City Test-03 NEET Past Paper PDF

CLASS 12th (NEET) City Test-03 Phase-2 DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE: 04/08/2024...

CLASS 12th (NEET) City Test-03 Phase-2 DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE: 04/08/2024 M.MARKS : 720 Topic Covered Physics : Current Electricity, Moving Charges and Magnetism Chemistry : Electrochemistry, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Botany : Molecular basis of inheritance, Principles of inheritance and variations (upto lac operon) Zoology : Evolution (Upto Evidences of Evolution) GENERAL INSTRUCTION 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet. 2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration. 3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720. 4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics), Section - II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory) 5. There is only one correct response for each question. 6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response. 7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall. 8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.  Section – I (Physics) SECTION – A 6. Four wires are made of the same material and are at the same temperature. Which one of them has 1. The current through a wire depends on time as I highest electrical resistance? = 3t2 + 2t + 5. The charge flowing through the (1) Length 50 cm, diameter = 0.5mm cross-section of the wire in time interval between (2) Length 100 cm, diameter = 1mm t = 0 to l = 2 s is (3) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2mm (1) 22 C (2) 20 C (4) Length 300 cm, diameter = 3mm (3) 18 C (4) 5 C 7. The potential difference between points A and B 2. The charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10-19C. How of the following figure is many electrons strike the screen of a cathode ray tube each second when the beam current is 16 mA? (1) 1017 (2) 109 (3) 10-19 (4) 10-17 3. Drift velocity va varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation, 2 8 (1) V (2) V 1 3 9 (1) vd ∝ E (2) vd ∝ E 4 (3) νd = constant (4) vd ∝ E2 (3) V (4) 2V 3 4. Calculate the amount of charge flowed in 2 min through a wire of resistance 10 Ω, when a 8. In the figure given below, the current passing potential difference of 20 V is applied across its through 6 Ω resistor is ends. (1) 120 C (2) 240 C (3) 20 C (4) 4 C 5. If e, τ and m respectively, represent the electron density, relaxation time and mass of the electron, then the resistance R of a wire of length l and area of cross-section A will be (1) 0.40 A ml nτ2 A (2) 0.48 A (1) (2) ne 2 τA ne 2l (3) 0.72 A 2 ne τA ne 2 A (4) 0.80 A (3) (4) 2ml 2mτl Space for Rough Work 9. In the figure given below, current passing through 12. How much work is required to carry a 6 μC the 3Ω resistor is 0.8 A, then potential drop charge from the negative terminal to the positive through 4Ω resistor is terminal of a 9 V battery? (1) 54 × 10–3J (2) 54 × 10–6J (3) 54 × 10–9J (4) 54 × 10–12J 13. Two resistors R and 2R are connected in series in an electric circuit. The thermal energy developed in R and 2R are in the ratio (1) 1:2 (2) 2:1 (3) 1:4 (4) 4:1 (1) 9.6 V 14. The resistor of resistance R is connected to 25 V (2) 2.6 V supply and heat produced in it is 25Js–1. The value (3) 4.8 V of R is (4) 1.2 V (1) 225Ω (2) 1Ω (3) 25Ω (4) 50Ω 10. A current of 2 A passes through a cell of emf 1.5 V having internal resistance of 0.15 Ω. The potential difference measured in volt, across both 15. Three identical bulbs are connected in series and the ends of the cell will be these together dissipate a power P. Now, if the (1) 1.35 (2) 1.50 bulbs are connected in parallel, then the power (3) 1.00 (4) 1.20 dissipated will be P 11. The figure shows a network of currents. The (1) (2) 3P 3 current i will be P (3) 9P (4) 9 16. In the circuit shown, A and V are ideal ammeter and voltmeter, respectively. Reading of the voltmeter will be (1) 3A (2) 13 A (1) 2V (2) 1V (3) 23 A (3) 0.5 V (4) Zero (4) – 3A Space for Rough Work 17. The net resistance of a voltmeter should be large 21. Assertion (A) : Resistance of an ammeter is less to ensure that than the resistance of a milliammeter. (1) It does not get