infra-red rays c. it increases the physiological effects of radiation d. it filters out harmful ultraviolet rays 11. A PT applies 3.0 MHz ultrasound at 1.5 w/cm2 to treat a patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. Majority of the ultrasound energy will be absorbed within a depth of ______ centimeters. a. 4 – 5 b. 1 – 2 c. 5 – 6 d. 2 – 3 12. According to the temperature law of Vant Hoff, for every rise of 10 degrees C the rate of oxidation is increased how many times? a. Once b. 2.5 c. 3 d. Twice 13. These statements on reflex heating are TRUE, EXCEPT: a. It is also termed consensual heating and Landis Gibbon's Reflex b. The effect is felt after several hours c. It is useful for patients with circulatory problems such as diabetes or peripheral vascular disease d. The technique involves the application of heat to one area of the body that results in an increase in cutaneous circulation and other reactions in another area 14. A PT checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several patients report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures would be acceptable? a. 83 degrees Celsius (181 degrees F) b. 64 degrees Celsius (147 degrees F) c. 94 degrees Celsius (201 degrees F) d. 71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees F) 15. Erb's Law states that ____________. a. All of these b. opening currents are more effective than closing currents in causing normal depolarization c. Cathode currents are more effective than anodal in causing normal depolarization d. Less current is necessary to produce minimum contraction with cathode than anodal closing current 16. In the reeducation and facilitation of muscles, electrical stimulation is used as a guide to improve proprioceptive and visual sense of the motions and activities being facilitated. When bipolar electrodes are placed over the large muscles or muscle groups, you select the following parameters, EXCEPT: a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with a duration of 200-500 microseconds b. stimulus amplitude: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction c. duty cycle: 1:1 cycle to produce rhythmical muscle contractions d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions 17. A 65-year-old with breast cancer underwent a surgical removal of the mass followed by 12 weeks of chemotherapy and 8 weeks of radiation. PT program is directed towards mobilization of her upper extremity. An important guideline to the PT when treating a patient after radiation is _____. a. avoid stretching exercises that pull on the radiated site b. observe infection control procedures c. avoid all aerobic exercises for at least 2 months d. observe skin care precautions  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 13 18. Pulsed ultrasound is applied to a patient diagnosed with rotator cuff tendonitis. The statement about pulsed ultrasound that is MOST consistent when compared with continuous ultrasound is: a. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is reduced b. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced c. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is increased d. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is increased 19. Froment's sign is a test used to determine function of the a. ulnar b. axillary c. median d. radial 20. Laser radiation is commonly used for. a. Relief of neurogenic pain b. Accelerate wound healing c. Prevention of nerve degeneration d. Relief of arthritic pain 21. he complication that may result from excess ultraviolet radiation is. a. Telangiectasis b.Herpes simplex c.all of these d. Impetigo 22. The current leakage from an electrode intended for direct patient connection should NOT be more than microamperes. a. 40 B.30 c.50 d. 60 23. PT records the parameters of an electrical stimulation treatment in a patient's medical record. The standard unit of measure when recording alternating current frequency is a. volt b. Coulomb C.pulse per second d.hertz 24. The following are approaches of electrical stimulation to control spasticity EXCEPT a. alternately stimulating agonist and antagonist muscle b. stimulation of the spastic muscles themselves c. none of these d. stimulation of antagonist to utilize the effect of reciprocal inhalation 25. This test, also known as Ritchie or Trillart, is the BEST indicator of injury to the anterior cruciate ligament especially the posterolateral band. a. Gravity drawer b. Lachman's c. Slocum d. Godfrey 26. This is a special test that conforms lateral epicondylitis. Patient reports pain as the therapist resist the attempt to make a fist, pronate the forearm, radially deviate and extend the wrist. a. Golfer’s elbow b. Ludwig’s c. Wilson’s d. Cozen’s 27. This is a test for a rotator cuff pathology or shoulder impingement where patient is positioned in sitting or standing. Then therapist flexes the patient’s shoulder to 90 degrees and medially rotates the arm. A  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 13 positive test is indicated by pain and may be indicative of shoulder impingement involving the supraspinatus tendon. a. Hawkin’s kennedy b. Supraspinatus c. Drop arm d. Neer 28. The duration of the faradic impulse is approximately a. Variable B.0.01 of a second C.0.001 of a second d. 1 mega second 29. In electrical stimulation this current mode is described as a time period with a gradual rise of the current intensity which is maintained at a selected level for a given period of time followed by a gradual or abrupt decline in intensity. A.continuos B. ramped c. Surged d. Interrupted 30. The PT of an elderly patient with a stage III decubitus ulcer on the plantar surface of the right foot is applying electrical stimulation after trying conservative treatment without much success. The BEST choice for electric current in this condition is a. low voltage biphasic pulsed b. high voltage monophasic pulsed c. medium frequency interferential d. medium frequency burst 31. All of the following apply to reaction of degeneration, EXCEPT: a. Stages of reaction of degeneration denote the etiology of the lesion b. It indicates an organic lesion c. Lesion is in the lower motor neuron d. Stages of reaction of degeneration denotes the severity of the lesion 32. To maximize reduction of lymphedema following mastectomy in the upper extremity by means of massage, it is MOST important that the ___________. a. massage strokes occur in centrifugal direction b. local heat be applied before massage c. hand be massaged before the forearm d. upper arm be massaged before the forearm 33. A PT gives pre-operative instruction to a patient who is to undergo hip arthroplasty surgery. Part of the session includes discussion on the importance of preventing deep vein thrombosis following surgery. Which is the BEST indicator that the patient is at minimal risk of acquiring a deep vein thrombosis? a. ability to ambulate on frequent schedule b. ability to utilize pneumatic compression devices and elastic stockings c. ability to achieve full hip range of motion written the allowable limits d. ability to perform ankle pumps and muscle setting exercise 34. A 67-year-old female is referred to PT because of severe claudication occurring after walking more than 200 feet, muscle fatigue and cramped of both calf muscles. A closer look yielded a pale and shiny skin with some trophic nail changes. The BEST strategy is a. begin with interval walking exercising just to the point of pain b. avoid exercise stress until patient is on medication for at least 1 week c. non-weight bearing exercises like cycle ergometer d. walking program of moderate intensity 35. A PT working in an acute hospital evaluates a patient recovering from surgery. Apart from diabetes, patient has no other significant past medical history. Which of the following would most merit IMMEDIATE medical attention?  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 13 a. lack of significant clinical findings following the examination b. discovery of significant past medical history unknown to the physician c. signs of confusion and lethargy d. systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg during exercise 36. A patient with left piriformis syndrome is referred to PT. Two years ago patient underwent a left total hip arthroplasty. Because of this, the modality which will require extra precaution when applied to the patient is: a. Continuous ultrasound b. TENS c. Hot pack d. Massage to the left hip 37. A PT applies ultraviolet treatment to a female patient who the day after complained of peeling and itching. These disappear after 3 days. The dosage received was. a. Third degree erythemal dose b. First degree erythemal dose c. Minimal erythemal dose d. Suberythemal dose 38. A patient with a long-standing rheumatoid arthritis of the MP and IP joints is referred to PT. Upon evaluation, therapist observed that patient can flex IP when MCP is in neutral position but cannot flex IP when MCP is hyperextended. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is a. lateral band slippage on volar aspect b. MCP joint subluxation c. finger muscle tenosynovitis d. intrinsic muscle tightness 39. This is a test for posterior shoulder instability. The patient lies supine with the shoulder abducted to 100 degrees and laterally rotated 90 degrees and with the elbow flexed to 90 degrees so that the arm is horizontal. The examiner stabilizes the scapula with one hand palpating the posterior humeral head with the fingers and stabilizes the upper limb by holding the forearm and elbow at the elbow. The examiner then brings the arm into forward flexion. The test is known as a. push - pull b. load and shift c. Norwood stress d. posterior apprehension or stress 40. The following are tests to assess manual dexterity and coordination, EXCEPT: a. Jebson-Taylor Hand Function b. Minnesota Rate of Manipulation c. Grind d. Purdue Pegboard CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 12 1. A PT designs a research work that will examine body composition as a function of aerobic exercise and diet. Which method of data collection would provide the MOST Valid measurement of body composition? a. hydrostatic weighing b. bioelectrical impedance c. skinfold measurements d. anthropometric measurements 2. PT wants to begin behavior modification techniques as part of a plan of care to help shape the behavioral response of a patient recovering from traumatic brain injury. The BEST form of intervention is to a. scold patient every time a wrong behavior happens b. encourage the staff to tell patient which behaviors are correct and which are not c. allow patient enough time for self-correction of the behavior d. use frequent reinforcements for all desired behaviors 3. A 43 year old male worker suffered carbon monoxide poisoning in a chemical plant. He sustained permanent damage to the nervous system affecting the basal ganglia. The exercise program should be feared to neutralize expected impairment of a. motor planning with use of guided and cued movement b. motor paralysis with the use of full weights to increase strength c. muscular spasms and hyperreflexia with ice wrap application d. impaired sensory organization of balance using standing balance training 4. The maximum strength of a tetanic contraction of a muscle operating at a normal length is approximately _________ of a muscle. a. 3.5 kg/sq cm b. 5.5 kg/sq cm c. 1.5 kg/sq cm d. 2.5 kg/sq cm 5. In the modified Ashworth Scale for Grading Spasticity a grade 2 is described as a. slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half of the ROM) b. considerable increase in muscle tone, passive movement difficult c. slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension d. more marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily moves 6. Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition assessment? a. hydrostatic weighing b. eyeballing method c. electrical impedance d. anthropometric measurements 7. A 28-year-old fast food delivery man figured in a bad vehicular accident that landed him in the intensive care unit. Patient is confused. His laboratory findings include: hematocrit -28 percent, hemoglobin – 10 g/100 mL and serum white blood cell count of 12,000/mm3. With these, the PT can say that a. all values are abnormal b. only hematocrit value is abnormal c. hematocrit and hemoglobin values are abnormal; WBC is normal d. only serum and WBC is abnormal 8. A patient exhibiting symptoms of thalamic pain syndrome, cortical blindness and memory impairment. PT will suspect occlusion in the artery. a. vertebral basilar b. middle cerebral c. posterior cerebral d. anterior cerebral 9. While evaluating a patient with cerebral palsy, the spastic diplegia type, PT will observe the following abnormalities, EXCEPT: a. ankle dorsiflexion b. scissoring gait pattern c. hips flexed and adducted d. knees flexed with valgus 10. A sports PT was invited to deliver a talk on plyometrics before athletes of a university-based athletic association. Which of the following does NOT refer to plyometric? a. A criteria to begin plyometric training usually includes 60-70 percent level of strength and 75 percent range of motion b. It is appropriate only in the later stages of rehabilitation of active individuals who must achieve a high level of physical performance in specific high demand activities c. It Is characterized by a rapid eccentric contraction during which muscle elongates, followed immediately by a rapid reversal of movement with a resisted shortening contraction of the same muscle d. It is a system of high velocity resistance training CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 12 11. A PT reviews a laboratory result of an inpatient who sustained burns over 25 percent of her body in a fire. Granting the patient exhibits hypovolemia, which of the following laboratory values would be MOST significantly affected? a. hematocrit b. prothrombin time c. erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. oxygen saturation rate 12. Because of a traumatic brain injury, a patient is unable to bring foot up into the next step during stair climbing. The PT's BEST strategy to promote learning the task is to have patient do a. step-ups into a low step while in parallel bars b. standing up from halt kneeling c. balancing of stairs while PT brings the foot up d. marching in place between parallel bars 13. A patient with a left CVA demonstrates right hemiparesis and strong and dominant hemiplegia synergies in the lower extremity. The BEST strategy to break up these strategies is a. supine, PNF D2F with knee flexing and D2F with knee extending b. foot tapping in a sitting position c. bridging, pelvic elevation d. supine-lying hip extension with adduction 14. A 2-year-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is treated in as early intervention program. Daily training activities that can be considered include a. rolling activities, initiating movement with stretch and tracking resistance b. stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization c. locomotor training using body weight support d. holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing 15. A 3-year-old child with spastic cerebral palsy and at a 6 month old gross developmental level is referred to the clinic. The plan of care would include a. visually tracking a black and white object held 9 inches from his/her face b. reaching for a black and white object while in the supine position c. reaching for a multi colored object while in an unsupported standing position d. reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position 16. A PT has been invited to be resource speaker during a workshop for budding athletes on plyometrics. Among the exercises below, what can be included? a. Running downhill b. Skip and hop in all directions c. Walking backwards d. Lateral movement to stabilize knee 17. A PT is performing a cognitive function test on a patient status post stroke. As part of the test: PT examines the patient's abstract ability. Which of these tasks is MOST appropriate? a. discuss how two objects are similar b. identify letters or numbers traced on the skin c. copy drawn figures of varying size and shape d. orientation to time, person and place 18. The following are characteristics of the right hemisphere of the brain EXCEPT a. process information in a holistic manner b. hand-eye coordination c. produce written and spoken language d. artistic abilities 19. A sports PT is tasked to prescreen athletes to identify who are susceptible to heat illness. Which of these elements would be MOST useful to the project? a. flexibility b. height c. percent body fat d. weight 20. A 36-year-old fast food delivery crew got involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained an injury to the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Which muscle would not be affected by the injury? a. latissimus dorsi b. infraspinatus c. teres major d. subscapularis 21. A PT is treating a patient with a behavior pattern involving his speech. There is absence of spontaneous speech but prompt repetition of your words. The type of aphasia MOST LIKELY present in this patient is ____________. a. transcortical motor b. transcortical sensory c. conduction d. Wernicke's CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 12 22. Choose a form of resistance seen during range of motion of a hypertonic joint where there is greatest resistance at the initiation of range that lessens with movement through the range of motion. a. Clasp-knife response b. Hemiballism c. Clonus d. Cogwheel rigidity 23. A patient who has been diabetic for more than 20 years have vascular insufficiency and diminished sensation of both feet with poor healing of a superficial skin lesion. It is essential that the patient understand the precautions and guidelines on foot care. Which of these is a CONTRAINDICATION to diabetic care? a. Wash feet daily and hydrate with moisturizing lotion b. Inspect skin daily for inflammation, swelling, redness, blisters or wounds c. Do daily hot soaks d. Wear flexible shoes that allow adequate room and change shoes frequently 24. A physical training program applied over a sufficient period of time can lead to improved physical performance. The statement describing the effects of physical training that is NOT accurate is _____. a. prior training hastens the rate and increases the magnitude of training benefits gained from subsequent training programs b. training induces physiological changes in the skeletal muscles and the cardiorespiratory system c. the changes resulting from training are influenced by the frequency, duration and intensity of training d. training effects can be maintained by one or two days of exercise per week 25. A CVA patient with extensor synergy will find difficulty ______________. a. going down stairs with affected leg first b. during the swing phase of gait c. standing on affected leg on midstance d. during circumduction 26. A 68-year-old male with a 9-year history of Parkinson's disease is referred to physical therapy. Patient demonstrates significant rigidity, decreased passive ROM in both upper extremities in the typical distribution and frequent episodes of akinesia. The exercise intervention that BEST addresses these problems is __________. a. quadruped position, upper extremity PNF D2 flexion and extension b. modified plantigrade, isometric holding, stressing upper extremity shoulder flexion c. resistance training, free weights for shoulder flexor at 80 percent of one repetition maximum d. sitting, PNF bilateral symmetrical upper extremity D2 flexion patterns, rhythmic initiation 27. The following statements are TRUE about cardiovascular response to exercise in trained and sedentary patients EXCEPT a. trained patients will have a larger stroke volume during exercise b. the sedentary patient will reach aerobic threshold faster than the trained patient, if workload are equal c. cardiovascular response to increase workload will increase at the same rate for sedentary and for trained patients d. if exercise intensities are equal, the sedentary patient's heart rate will increase faster than the trained patient's heart rate 28. The following are considerations when treating a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma, EXCEPT: a. ecchymosis in patients with low platelet count b. possible fractures from thoracic bone metastasis c. pneumonia may develop because of a completely obstructed bronchus d. change in skin color 29. A PT is performing a respiratory evaluation including the following test: respiratory rate, blood pressure, pulse and measurement of chest expansion. A normal measurement of