overheated Reason (R) :Value of shunt required in case of (2) It does not draw emmissive current (3) It can measure large potential difference ammeter is more than a milliammeter. (4) It does not appreciably change the (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and potential difference to be measured Reason is the correct explanation of 18. Two galvanometers A and B require 3 mA and 6 Assertion. mA respectively, to produce the same deflection (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but of 10 divisions. Then, Reason is not correct explanation of (1) A is more sensitive than B (2) B is more sensitive than A Assertion. (3) both A and B are equally sensitive (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) sensitiveness of B is twice that of A (4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. 19. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99Ω, the 22. Assertion (A) : In the circuit shown in figure, shunt required is battery is ideal. (1) 9.9Ω (2) 10Ω If a resistance R0 is connected in parallel with R, (3) 11Ω (4) 9Ω then power across R will increase. 20. Assertion (A) : If a current flows through a wire of non-uniform cross-section, potential difference per unit length of wire is same throughout the length of wire. Reason (R) : Current through the wire is same at all cross-sections. (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason (R) : Current drawn from the battery will increase. Reason is the correct explanation of (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Assertion. Reason is the correct explanation of (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Assertion. Reason is not correct explanation of (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Assertion. Reason is not correct explanation of (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. Assertion. (4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. Space for Rough Work 23. In the circuit diagram shown in figure, match the Column-I Column-I following two columns when switch S is closed. (A) Potential difference p. 30 V Choose the correct option from codes given across 6 Ω resistance below. (B) Potential difference q. 40 V across 4 Ω resistance (C) Potential difference r. 20 V across 12 Ω resistance (D) Potential difference s. 80 V across 8 Ω resistance Codes Column-I Column-I A B C D (A) Current (i1) p. Will increase (1) p r s q (2) p r r s (B) Current (i2) q. Will decrease (3) r p p s (C) Potential r. Will remain same (4) r q s p difference across A and B 25. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × (D) Potential s. May increase or 10–4 ms–1 in an electric field of 3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility (in m2V–1s–1) of difference decrease. It will (1) 2.5 × 106 across C and D depend on value of (2) 2.5 × 10–6 r (3) 2.25 × 10–15 (4) 2.25 × 1015 Codes A B C D 26. Which of the following gives the value of (1) p q q q magnetic field due to a small current element (2) q p r r according to Biot-Savart's law? (3) p s r q i∆l sin θ (1) (4) s s r p r2 µ0 i∆l sin θ 24. In the circuit diagram shown in figure, potential (2) 4π r difference across 3Ω resistance is 20 V. Then, µ0 i∆l sin θ match the following two columns and choose the (3) correct option from codes given below. 4π r 2 µ0 i∆l sin θ (4) 4π r 3 27. Magnetic field at a distance r from an infinitely long straight conductor carrying steady current varies as (1) 1/r2 (2) 1/r (3) 1/r 3 (4) 1 / r Space for Rough Work 28. The strength of the magnetic field at a distance r 33. A current i ampere flows in a circular arc of radius near a long straight current carrying wire is B. R, which subtends an angle 3π/2 radian at its The magnetic field at a distance r/2 will be centre. The magnetic induction B at the centre is B B (1) (2) 2 4 (3) 2B (4) 4B 29. The magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular coil of radius r is (1) directly proportional to r µ0i µ0i (2) inversely proportional to r (1) (2) (3) directly proportional to r2 R 2R (4) inversely proportional to r2 2µ0i 3µ0i (3) (4) R 8R 30. A current of 0.1 A circulates around a coil of 100 turns and having a radius equal to 5 cm. The 34. Which of the following figures shows the magnetic field set up at the centre of the coil is magnetic flux density B at a distance r from a long (μ0 = 4π × 10–7 Wb/A-m ) straight rod carrying a steady current i ? (1) 5π × 10–5 T (2) 8π × 10–5 T (3) 4π × 10–5 T (4) 2π × 10–5 T 31. A given length of a wire carries a steady current. (1) It is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn. If a loop of same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius, then the magnetic field at the centre caused by the same current is (1) a quarter of its first value (2) (2) unaltered (3) four times of its first value (4) two times of its first value 32. An arc of a circle of radius R subtends an angle π/2 at the centre. It carries a current i. The (3) magnetic field at the centre will be µ0i µ0i (1) (2) 2R 8R µ0i 2 µ0i (3) (4) 4R 5R (4) Space for Rough Work 35. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary 40. A proton of energy 8 eV is moving in a circular electron, then the electron path in uniform magnetic field. The energy of an (1) moves in the direction of the field α-particle moving in the same magnetic field and (2) moves in an opposite direction of the along the same path will be field (3) remains stationary (1) 4 eV (2) 2 eV (4) starts spinning (3) 8 eV (4) 6 eV SECTION – B 41. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because of 36. A particle of mass m and charge Q moving with a velocity v enters a region of uniform magnetic (1) potential difference between them field of induction B. (2) mutual inductance between them Then, its path in the region is (3) electric force between them (1) always circular (4) magnetic force between them (2) circular, if v × B = 0 (3) circular, if v⋅B = 0 42. Two parallel conductor A and B of equal length (4) None of the above carry currents I and 10I, respectively, in the same 37. An electron is moving in a circular path of radius direction, then r with speed v in a transverse magnetic field B. (1) A and B will repel each other with same The value of e/m for it will be force v B (2) A and B will attract each other with same (1) (2) Br rv force vr (3) A will attract B but B will repel A (3) Bvr (4) B (4) A and B will attract each other with different forces 38. An electron and a proton with equal momentum enter perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic field, then 43. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d (1) the path of proton shall be more curved carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. They than that of electron exert a force F on each other. Now the current in (2) the path of proton shall be less curved one of them is increased to two times and its than that of electron direction is reversed. The distance is also (3) Both are equally curved increased to 3d. The new value of the force (4) path of both will be straight line between them is 39. When a charged particle enters a uniform F F (1) − (2) magnetic field, then its kinetic energy 3 3 (1) remains constant 2F −2 F (2) increases (3) (4) 3 3 (3) decreases (4) becomes zero Space for Rough Work 44. The force per unit length between two long 48. Assertion (A) : When a charged particle moves parallel wires A and B carrying current is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, then 0.004Nm–1. The conductors are 0.01 m apart. If its momentum remains constant. the current in conductor A is twice that of Reason (R) : Magnetic force acts perpendicular conductor B, then the current in the conductor B to the velocity of the particle. would be (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) 5A (2) 50 A Reason is the correct explanation of (3) 10 A (4) 100 A Assertion. (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but 45. A circular coil of 20 turns and radius 10 cm is Reason is not the correct explanation of placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.10 T normal Assertion. to the plane of the coil. If the current in coil is (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. 