difference between the rest period and full expansion over the xiphoid process is a. 1 ½ inches b. 1 inch c. 2 inches d. ½ inch 30. The following are Bobath's concepts of muscular weakness EXCEPT a. sensory deficit cannot result in weakness b. weakness is due to being relatively overcome by spastic antagonistic muscles c. a muscle may be weak only as a prime mover but "strong" whenever an abnormal mass movement pattern occurs d. soft tissue periarticular contraction can enhance or stimulate weakness 31. The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated reactions, the approach MOST closely illustrates. a. Kabat b. Rood c. Brunstrom d. Bobath CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 12 32. After complete healing, wound will have only how many percent strength of intact skin? a. 80 b. 70 c. 50 d. 60 33. The patient is now able to pronate and supinate his affected forearm with the elbow extended. This means he is in the stage of Brunnstrom’s stages of development. a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 34. The MOST important consideration among the factors below in the clinical assessment for wheelchair and seating system is. a. Abnormal reflexes b. Sensory deficits c. Contracture d. Muscle tone 35. Patient was on bed rest for several months. Which of these does NOT occur in a patient after an extended bed rest? a. Increase in the heart rate response to activity b. A negative nitrogen and calcium balance c. Increase in lung volume d. Decrease in physical work capacity  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 11 1. When planning to establish a PT clinic, it is BEST to first a. plan a marketing strategy b. research on the needs of the community c. plan a budget to determine how much business loan is required d. look for a location where to set up 2. A PT is increasing a patient's functional mobility in a seated position. To manage the patient MOST effectively and efficiently, the following should be performed in what order? 1 - weight shifting of the pelvis 2 - isometric contractions of the lower extremity 3 - trunk range of motion exercises 4 - isotonic resistance of the quadriceps a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 3, 2, 1, 4 c. 2, 3, 1, 4 d. 4, 3, 2, 1 3. A PT is instructing a stroke patient with gait training, PT noted that learning is going well because errors are decreasing and overall endurance is improving. The BEST strategy to promote continued motor learning at this time in the patient's rehabilitation is to a. intervene early whenever errors appear before bad habits become firmly entrenched b. have the patient practice walking in different environments c. provide continuous feedback after every walking trial d. have the patient continue to practice in the parallel bars until all errors are gone 4. The Rule of Nines assigns percentage of burn to an adult's anterior leg as ________. a. 12.0 b. 4.5 c. 6.0 d. 9.0 5. A PT examines a patient seated in a wheelchair and notices that it has inadequate seat width. The MOST LIKELY consequence to this is excessive pressure ____________. a. on the greater trochanters b. in the popliteal fossa c. under the distal high d. under the ischial tuberosities 6. A PT notices a bluish discoloration of the skin and nail beds of a 57-year-old male referred to PT for pulmonary rehabilitation. This finding indicates _____________. a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperoxemia c. Hyperoxia d. Hypoxemia 7. Which of the following statements about developmental motor control is FALSE? a. Trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control. b. Isotonic control develops before isometric control. c. Gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control. d. Eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movement. 8. A PT is part of a health team that will examine applicants for flight attendants of an airline company. His task was to examine the posture of applicants. Which of these descriptions would NOT match a good posture? a. chest is slightly up and forward b. front of pelvis and thighs are in a straight line c. shoulder blades pulled back and separated about 2 inches from each other d. arms hang relaxed at the sides with palms of hand facing toward the body  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 11 9. PT is evaluating a 40-year-old male patient referred by a pulmonary specialist. Pt observes a pattern of breathing with periods of alternate deep breathing and apnea. Patient reports the same occurs at bedtime. This type of breathing or disorder in rate and rhythm is consistent with a. diaphragmatic b. Biot's c. ataxic d. Cheyne-Stokes 10. The plumb line is a tool that consists of a weight suspended at the end of a string to determine vertically. Ideal positioning of selected body parts in relation to the plumb line is described below EXCEPT a. midway through the tip of the shoulder b. through the external auditory meatus c. through the axis of the odontoid process d. slightly anterior to the coronal suture 11. A patient with a deep partial thickness burns over 30 degrees of the body is referred to PT from the Burn Unit. The expected healing process in this type of burn includes a. moderate edema with spontaneous healing and minimal grafting b. depressed skin area that heals with grafting and scarring c. marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring d. blisters and minimal edema with spontaneous healing 12.A patient who sustained a CVA a month ago is starting to exhibit ability to produce movement patterns outside the limb synergies. According to Brunnstrom, this is in the stage of recovery. a. fourth b. fifth c. third d. second 13. Criteria that can be used to assess motor learning include all of the following EXCEPT a. ability to remember response-produced augmented feedback b. resistance to contextual change c. performance acquisition of a motor task d. retention-recall of a motor task after a period of no practice 14. A PT teaches a patient in supine to posteriorly tilt pelvis. The patient has full active and passive range of motion in the upper extremity but cannot do full shoulder flexion while in posterior pelvic tilt position. What could be the BEST explanation for this? a. Latissimus dorsi tightness b. Capsular tightness c. Quadratus lumborum tightness d. Pectoralis minor tightness 15. While performing a finger to nose test a patient demonstrates hesitancy in getting started and is then unable to control the movement. The moving finger hits the side of the face and misses the nose completely. These findings are consistent with moderate impairment in ___________. a. Response orientation b. Dysmetria c. Dyssynergia d. Dysdiadochokinesia 16. A study was made to determine the need for a new wellness center in the community. The population was divided by sex and random sampling was selected from each group. This is an example of _____________ sample. a. random cluster b. stratified random c. two stage cluster d. systematic random 17. The test for the presence peripheral arterial involvement in patient with calf musculature pain is ____.  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 11 a. Percussion test b. Homan's sign c. Claudication time d. blood pressure 18. A 22-month-old child with Down syndrome and moderate developmental delay is being treated at an early intervention program. Daily training activities that should be considered include. a. Locomotor training using motorized treatment b. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing c. Rolling activities d. Stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization 19. While performing a postural screening for chronic pain, the PT notices excessive internal rotation of the shoulders and winging of the scapula during overhead motion. Treatment should concentrate on strengthening of the: a. Upper trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles b. Middle and lower trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles c. Rhomboids and stretching of upper trapezius d. Pectoral muscles and stretching of upper trapezius 20. A patient has chronic pulmonary disease. A contraindication to starting extremity joint mobilization is. a. Reflex muscle guarding b. Long term corticosteroid therapy c. Concurrent inhalation therapy d. Function chest wall immobility 21. A 68-year-old male patient with a 10-year history of diabetes complains of cramping, pain, fatigue of the left buttock after walking 500 feet or climbing stairs. Pain is relieved during rest. The skin of the involved leg is pale and slightly cold. These symptoms point to a. Raynaud's phenomenon b. Spinal root impingement c. Peripheral arterial disease d. Peripheral nerve injury 22. A 68-year-old male patient has an irregular dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. Patient has an irregular dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. Patient did not complain of pain. These symptoms are consistent with an/a ___________. a. Arterial ulcer b. Diabetic ulcer c. Venous ulcer d. Arterial insufficiency 23. A 65-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was referred to PT. Pulmonary testing reveals that forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEVI) and vital capacity (VC) are within 60 percent of predicted values. What is the correct exercise prescription? a. exercise at 75-80 percent of the target heart rate, 7 times per week b. exercise at 75-80 percent of the target heart rate, 3 times per week c. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and increase slowly, 7 times per week d. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and exercise slowly, 3 times per week 24. A female patient with a 10-year history of scleroderma is referred to PT to improve function and endurance. She was recently treated with corticosteroids for a bout of myositis. Evaluation shows limited ROM and fibrotic soft tissue with hyperesthesia. The MOST essential strategy in the beginning is. a. Treadmill walking with body weight support at intensity 40 percent HR max b. Closed-chain and modified aerobic step exercises c. Soft tissue mobilization and stretching d. AROM exercises and walking in the pool  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 11 25. A postpartum patient with stress incontinence is referred to the clinic for pelvic floor exercises. During the beginning of the exercise program, the BEST technique should include. a. Supine, squeeze the spincters and hold for 3 seconds b. Hooklying, bridge and hold for 5 seconds c. Supine, squeeze sphincters and hold for 10 seconds d. Sitting in toilet bowl, stop and hold the flow for 5 seconds 26. The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is _________ seconds. a. 10 - 15 b. 1 – 5 c. 5 – 10 d. 15 – 20 27. A patient is not able to take in enough supply of nutrients by mouth because of the side effects of radiation therapy. Because of this, the physician ordered the implementation of tube feeding. What type of tube is MOST commonly used for short term feeding? a. Endotracheal b. Endobronchial c. Nasogastric d. Traecheostomy 28. Republic Act 5680 mandates that the Board of PT-OT should be composed of _________. a. A PT as Chairman, 2 Physiatrists and 2 OTS b. A PT as Chairman, 1 Physiatrist and 1 OT c. A Physiatrist as chairman, 1 PT and 1 OT d. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 PTS and 2 OTS 29. Schematic drawings on the construction of a PT department should include __________. a. All of these b. Actual size of each department section c. Arrangement of various major elements of the department depicting an orderly traffic flow in the department d. Very detailed arrangement of the fixed and non-fixed equipment 30. In a PT clinic, departmental records and data are collected for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: a. Organizational control b. Standards of practice c. Standards of work d. Department planning 31. A 75-year-old male patient with persistent balance difficulty and a history of recent falls (2 in the past month) is referred for evaluation and management. During the initial session, it is important to examine the a. level of dyspnea during functional transfers b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance c. spinal musculoskeletal changes secondary to degenerative joint disease d. cardiovascular endurance during a 5-minute walking test 32. A 64-year-old female patient who underwent a minimally invasive total knee replacement was referred to PT. The referring physician stated in the chart that patient ha stage 1 Alzheimer's disease. The PT will therefore NOT expect to find a. memory loss b. anxiety and irritability c. cannot concentrate d. profound communication deficits 33. A PT participating in a study to check the fitness level of the senior population in a barangay in quezon city is using a simple random sample to draw a sample from the population. By selecting this type of sample, the PT ensures that. a. The sample will have proportional representation from all parts of the population b. Every member of the population has an equally opportunity of being chosen  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 11 c. The sample size will be large d. The data collected from the sample will be normally distributed 34. A PT wants to study whether a treatment was effective in reducing lower extremity edema in a group of patients with peripheral vascular edema. Volumetric measurements using a water displacement method is selected as the outcome measure. The data were compared to a control group receiving no treatment. Analysis of data is BEST done by utilizing _______________. a. chi square b. Pearson's product moment c. ANOVA d. t-test 35. PT was referred a patient with a pulmonary condition. She was to evaluate chest expansion using a tape measure. The 3 sites involved in the assessment are. i. 3rd intercostal space ii. under the axilla iii. nipple line or xiphisternal junction iv. 5th intercostal spine v. T10 rib area a. If I, III, V are correct b. If II, III, V are correct c. If I, II, III are correct d. If III, IV, V are correct  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 10 1. The body weight transmitted to a unilateral cane opposite the affected side is about _______ percent. a. 20-25 b. 80 c. 40-45 d. 10-15 2. A PT prepares to complete a sensory examination on a patient recovering from a lower extremity burn. Which of the following would serve as the BEST predictor of altered sensation? a. presence of skin graft b. percentage of body surface affected c. depth of burn injury d. extent of hypertrophic scarring 3. A 66-year-old female is recovering from stroke and at 4 months is ambulating with a straight cane inside the house. During therapy, PT asks patient to practice walking without assistive device. Recurvatum is observed that worsens with continued walking. The BEST strategy for the PT is: a. Put the patient on an exercise machine and work on increasing quadriceps torque outpatient at higher loads and increasing speeds b. Practice isolated small-range quadriceps eccentric control work in standind and continue with the straight cane c. Give the patient a small-based quad cane to improve stability, and have him/her practice active ROM in supine d. Give the patient a KAFO to control the hyperextension and a hemi walker 4. A PT chooses the Six-Minute Walk Test as a means of quantifying endurance for a patient rehabilitating from a lengthy illness. Which variable would be most appropriate to measure when determining the patient's endurance level with this objective test? a. Heart rate response b. Perceived exertion c. Elapsed time d. Distance walked 5. A patient using a wheelchair is about to be discharged from the hospital. He asks his family to build a ramp that will allow entry into the house. What is the MAXIMUM recommended grade for the ramp? a. 10.4 percent b. 8.3 percent c. 9.3 percent d. 6.5 percent 6. In designing a ramp for patients with wheelchair, for every inch of threshold height, there should be a corresponding _____ inches of ramp length. a. 12 b. 10 c. 15 d. 8 7.. A PT should have sustainable understanding of the normal development of the human body to treat effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is NOT TRUE? a. Early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity b. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning c. Early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes d. Motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe 8. A medial or lateral whip during gait of an amputee can occur because of the following reasons, EXCEPT: a. inadequate rotation of the knee b. tight socket fit c. improper alignment of toe break d. valgus in the prosthetic knee 9. A PT is working on a male inpatient on therapeutic positioning. Due to financial problems, he was referred to PT only recently. The patient has developed significant weakness of the diaphragm and is hypertensive. The MOST appropriate patient position to initiate treatment is  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 10 a. prone b. Trendelenburg c. reverse Trendelenburg d. supine 10. A PT should have adequate understanding of the normal development of the human body to treat effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is INCORRECT? a. early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes b. motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe c. early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity d. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning 11. When comparing the gait cycle of young adults with the gait cycle of the older adults, the TRUE statement is a. The younger population has a short period of double support b. The younger population has a shorter stride length c. The younger population has a decrease in speed of ambulation d. The younger population has a shorter step length 12. When utilizing the skinfold measurement procedure to check body composition, the following guidelines are followed EXCEPT a. Wait one to two seconds before reading the caliper b. skinfold calipers should be positioned one centimeter away from the examiner's fingers when pinching the side, positioned perpendicular to the skinfold and centered between the base and top of the fold c. Take only one measurement at each site d. Maintain pinching of the site during the reading of the caliper 13. Which test of aerobic capacity is a reliable and valid functional capacity measure with reported minimal detectable change scores in patients with heart failure? a. Canadian Aerobic Fitness Step test b. 6 Minute Walk Test c. Bruce protocol treadmill test d. Lower extremity ergometer test 14. When reduction of weight transmission through the lower limb is desired, the ideal weight bearing device is _________. a. Ischial ring b. Quadrilateral socket c. Patellar tendon bearing d. Any of these 15. In a normal gait, the stance phase usually takes up approximately _____ percent of the pattern. a. 40 b. 20 c. 80 d. 60 16. Herzberg's Two Factor Motivation Theory includes which of the following? a. responsibility and growth b. advancement and promotion c. longer work hours and increased work load d. satisfies and dissatisfies 17. The parents of a child with cerebral palsy offers the PT a cash gift. He refuses but family insists saying it is their way of saying thank you for the services he has rendered. The PT'S BEST response is to __________. a. accept money and use it to buy small needs for the PT department b. accept money and use it to set up a feeding program c. decline the gift d. accept money and donate to charity  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 10 18. A study of a local community population was necessary to determine the need for a Senior’s Day care center in the area. The PT performing the study divided the population by sex and selected a random sample from each group. This is an example of what type of sampling? a. stratified random sample b. random cluster sample c. systematic random sample d. two stage cluster sample 19. The following are contraindications of traction EXCEPT a. vascular condition b. patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease c. hypermobility d. local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors and infections 20. If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may be clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity if pus-filled sputum that may also contain blood, you will entertain the presence of ________ a. chronic bronchitis b. emphysema c. asthma d. bronchiectasis 21. World Health Organization defines this term as abnormalities of anatomical, physiology