5 A, then the torque acting on the coil will be (4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. (1) 31.4 Nm (2) 3.14 Nm (3) 0.314 Nm (4) zero 49. Assertion In a uniform magnetic field B = B0 kˆ, 46. In order to increase the sensitivity of a moving if velocity of a charged particle is v0iˆ at t = 0, coil galvanometer one should decrease then it can have the velocity v0 ˆj at some other (1) the strength of its magnet instant. (2) the torsional constant of its suspension Reason In uniform magnetic field, acceleration (3) the number of turns in its coil of a charged particle is always zero. (4) the area of its coil (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of 47. Assertion (A) : Two infinitely wires A and B Assertion. carry unequal currents both in inward direction. (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Then, there is only one point (excluding the Assertion. points at infinity), where net magnetic field is (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. zero. (4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. Reason (R) : That point lies between points A and B. 50. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at Reason is the correct explanation of the centre of solenoid is Assertion. (Take, µ0 = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1) (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but (1) 3.14 × 10–4 T Reason is not the correct explanation of (2) 6.28 × 10–5 T Assertion. (3) 3.14 × 10–5 T (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) 6.28 × 10–4 T (4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. Space for Rough Work  Section – II (Chemistry) SECTION – A 56. Which of the following will react most readily with HI ? 51. In a galvanic cell, the salt bridge is used to; (1) CH3OH (2) (CH3)3COH (1) to produce current at a constant strength (3) CH3CH2OH (4) (CH3)2CHOH (2) facilitate continuity of the cell reaction (3) prevent accumulation of charges around 57. Assertion (A): Electrolytic cell uses electrical the electrodes energy to carry non – spontaneous chemical (4) All of these reactions. Reason (R): Chemical energy of a spontaneous 52. Which of the following is an example of aryl redox reaction can be converted into electrical alkyl halide? energy. (1) p-chlorotoluene (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (2) Chlorobenzene correct Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (3) Allyl Chloride are true and the Reason (R) is a correct (4) Benzyl Chloride explanation of the Assertion (A) (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are 53. Which of the following is not true for a galvanic true but Reason (R) is not a correct cell represented in IUPAC system? explanation of the Assertion (A) (1) Right hand electrode is a +ve terminal (3) Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R) is (2) Right hand electrode acts as cathode (3) Electrons are given out in the external false circuit from the anode (4) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is (4) Electrons are given out in the external true circuit from the cathode. 58. 2-chloro-2-methyl butane, on reaction with aq. 54. The best reagent for converting an alcohol into KOH gives X as the major product. X is the corresponding chloride is (1) 2-butene (1) PCl5 (2) PCl3 (3) HCl/ ZnCl2 (4) SOCl2 (2) 2-methyl-1-butene (3) 2-methyl-2-butene 55. The cell reaction Cr2O72− ( aq ) + 14H+ (aq) + (4) 2-methyl -2-butanol 6Fe2+ (aq) → 6Fe3+ (aq) + 2Cr3+ (aq) + 7H2O(l), is best represented by; 59. The product A and B obtained in the following (1) Pt(s) |Fe2+(aq), Fe3+ (aq)||(Cr2O72– (aq), reactions, reactivity are Cr3+(aq) | Pt(s) 3ROH + PCl3 → 3RCl + A (2) Pt(s) | Cr2O72–(aq), Cr3+(aq) || Fe3+(aq), ROH + PCl5 → RCl + HCl + B Fe2+ (aq) | Pt(s) (1) H3PO4 and POCl3 (3) Fe2+(aq) | Fe3+(aq) || Cr2O72–(aq) | Cr3+(aq) (2) H3PO3 and POCl3 (4) Cr2O72– (aq) | Cr3+ (aq) || Fe3+ (aq) | Fe2+(aq) (3) POCl3 + H3PO3 (4) POCl3 + H3PO4 Space for Rough Work 60. If the solution of the CuSO4 in which copper rod 2.303RT (3) E= E° − log  M n+  is immersed is diluted to 10 times, the electrode nF potential; (4) E= E° + 2.303RT log [M ] (1) increases by 0.295V nF  M n+  (2) decreases by 0.0295V   (3) increases by 0.059V (4) decreases by 0.059V 61. Identify the major product 65. ; Compound “A” is (1) (1) (2) (3) (4) (2) 62. If the half – cell reactions are given as I. Fe2+ + 2e¯ → Fe, E° = –0.44V (3) II. 2H+ + 1/2 O2 + 2e¯ → H2O, E° = + 1.23 V The E° for the reaction, Fe(s) + 2H+ + 1/2O2(g) → Fe2+ + H2O is; (1) +1.67V (2) –1.67V (4) (3) +0.79V (4) –0.79V 63. IUPAC name of neopentyl bromide is 66. The Gibb’s energy for the decomposition of (1) 1-Bromo -4, 4-dimethylpentane Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows; (2) 1-Bromo -3-methylbutane (3) 1-Bromo -2, 2-dimethylpropane 2 4 Al2O3 → Al + O2 ; ∆ r G = +966kJ / mol (4) 2-Bromo – 2-methylbutane 3 3 64. The Nernst equation giving dependence of The potential difference needed for electrolytic electrode reduction potential on concentration is; reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is atleast: 2.303RT (1) =E E0 + log  M n+  (1) 5V (2) 4.5V nF  M n+  (3) 3V (4) 2.5V 2.303RT (2) =E E −0 log   nF [M ] Space for Rough Work 67. Which shows Swarts Reaction? (1) CH3CH2Br + AgF → CH3CH2F + AgBr (2) (1) (2) UV light (3) CH3CHCl2 + Cl2  → CH3CCl3 + HCl (3) (4) (4) Both (1) & (2) 68. For a spontaneous reaction, ∆G, equilibrium 72. An electric charge of 5 Faradays is passed 0 through three electrolytes AgNO3, CuSO4 and constant (K) and Ecell will be respectively; FeCl3 solution. The grams of each metal liberated (1) –ve, > 1, +ve at cathode will be; (2) +ve, > 1, –ve (1) Ag = 10.8g, Cu = 12.7g, Fe = 1.11g (3) –ve, < 1, –ve (2) Ag = 540g, Cu = 367.5g, Fe = 325g (4) –ve, >1, –ve (3) Ag = 108g, Cu = 63.5g, Fe = 56g (4) Ag = 540g, Cu = 158.8g, Fe = 93.3g 69. Compound “B” is 73. The reaction goes through (1) (2) (1) SN1 (2) SN2 (3) E2 (4) E1 74. How much metal will be deposited when a current (3) (4) of 12 ampere with 75% efficiency is passed through the cell for 3h? (Given: Z (electrochemical equivalent) = 4 × 10–4] 70. When 0.1 mol MnO42− is oxidised, the quantity of (1) 32.4g (2) 38.8g electricity required to completely oxidise MnO42− (3) 36.0g (4) 22.4g to MnO4− is; 75. The alkane that gives only one mono – chloro (1) 96500C (2) 2 × 96500C product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence of (3) 9650C (4) 96.50C diffused sunlight is (1) Isopentane (2) 2, 2– dimethylbutane (3) neopentane 71. P; Product (P) is (4) n-pentane Space for Rough Work  80. Which of the following will hydrolyse most 76. readily? (1) (2) CH3Cl The products ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are (1) CH3CH2CN & CH3CH2NO2 (2) CH3CH2NC & CH3 – CH2 – CH2NO2 (3) CH3CH2NC & CH3CH2NH2 (3) (4) (4) CH3CH2CN & 81. The same amount of electricity was passed through two separate electrolytic cells containing 77. In an SN1 reaction on chiral centres, there is solutions of Ni(NO3)2 and Cr(NO3)3 respectively. (1) 100% retention If 0.3 g of nickel was deposited in the first cell, (2) 100% inversion the amount of chromium deposited is; (at. Wt. Ni (3) 100% racemization = 59, Cr = 52) (4) Inversion more than retention leading to (1) 0.1g (2) 0.17g partial racemization (3) 0.3g (4) 0.6g 82. 78. According to Faraday’s 1st law of electrolysis substance formed and reduced at electrode is; (1) by electrolysis are directly proportional to A (predominantly) is the square of quantity of electricity passed (1) through electrolytic cell (2) by electrolysis are inversely proportional (2) to the square of quantity of electricity passed through electrolytic cell (3) by electrolysis are inversely proportion to (3) the quantity of electricity passed through electrolytic cell (4) (4) directly proportional to the quantity of the electricity passed through the electrolytic cell. 83. The expression showing the relationship between equivalent conductivity and molar conductivity 79. Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction? is; (1) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br (1) λm = z × λeq (2) C6H5CH(CH3)Br (2) λeq = z × λm λ eq (3) C6H5C(CH3) (C6H5)Br (3) λm = (4) C6H5CH2Br z 2 (4) λm = λ eq Space for Rough Work 84. In a given substitution reaction of the type 87. When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with 2 moles of DMF R − Br + Cl −  → R − Cl + Br − NaNH2 product formed is Which one of the following has the highest (1) CH3 – CH = CH2 relative rate? (2) CH3 – C ≡ CH (1) CH3CH2Br (3) (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2Br (3) (4) (4) 88. The