or psychologic origin within specific organs or systems of the body. a. functional limitation b. handicap c. functional disability d. Impairment 22.A patient who sprained the left ankle 3 days ago reports pain (4/10) and worsening moderate swelling. During this time, the strategy that would be BEST to use is ___________. a. contrast baths followed by limb elevation b. cold/intermittent compression combination with leg elevated c. cold whirlpool followed by massage d. intermittent compression followed by elevation 23. High level training for a patient recovering from traumatic brain injury (TBI) who is graded as Level VII in the Rancho Los Amigos Cognitive Function Scale should concentrate on _____________. a. Providing assistance as needed using guided movements during training b. Involving the patient in decision making and monitoring for safety c. Providing maximum supervision as needed to ensure successful performance and safety d. Providing a high degree of environmental structure to ensure correct performance 24. A PT treating a patient with lower extremity lymphedema with mechanical compression decides to shift to aquatic therapy. Hydrostatic pressure exerted by the water is expected to. a. Lower effusion and assist venous return b. Increase resistance as speed of movement increases c. Provide joint unloading and enhance ease of active movement d. Raise cardiovascular demands at rest and with exercise 25. This is associated with a pars interarticularis stress fracture or spondylolisthesis. The patient stands on one leg and extends the spine while balancing on the leg. The test is repeated with the patient standing on the opposite leg. A positive result is indicated by pain in the back. a. Quadrant b. segmental instability c. Stork standing d. Pheasant 26. To prevent the onset of pneumonia for a non-ambulating patient, PT can recommend  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 10 a. bedside sitting 2-3 times/day b. chest tapping four times a day c. starting spirometry and wheelchair mobility d. nebulizer twice a day 27. Which PNF pattern has the patient "hold" in that part of the range where weakness exists? a. contract - relax b. slow reversal c. rhythmic stabilization d. approximation 28. A short-term goal for a patient with a neurological deficit is as follows: The patient will transfer from tall kneeling to half kneeling with supervision. This activity is an example of a. controlled mobility b. skill c. mobility d. stability 29. If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may be clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity of puss-filled sputum that may also contain blood, you will entertain the presence of _________. a. chronic bronchitis b. emphysema c. bronchiectasis d. asthma 30. A patient with multiple sclerosis demonstrates a significant instability and hypertonicity in the hips. To regain stability, the most appropriate strategy is ____________. a. slow-reversal-hold to lock hip in prone position b. slow-reversal-hold to lower trunk in sitting position c. rhythmic stabilization at the hips with the patient on elbows and knees d. rhythmic stabilization to trunk in sidelying position 31. The organizational plan of a PT department usually has the following objectives EXCEPT a. reflects the operation of the services b. provides supervising functions within the program/services c. provides the direction of services d. describes the interrelationship within the overall organization 32. Professional negligence is commonly identified as. a. An unnecessary risk taken by a practitioner b. The unintended injury to person or property c. “Res ipsa loquitor” d. The intended injury to person or property CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 9 1. Patellar tracking dysfunction is a common problem especially those with active lifestyles. Dynamic factors for patellar tracking dysfunction include ______________. a. a lateral femoral condyle that is not sufficiency prominent anteriorly b. shallow trochlear groove c. vastus medialis obliquus muscle insufficiency d. increase in the angulation between the quadriceps muscle and the patellar tendon 2. A 57-year-old male patient with sciatica complains of severe lumbar pain and paresthesia extending to the left ankle. Straight leg raising is positive in the left lower extremity. The MOST LIKELY source of pain is ___________. a. a lumbar disc with a posterior herniation or protrusion b. piriformis syndrome c. sacroiliac joint dysfunction d. a lumbar disc is with a right posterior herniation or protrusion 3. A basketball player of a major professional league was prescribed a knee derotation brace for all his games. The condition that would BEST benefit the use of derotation brace is _________. a. posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction b. anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction c. medial meniscus tear d. anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency 4. A PT is applying electrical stimulation to treat a patient with shoulder subluxation due to a stroke. The electrode placement should be over the ________________. a. posterior deltoid and teres minor b. middle deltoid and supraspinatus c. posterior deltoid and supraspinatus d. serratus anterior and pectoralis major 5. A patient who sustained burns on 25 percent of his body was admitted! If patient has hypovolemia, the laboratory value MOST affected is a. oxygen saturation ratio b. hemoglobin c. prothrombin time d. hematocrit 6. The range of motion requirements for normal gait include the following, EXCEPT: a. knee flexion: 0 - 60 degrees b. ankle dorsiflexion: 0 - 10 degrees c. hip extension: 0 - 30 degrees d. hip flexion: 0 - 30 degrees 7. A patient with right lateral epicondylitis reports that symptoms are the same after 2 weeks of treatment. PT evaluated the patient and found out that the left biceps reflex is 1+. The PT's next strategy is to conduct a complete examination of the region. a. midcervical b. cervico thoracic c. upper cervical d. cervicocranial 8. A patient with a spinal cord injury finds it difficult to transfer from mat to wheelchair. The patient can't seem to process the idea of how to coordinate this movement. In this situation the MOST effective use of feedback during the early motor learning is to a. focus on guided movement and proprioceptive inputs b. concentrate on knowledge of results and visual inputs c. give feedback only after a short (5 sec) delay d. concentrate on knowledge of performance and proprioceptive inputs 9. A patient who was in cast for 3 weeks after a grade III left ankle sprain was referred to PT for mobility exercises. Evaluation shows a loss of 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. The MOST difficult activity for this patient is a. ambulating barefoot b. ambulating over rough surfaces c. descending a ramp d. descending stairs 10. A patient has difficulty going down ramps. His knees wobble and are unsteady. The action to take is a. prolonged icing to reduce hamstring pain b. progressive resistance training for the quadriceps c. stretching thru posterior resting splint for tight plantarflexors d. continuous passive movement machine to keep the range 11. An 82-year-old female is referred to PT for pain in the left sacroiliac joint. Initial evaluation reveals the following: higher left ASIS than right ASIS, shorter leg length on the left side (measured in supine position) and the left PSIS lower than the right PSIS. In what position should you place patient to perform the correct sacroiliac mobilization of the left innominate? a. Supine b. Prone c. None of these d. Right sidelying CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 9 12. A PT treats a 40-year-old male status post knee surgery. The PT performs goniometric measurements to quantify the extent of the patient's extension lag. Which of the following would not provide a plausible rationale for the extension lag? a. Muscle weakness b. Inhibition by pain c. Patient apprehension d. Bony obstruction 13. While doing postural screening for a patient referred for low back pain, PT notices that the knees are in genu recurvatum. The possible contributory postures include _________. a. Forefoot varus and posterior pelvic tilt b. Ankle dorsiflexion and hip abduction c. Lateral tibial torsion and anterior pelvic tilt d. Ankle plantarflexion and anterior pelvic tilt 14. A sports PT was conducting evaluation of female varsity volleyball players. One of them complained of a chronic right knee pain and recurrent effusion. The PT performed an apprehension test and patient immediately grimaced and contracted her quadriceps maximally. The PT would suspect the presence of a. chondromalacia patella b. internal knee derangement c. recurrent patellar dislocation d. rheumatoid arthritis 15. During 180 degrees of abduction in the scapulohumeral rhythm, there is roughly a ratio of movement of the humerus to the scapula. a. 2:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:3 d. 1:2 16. A 55-year-old street sweeper is referred to you with shoulder pain. After evaluating patient, you suspect subscapularis tendinitis. Which symptom pointed to your diagnosis? a. Painful resisted shoulder adduction b. Pain was provoked by passive glenohumeral external rotation c. Tenderness at the greater tubercle of the humerus d. Pain was provoked by active glenohumeral external rotation 17. A comparison of the effects of exercise in water, on land or combined on the outcome of patients with intraarticular anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction revealed that less joint effusion was noted after 8 weeks in the water group. An appropriate statistical test to compare the girth measurements of the 3 groups is a. chi square b. analysis of variance c. analysis of covariance d. Pearson's Product Moment 18. A PT involved in a research project chooses a simple random sample to draw a sample from the population. With this type of sampling PT ensures that _______________. a. sample will have proportional representation from all parts of the population b. every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen c. sample size will be large d. data collected from the sample will be normally distributed 19. Which of the following statements on Speed’s Test is FALSE. a. A positive test elicits increased tenderness in the bicipital groove and is indicative of bicipital tendinitis b. It is less effective than Yergason’s test because the tendon moves over the bone during the test c. The examiner resists the shoulder forward flexion by the patient while the patient’s forearm is first supinated, then pronated, and the elbow is completely extended d. The test may also be performed by forward flexing the patient’s arm to 90 degrees and then asking the patient to resist an eccentric movement into extension 20. 20. A patient with vestibular problems was referred to PT. Evaluation revealed spontaneous nystagmus that can be minimized by visual fixation, oscillopsia, and loss of gaze stabilization. There was also marked disequilibrium and an ataxic wide-based gait veering to the left. These symptoms are consistent with. a. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo b. Acoustic neuroma c. Acute unilateral vestibular dysfunction d. Meniere’s disease 21. The navicular drop test in weight bearing can be utilized clinically in the examination of a. integrity of the dorsal talonavicular ligament b. medial longitudinal arch collapse c. tendon injury to the tibialis anterior muscle d. motion across the longitudinal axis of the midtarsal joint CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 9 22. The following are Bobath's concepts of muscular weakness, EXCEPT: a. A muscle may be weak only as a prime mover but "strong" whenever an abnormal mass movement pattern occurs b. The weakness is due to being relatively overcome by spastic antagonistic muscles c. Soft tissue periarticular contraction can enhance or stimulate weakness d. Sensory deficit cannot result in weakness 23. A 29-year-old data encoder complains of numbness and tingling in the right hand, a median nerve involvement. Upon a visit to the jobsite for evaluation, it was revealed that patient was working on a very rigid 10hour shift with only 15-minute break every 4 hours. A recommendation to the supervisor to ease the symptoms of the patient could be a. provide the worker a resting splint b. give frequent rest periods of 15 min every hour c. require worker to attend a cumulative trauma disorder d. lessen work schedule to 8 hours 24. Patient is able to accomplish only 60 degrees of passive straight leg raising. To improve the range of motion, the hold-relax technique should be applied to a. hamstrings and hip extensors b. adductors and hip extensors c. abductors and hip flexors d. quadriceps and hip flexors 25. Which of these disease processes will not help from percussion and shaking? a. pulmonary fibrosis b. bacterial pneumonia c. bronchiectasis d. cystic fibrosis 26. A PT is prescribing a wheelchair for his 68-year-old patient who is 5 ft. 7 inches tall. The MOST useful feature to include in the prescription is a. desk armrests b. a 20 in. seat height c. a 17.5 in. seat height d. elevating leg rests 27. The use of hyperbaric oxygen in treating chronic dermal wounds is more useful in a. wounds from insect bites b. arterial insufficiency ulcers c. venous insufficiency ulcers d. burn wounds 28. Postural drainage is prescribed to a patient with cystic fibrosis. If the superior segment of the lower lobes are the target areas, how will PT proceed? a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips b. patient lies supine, head down 20 inches with pillows under the knees c. patient lies supine with 2 pillows under hips, bed flat d. patient lies supine with pillows under the knees, bed flat 29. A 16-year-old high school student was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve was present but when seated it disappeared. This is MOST LIKELY due to a. leg length discrepancy b. unilateral weak gluteus medius c. short iliopsoas muscle d. lumbar facet dysfunction 30. The following prosthetic causes may result in vaulting during gait of an amputee EXCEPT a. prosthesis may be too long b. excessive alignment stability c. inadequate socket suspension d. foot in inadequate plantarflexion 31. The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be a. sustainable, simple, quantifiable b. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable c. meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable (specific, measurable, realistic) d. utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable 32. A basic facility standard that should be included in the construction of PT department is the ______. a. parking facilities b. basic space and staffing requirements c. geography and population to be served d. type and size of hospital to be served CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 8 1. Of the following ligaments situated around the ankle joint, the one that is MOST susceptible to strain is the a. calcaneofibular b. talofibular c. tibiofibular d. talotibial 2. A patient is evaluated after a stroke. When tested for two-point discrimination on the right hand, the patient cannot tell whether the PT is touching with one or two points. PT suspects that there is impaired function in the a. spinotectal tract and somatosensory cortex b. dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex c. anterior spinothalamic tract and thalamus d. lateral spinothalamic tract and somatosensory cortex 3. A 48-year-old female was referred to PT with a C6 nerve root injury. Which of the clinical findings would NOT be expected with this type of injury? a. Diminished brachioradialis reflex b. Paresthesias of the long and ring fingers c. Diminished sensation on the anterior arm and index finger d. Weakness in the biceps and supinator 4. A PT is getting a gross measurement of hamstrings length by passively extending the lower extremity of apatient in short sitting. The MOST common substitution to exaggerate hamstring length is. a. Anterior rotation of the pelvis b. Hiking of the contralateral hip c. Posterior rotation of the pelvis d. Weight shift to the contralateral side 5. The following are characteristics of the left hemisphere of the brain EXCEPT: a. Understand language b. Express negative emotions c. Mathematical calculations d. Analytical 6. A 43-year-old patient is recovering from a complete SCI at L2 level. The expected outcome would MOST LIKELY include. a. Loss of motor function and pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion with lighttouch, proprioception and position sense preserved b. Loss of arm function is greater than leg function with early loss of pain and temperature sensation c. A spastic or reflex bladder d. Some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve roots 7. The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the frontal lobe of the brain EXCEPT a. perseveration, in attention b. homonymous hemianopsia c. contralateral weakness d. personality changes, antisocial behavior 8. At what level may a spinal cord injury patient begin to be a functional ambulator? a. T1 - T8 b. T9 - T12 c. L4-L5 d. L1 - L3 9. The following conditions can cause pressure ulcers to develop in SCI patients EXCEPT a. voluntary motor paralysis b. sensory impairment c. autonomic dysfunction d. bladder incontinence 10. Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in a. wrist extension b. forearm supination c. thumb abduction d. lateral rotation or the shoulder 11. The CORRECT technique in stretching the iliotibial band is a. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side. The uppermost thigh is adducted with the hip in 90 degrees flexion b. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side close to the edge of the table. Externally rotate and extend the involved thigh and allow a gravity assisted stretch. c. All of these d. Patient is positioned in hook lying with the uninvolved leg crossed over the leg to be stretched. The involved leg is adducted with gentle isometric abduction contraction CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 8 12. A patient status medial meniscus repair is referred to PT. The responsibility of the physician post operatively is a. determine weight bearing status b. select an appropriate resistive exercise program c. specify the frequency and duration of ROM exercises d. specify the parameter for superficial modality application 13. When doing range of motion exercises with a patient who suffered a head injury, a PT notes that the patient lacks full elbow extension and classifies the end-feel as hard. The MOST LIKELY cause is a. anterior capsular tightness b. triceps weaken c. heterotopic ossification d. spasticity of the biceps 14. A licensed physical therapist may append the following initials after his/her name. a. RPT b. LPT c. PTRP d. PTR 15. A PT attempts to assess the integrity of cranial nerve XI. The test that would provide the PT with desired information is ____________. a. Patient reads selected items from a chart b. Patient is asked to identify familiar odors with eyes closed c. Patient performs a shoulder shrug against resistance d. Patient protrudes tongue while PT checks for lateral deviation 16. Because of the complex vascularity of this artery system, severe impairment can cause locked in syndrome, coma or vegetative state and Wallenberg Syndrome which presents with ipsilateral facial pain, ipsilateral ataxia and vertigo. a. anterior cerebral b. posterior cerebral c. middle cerebral d. vertebral basilar  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 7 1. Which of the following factors is likely to cause subluxation and shoulder pain in hemiplegia? a. spastic retraction with elevation of scapula b. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula c. PROM with normal scapulohumeral rhythm d. spastic paralysis of the biceps 2. A PT assigned in the oncology department of a large medical center is going over the medical chart of a male patient before initiating airway clearance techniques. The patient's cell counts are as follows: hematocrit - 44 percent, white blood cells - 8,500 mm, platelets - 30,000/ul, hemoglobin level -15 gm/dl. Which blood test value suggests that chest percussion for airway clearance is contraindicated? a. Platelets b.Hemoglobin c.White blood cells d.Hematocrit 3. A patient exhibits quadriceps weakness 4/5 and difficulty descending stairs. The BEST intervention to restore functional strength in the quadriceps is __________. a. progressive resistance exercises, 70 percent 1 repetition maximum, three sets of 10 b.partial squats, progressing to lungs c.maximum isometric exercise at 45 degrees and 90 degrees of knee extension d.Isokinetic exercise at 36 degrees per second 4. Consider the following clinical picture of the knee joint: there is marked swelling, tibia can be displaced forward in the femur, pain and marked instability of the knee joint. The structure LIKELY involved is the _________ ligament. a. posterior cruciate b. anterior cruciate c. tibial collateral d. fibular collateral 5. A 75-year-old female was referred to PT for a fall risk assessment. Patient fell twice at home. If patient's timed up and go (TGU) score is 33 seconds, her fall risk is a. moderate, based on a mildly abnormal score b. low, based on a mildly abnormal abnormal score c. high, based on an abnormal score d. moderate, based on poor sensory adaptation response 6. A PT is treating a 1-year-old child with Down Syndrome at home and noted decreasing strength in the extremities, with neck pain and limited neck motion. Upper extremity deep tendon reflexes are 3+. The PT thinks it is. a. Lower motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome b. Upper motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome c. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with lemniscal impingement d. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with spinal cord impingement 7. A PT received a referral for a patient behaving like an autistic child. During evaluation, what is the MOST pertinent factor that can be observed in the patient? a. defensive when touched b. responsive to most but not all commands c. quiet and did not want to separate from the mother d. delayed in gross motor skills 8. A 15-year-old grade 10 female was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve was present but when seated, the curve disappears. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is. a. Short iliopsoas muscle b.Lumbar Facet Dysfunction c. Leg length discrepancy d. Unilaterally weak gluteus medius 9. A PT conducts an upper quarter screening evaluation of a patient with rotator cuff tendonitis. With the patient sitting, the MOST appropriate technique to facilitate palpation of the rotator cuff is. a. Passive abduction of the humerus b. Passive extension of the humerus c. Active medial and lateral rotation of the humerus d. Active extension and flexion of the elbow  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 7 10. The PT manager of a big rehabilitation center is insistent about conducting a bimonthly meeting to solve the problem of declining productivity. In the meantime, he turns his back on the increased load placed on the already overworked staff. Based on the managerial grid, the BEST classification of this manager is. a. 9.1 b. 9.9 c. 1.9 d. 5.5 11. During an exercise session, the mother of a 15-year-old patient was making inappropriate comments that upset the patient and made her lose her cool. The MOST appropriate action for the PT to take is. a. Ask mother to wait at the reception area b. Give patient a 15-minute break c. Ask another PT to treat the patient d. Discontinue treatment 12. A patient presents with a vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee, a negative FABERES test, negative Grind test and a positive Noble's compression test. A possible cause can be a. irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root b. DJD of the hip c. an iliotibial band friction disorder d. SI joint dysfunction 13. This is a test for epicondylitis where patient is positioned in sitting. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle, pronates the patient's forearm, flexes the wrist and extends the elbow. A positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral epicondyle region and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis. a. Mill's b. Lateral epicondylitis test c. Medial epicondylitis test d. Cozen’s 14. This is a test associated with a pars interarticularis stress fracture or spondylolisthesis. The patient stands on one leg and extends the spine while balancing on the left. The test is repeated with the patient standing on the opposite leg. A positive test is indicated by pain in the back a. Segmental instability b. Stork standing c. Pheasant d. Quadrant 15.PT is conducting an exercise class for geriatrics. Below, which would be of LEAST benefit among the exercises the participant? a. active neck extension b. active stretching of the pectoral muscles c. active neck flexion d. active hip extension 16. Patient is unable to take in an adequate supply of nutrients by mouth due to side effects of radiation. Patient's physician orders tube feeding. Which type of tube is MOST commonly used for short term feeding? a. tracheostomy b. endotracheal c. endobronchial d. nasogastric  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 7 17. A PT wants to determine whether a treatment was effective in lowering extremity edema in a group of patients with peripheral vascular edema. Volumetric measurements using a water displacement method is chosen as the outcome measure. The data were then compared to a control group without treatment. The BEST method to analyze the data is ___________. a. Pearson's Product moment b. chi-square c. ANOVA d. t-test 18. In a normal gait, the stance phase usually takes up approximately _______ percent of the pattern. a. 80 b. 60 c. 20 d. 40 19.A 75-year-old patient was referred to the clinic. What technique is usually included in the PT program? a. ankle weights b. lengthening stride c. walking aids d. hip group strengthening 20. Which statement of Speed's test is FALSE? a. The test may also be performed by forward flexing the patient's arm to 90 degrees and then asking the patient to resist an eccentric movement into extension b. A positive test elicits increased tenderness in the bicipital groove and is indicative of bicipital tenderness c. The examiner resists the shoulder forward flexion by the patient while the patient's forearm is first supinated, then pronated, and the elbow is completely extended d. It is less effective than Yergason's test because the tendon moves over the bone during the test 21. An 80-year-old patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's type of dementia was referred for balance and coordination training. In preparing a plan of care, it is essential to know that the patient is a.usually trusted to be responsible for own daily care needs b. usually trusted with transfers with appropriate positioning of the wheelchair c. likely not open to activity training if unfamiliar activities are used d. more likely to remember recent experiences than past ones 22. The following are considerations when confirming the fit of axillary crutches, EXCEPT: a. The angle of elbow flexion should be approximately 20-25 degrees b. For axillary rest in the axilla, the tip should be approximately 2 inches lateral and 4-6 inches anterior to the toes of the shoes c. The space between the top of the axillary rest and the floor of the axilla should be approximately 2 inches d. For patient's grasp of the handpieces, the wrist should be in flexion 23. A deep thickness burn is expected to heal if there is no infection in _________ days. a. 21 – 35 b. 36 - 42 c. 2 – 5 d. 7 – 21  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 7 24.This is an exercise technique designed to facilitate contraction and stability through joint compression. The compression force is most often applied to joints through gravity acting on body weight, manual contacts or weight belts. a. approximation b. alternating isometrics c. traction d. rhythmic inhalation 25. A stage of sprain injury with symptoms that include moderate pain swelling, minimal instability of the joint, minimal to moderate tearing of the ligament and decreased range of motion a. Grade 3 b. Grade 4 c. Grade 2 d. Grade 1 26. A PT is performing segmental breathing exercises with a patient following atelectasis. When implementing manual control, the MOST appropriate technique to emphasize lingual expansion is when the hands are placed a. below the clavicle on the anterior chest wall b. on the right side of the chest below the axilla c. over the posterior aspect of the lower ribs d. on the left side of the chest below the axilla 27.A PT measures a patient for a wheelchair. Which measurement technique is used to determine armrest height in a wheelchair? a. femur to radial head distance b. seat to anterior superior iliac spine c. seat to olecranon distance d. elbow to acromion distance 28. A PT is inspecting the work station of patient with cumulative trauma. When seated before a video display terminal, the screen should be positioned _______ inches from the patient. a. 30 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40 29. The following prosthetic causes may result in rotation of forefoot at heel strike of an amputee EXCEPT a. excessive toe-out built in b. rigid SACH heel cushion c. excessive suspension d. loose fitting socket 30. A PT is carrying out mobilization techniques to regain normal mid-thoracic extension. After 4 sessions, the patient complained of localized pain that lasts more than 24 hours. The PT's strategy should be a. stop PT for one week b. change to self-stretching activities because the patient does not tolerate mobilization c. stay with current mobilization techniques and follow with a cold pack to the thoracic spine d.change mobilization technique to gentle, low amplitude oscillations to reduce the joint and soft tissue irritation 31. In most Code of Ethics of a profession, the first principle usually refers to a. provision of accurate information to the consumer b.exercising sound judgment c. receiving remuneration of services d.respecting rights and dignity of individuals  CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 7 32. The following are tests to assess manual dexterity and coordination, EXCEPT:. a. Jebson-Taylor Hand Function b. Minnesota Rate of Manipulation c. Grind d. Purdue Pegboard CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 5 1. A PT is evaluating the gait of a 5-year-old girl. PT notices that the child is unsteady and has a wide base support. She appears to lurch at times with minimal truncal bobbing in an anterior and posterior position. The child cannot maintain standing position with the feet placed together for more than 5 seconds. The area of the brain MOST LIKELY affected is the a. cerebellar atmosphere b. substantia nigra c. corticospinal tracts d. basal ganglia 2. A TBI injured patient is sometimes disoriented to time and place, has poor memory for recent events and almost no carry over for new learning. The MOST important goal in this case is a. different daily tasks to increase ease of cognitive retrieval b. daily structure to reduce distraction c. independence to tasks with varying environments d. increase arousal and attention through sensory stimulation 3. An injury of the median nerve at the level of the wrist and hand can cause the following functional loss EXCEPT a. thumb opposition b. weak or no pinch c. flexion of the little finger d. thumb flexion 4. Patients with peripheral nerve injury demonstrate optimal peripheral nerve integrity and muscle performance over the course of months. a. 18-24 months b. 2-3 months c. 9-12 months d. 4-8 months 5. A 54 year old female bank executive was referred to the clinic after right breast lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. PT noted that scapular control is poor when upper extremity flexion or abduction isbegan. Given the limitation, the PT intervention at this time should focus on. a. Active assistive pulley exercises to assist rotator cuff muscles following damage to the suprascapularnerve b. Strengthening of the right deltoids to help stabilize the shoulder, which compensates for damage to the dorsal scapular nerve c. Strengthening of the right rhomboid to promote normal function of the scapula as a result of damage to the dorsal scapular nerve d. Gravity-assistive right upper extremity exercises to promote scapular control following damage to the long thoracic nerve 6. A child stimulated for negative support reaction will respond positive through increased. a. Extensor tone in lower extremities b. Flexor tone in upper extremities c. Flexor tone in lower extremities d. Extensor tone in upper extremities 7. Ultrasound vibrations propagated through the housing of the applicator into the hand of the PT are called. a. Parasitic vibrations b. Oscillating conversion c. Ultrasonic conversion d. Bactericidal vibrations 8. In comparing the clinical features of cerebral artery thrombosis with cerebral embolism, the former a. presents an abrupt onset with rapidly developing symptoms b. has the most common site of occlusion in the internal carotid artery c. usually includes a sudden loss of consciousness d. includes more generalized disturbance of cerebral function 9. A patient is on immune suppressants following renal transplantation was referred to the clinic for mobility training using crutches. Initial evaluation revealed paresthesia in both lower extremities with peripheral weakness in both hands and feet. PT suspects that patient is MOST LIKELY experiencing a. leukopenia b. peripheral neuropathy c. myopathy d. quadriparesis CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 5 10. The correct sequence in the hierarchy of the criteria of a profession is a. lifetime commitment, representative organization, specialized education, service to clients, autonomy of judgment b. representative organization, lifetime commitment, service to clients, specialized education, autonomy of judgment c. autonomy of judgment, lifetime commitment, specialized education, representative organization, service to clients d. service to clients, autonomy of judgment, specialized education, representative organization, lifetime commitment 11. A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition. During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT? a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock b.Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears, eyes, or mouth c.Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat d.Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary 12. A PT is preparing a 45-year-old female patient for treatment. The latter asked if she could go to the comfort room. Wondering why patient has not returned to the treatment area after several minutes, PT checked and found patient slumped on the floor face down. The appropriate course of action the PT should take is: a. check level of response, call for help, establish airway and assess breathing b. check level of response, call for help, assess breathing and establish airway c. call for help, check level of response, assess breathing and establish airway d. call for help, check level of response, establish airway and assess breathing 13. A 63-year-old male CVA patient was applied functional electrical stimulation on the affected ankle dorsiflexors in conjunction with her gait training program. The rationale for the application of FES for this case is _____________. a. to promote substituting actions b. all of these c. used as an orthotic device d. to delay muscle atrophy 14. On initial standing, a patient with a chronic stroke is pushing strongly backward, displacing the center of mass at or near the posterior limits of stability. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is ________. a. contraction of the hip extensors b. contracture of the hamstrings c. spasticity of the tibialis anterior d. spasticity, of the gastrocnemius soleus 15. The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the temporal lobe of the brain, EXCEPT: a. emotional liability b. difficulty with memory loss c. Wernicke's aphasia d. learning deficits 16. A newborn with whole arm paralysis resulting from a traction injury at birth was referred to physical therapy. The initial plan of care for the patient should include a. passive mobilization of the shoulder in overhead motions b. age-appropriate task training of the upper extremity c. splinting the shoulder in abduction and internal rotation d. partial immobilization of the limb across the abdomen, followed by gentle ROM after immobilization 17.The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be ___________. a. meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable b. sustainable, simple, quantifiable c. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable d. utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 5 18. This is a tool to asses and treat balance dysfunction but does not assist to diagnose the cause of balance dysfunction. It consists of eight test conditions used in the battery with each leg measured on two counts, the time spent in each test position and the number of steps that a patient are performed. a. Functional Reach b. Berg Balance Scale c. Fugl Meyer Sensory Assessment d. Fregley Graybiel Ataxia Test Battery 19. A 58-year-old female is recovering from a surgical resection of an acoustic neuroma and presents with symptoms of dizziness, vertigo, horizontal nystagmus and postural instability. To manage these problems, the program should include a. strengthening exercises focusing on spinal extensors b. repetition of movements and positions that provoke dizziness and vertigo c. Hallpike's exercises to improve speed in movement transitions d. prolonged bedrest to allow vestibular recovery to occur 20. What is the FIRST step in controlling organizational behavior in a PT Department? a. establish system of measuring performance b. develop system of review c. determine types of jobs and skills needed d. monitor performance and provide feedback 21.A 75-year-old male patient with persistent balance difficulty and a history of recent falls (2 in the past month) is referred for evaluation and management. During the initial session, it is important to examine the a. level of dyspnea during functional transfers b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance c. spinal musculoskeletal changes secondary to degenerative joint disease (DJD) d. cardiovascular endurance during a 5-minute walking test 22. A 64-year-old female patient who underwent a minimally invasive total knee replacement was referred to PT. The referring physician stated in the chart that patient ha stage 1 Alzheimer's disease. The PT will therefore NOT expect to find a. memory loss b. anxiety and irritability c. cannot concentrate d. profound communication deficits 23. The following are guidelines during vestibulo-ocular retraining EXCEPT a. Use of gravity, varying surface conditions, visual conditions and environmental cues should included in therapeutic planning b. The center of gravity is allowed to move at each stage of treatment c. Individualize each program based on the patient's specific impairments (rehabilitation versus compensation training) d. Use of practice, feedback and repetition are vital for skill refinement 24. This inner ear disease that affects balance has the following symptoms: intense vertigo, occasionally unilateral deafness, buzzing or ringing in the ear. a. otitis media, chronic b. bulging disc C4-C5 c. otitis externa d. Meniere's disease 25. The primary objective for record keeping in the PT clinic is: a. Quality of care assessment b. Betterment of patient care c. Communication of patient care d. Medical-legal issues 26. In a person with normal balance, the fastest sensory system to provide balance information is the: a. Visual system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. All 3 systems are equally fast CONCEPT INTEGRATION PT APPS DAY 5 27.A patient with multiple sclerosis has dysmetria in both upper extremities. The BEST intervention for this problem is a. 4lb. weight cuffs of wrist during activities of daily living training b. pool exercises using water temperature more than 85 degrees c. isokinetic training using low resistance and fast movement speeds d. PNF patterns with dynamic reversals with carefully graded resistance 28. While a patient recovering from a spinal cord injury was attending his exercise session, he declared that he will walk again. Which of these injuries would make functional ambulation MOST unrealistic? a. Brown-Sequard syndrome b. complete T9 paraplegia c. posterior cord syndrome d. cauda equina injury 29. If a patient has diagnosis of anterior interosseus syndrome, the activity that will be most difficult to perform is a. opposition b. resisted wrist extension with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees c. wrist ulnar deviation with the thumb tucked inside a closed fist d. pinching together the tips of the index f