resistance of 0.1N solution of formic acid is 200 ohm and cell constant is 2.0 cm–1. The equivalent conductivity (in Scm2 eq–1) of 0.1N 85. When a certain conductance cell was filled with formic acid is; −1 −1 KCl solution (conductivity = 0.03Ω cm ), it (1) 100 (2) 10 had a resistance of 100Ω at 300K temperature (3) 1 (4) None of these when filled with 0.01 M K2SO4, it has a resistance of 300Ω. Calculate molar conductivity of K2SO4 89. Statement -I: The limiting molar conductivity of solution in terms of Ω–1 m2 mol–1. KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to that of CH3COOH (weak electrolyte) (1) 10–5 (2) 105 Statement -II: Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte. (3) 10–1 (4) 10–3 (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct SECTION – B (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 86. Which of the following has highest (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Nucleophilicity correct (1) FΘ (2) (4) Statement -I and Statement II both are (3) (4) incorrect Space for Rough Work 90. The resistance of 1N solution of acetic acid is 250 1000 (1) K× ohm, when measured in a cell of cell constant x− y 1.15 cm–1. The equivalent conductance (in ohm–1 K (2) × 143.5 cm equiv ) of 1N acetic acid is; 2 –1 x+ y (1) 4.6 (2) 9.2 K × 1000 × 143.5 (3) (3) 18.4 (4) 0.023 x+ y x + y 1000 (4) × 91. The correct order of melting point of ortho, meta K 143.5 and para di-halide is 93. Given that Λ 0m = 133.45 cm2 mol–1 (AgNO3); (1) Λ 0m = 149.95 cm2 mol–1 (KCl); Λ 0m = 144.9 S cm2 mol–1 (KNO3), the molar conductivity at infinite dilution for AgCl is: (2) (1) 132S cm2 mol–1 (2) 140S cm2 mol–1 (3) 138 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 134 S cm2 mol–1 (3) 94. The major product formed in the given reaction is (4) (1) (2) 92. The specific conductance of saturated solution of silver chloride is K (ohm–1 cm–1). The limiting ionic conductance of Ag+ and Cl– ions are x and y respectively. The solubility of AgCl in gm litre– 1 is: (Molar mass of AgCl = 143.5 gmol–1) (3) (4) Space for Rough Work 95. Equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution for 98. Identify the correct order of reactivity in sodium potassium oxalate (COO¯)2 Na+ K+) will nucleophilic substitution reactions of the be [given, molar conductivities of oxalate, K+ and following compounds Na+ ions at infinite dilution are 148.2, 50.1, 73.5S cm2 mol–1, respectively] (1) 271.8S cm2 eq–1 (2) 67.95S cm2 eq–1 (3) 543.6S cm2 eq–1 (1) A>B>C>D (2) D>C>A>B (4) 135.9S cm2 eq–1 (3) B>A>C>D (4) B > C > A> D 99. In a typical fuel cell, the reactants (R) and product 96. Which of the following is arranged in increasing (P) are; order of ionic mobility? (1) R = H2(g), O2(g); P = H2 O(l) (2) R = H2(g), O2(g), Cl2(g); P = HClO4(aq) (1) I¯ < Br¯ < Cl¯ < F¯ (3) R = H2(g), N2(g); P = NH3(aq) (2) F¯ < Cl¯ < Br¯ < I¯ (4) R = H2(g), O2(g); P = H2O2(l) (3) F¯ < I¯ < Cl¯ < Br¯ 100. Which of the following pairs of compounds is/are (4) F¯ < Cl¯ < I¯ < Br¯ enantiomers? 97. The reaction occurring at the anode during the (1) recharging of lead storage battery is; (1) Pb + SO42− → PbSO4 + 2e − (2) Pb + PbO2 + H2SO4 → 2PbSO4 + 2H2O (2) (3) PbSO4 + 2e¯ → Pb + SO42– (4) 2PbSO4 + 2H2O → Pb + PbO2 + 2H2SO4 (3) (4) All of these Space for Rough Work  Section – III (Botany) SECTION – A 106. Match List-I with List-II & select the correct option. 101. In tailing of mRNA. (1) 200-300 adenine are added at 3' end in a List-I List-II template-dependent manner. (A) Fredrick P. A sequence of (2) Adenylate residues are added at 5' end. Griffith three nucleotides (3) 5 methyl guanosine triphosphate is added codes for single at 3' end. amino acid (4) 200-300 adenine are added at 3' end in a (B) Gamow Q. Double helical template independent manner. structures (C) Watson and R. Induced mutation 102. Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in: Crick (1) nucleolus (D) Meselson S. Semiconservative (2) nucleosome and Stahl replication of (3) ribosome DNA (4) lysosome T. Phenomenon of transformation 103. Statement-I : The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polym- erisation only in (1) A-T; B-P; C-Q; D-S one direction, that is 5'-3'. (2) A-P; B-T; C-S; D-Q Statement-II: Any mistake during replication (3) A-P; B-Q; C-R; D-S would result into mutations (4) A-T; B-P; C-S; D-Q (1) Both statement I and II are correct (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is 107. In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA incorrect indicating that: (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II (1) their nucleic acid must combine with host is correct DNA before replication. (4) Both statement I and II are incorrect. (2) they cannot replicate. (3) there is no hereditary information. 104. DNA Replication normally is: (4) RNA can act to transfer heredity. (1) semi-conservative (2) bidirectional 108. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the molecule (3) both (1) and (2) that can act as a genetic material. (4) unidirectional (1) It should be able to generate its replica. (2) It should be stable chemically and 105. If coding strand of DNA has N2 base sequence as structurally. 5'ATCTG3' then what would be the sequence of (3) It should be able to express itself in the RNA? form of 'Mendelian Characters'. (1) 3'ATCTG5' (4) It should provide the scope for fast (2) 3'GTCTA5' changes. (3) 5'AUCUG3' (4) 3'AUCUG5' Space for Rough Work 109. The result of the following reaction experiment 112. Which of the following is true with respect to carried out by Avery et. al. on Streptococcus AUG pneumonia has proved conclusively that DNA is (1) It codes for methionine only (2) It is an initiation codon the genetic material. (3) It codes for methionine in both (1) Live R-strain + DNA from S- strain + prokaryotes and eukaryotes RNAse (4) All of the above (2) Live R-strain + DNA from S- strain + DNAse 113. Number of hydrogen bonds between A and T of (3) Live R-strain + Denatured DNA of S- DNA is: strain + Protease. (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (4) Heat killed R-strain + DNA from S-strain + DNAse 114. Assertion (A): Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally Inactive chromatin. 110. Assertion (A): Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty's Reason (R): The region of euchromatin is loosely experiments played a crucial role in determining packed. the genetic material. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are Reason (R): They found that DNA, not proteins true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A). or RNA, was responsible for the transformation (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are of R bacteria into S bacteria. true but Reason (R) is not a correct (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are explanation of Assertion (A). true and Reason (R) is a correct (3) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is explanation of Assertion (A). true. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false. true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A). 115. Assertion (A) : There is single DNA- dependent (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of false. all types of RNA (mRNA, t RNA and r RNA) in (4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are prokaryotes. false. Reason (R): In Eukaryotes, there are at least three RNA polymearases are required. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are 111. In the experiment of Oswald Avery, Colin true, Reason (R) is the correct MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty, the digestion of explanation of Assertion (A). which substance inhibit transformation? (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (1) RNA true, Reason (R) is not the correct (2) Protein explanation of Assertion (A). (3) DNA (3) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false. (4) Both RNA & protein (4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false. Space for Rough Work 116. Statement-I : All strains of Streptococcus (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are pneumoniae are virulent. true but Reason (R) is not a correct Statement-II: S strains of Streptococcus explanation of Assertion (A). pneumoniae produces smooth colonies. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is (1) Both statements I and II are correct false. (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are incorrect false. (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 120. Which of the following is NOT correct for a (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect DNA? 117. Central dogma was given by: (1) Purines = Pyrimidines (1) Francis crick (2) G+C≠A+T (2) James Watson (3) G+A=C+T (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) G+C =A+T (4) Rosalind Franklin 121. The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed 118. Match the Lists and choose the correct option due to- List I List II (1) phosphate group (Organism) (Length of (2) sugar DNA) (3) nitrogenous base (A) Bacteriophage (I) 4.6 × 106 bp (4) more than one option is correct ϕ × 174 (B) Bacteriophage (II) 3.3×109 bp 122. The i-gene of lac operon is : λ (a) Inducer gene (C) Escherichia (III) 5386 (b) Activator gene coli nucleotides (c) Both (a) and (b) (D) Human DNA (IV) 48502 bp (d) Inhibitor gene/repressor gene (1) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I 123. Match the column w.r.t lac-operon : (2) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (3) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I Column-I Column-II (4) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D – III A. y-gene i. β-galactosidase B. z-gene ii. Permease 119. Assertion (A): The two chains of DNA helix have C. a-gene iii. Repressor anti-parallel polarity. protein Reason (R): If one chain has the polarity 5'→3', D. i-gene iv. Transacetylase the other has 3'→5'. (1) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii) (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (2) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii) true and Reason (R) is a correct (3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (iii) explanation of Assertion (A). (4) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv) Space for Rough Work 124. Which of the following is correct for the diagram 129. Read the following statements : of lac-operon shown below ? (i) Eukaryotic gene is split-gene as along with exons, introns are also present (ii) The split gene arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of eukaryotic genome (iii) The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity in eukaryotes (1) This occurs in the absence of repressor (iv) The process of splicing suggest the protein dominance of RNA-world during early (2) This occurs in the presence of lactose evolution (3) This occurs in the absence of inducer (v) Few prokaryotes also posses introns (4) This occurs both in the presence and along with exons absence of inducer Which of the above statements are correct? (1) (i), (iii) and (iv) 125. Which of the following represents a ribozyme ? (2) (i) and (ii) (1) snRNA (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (2) 23S rRNA of prokaryotic ribosome and (4) (iii), (iv) and (v) 28S rRNA of eukaryotic ribosome (3) Ribonuclease-P (RNase-P) (4) All of the above 130. A research fellow, inserts an mRNA molecule into the nucleus after removing the 5'-cap and 126. RNA polymerase in eukaryotes is found : poly(1) tail. Which of the following is expected ? (1) Inside nucleus (1) mRNA will be digested by exonucleases (2) Free in the cytoplasm (2) mRNA is translated slowly (3) Inside organelles (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) mRNA gets digested by restriction endonucleases 127. The charging of tRNA is also called : (4) All of the above (1) Aminoacylation of tRNA (2) Cleaving of tRNA 131. Splicing means : (3) Splicing (1) Removal of introns (4) Adenylation (2) Removal of exons (3) Joining of exons 128. Arrange the following RNA according to the (4) First (1) and then (3) decreasing order of stability : mRNA, rRNA, tRNA 132. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5' (1) rRNA > tRNA > mRNA end of hnRNA in the process of by the enzyme (2) tRNA > mRNA > rRNA (1) Splicing, Guanyl transferase (3) mRNA > tRNA > rRNA (2) Tailing, Guanyl transferase (4) rRNA > mRNA > tRNA (3) Capping, Guanyl transferase (4) Proofing, Guanyl transferase Space for Rough Work 133. Find out the incorrect match (for eukaryotic 137. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. transcription) : transcription unit? (1) RNA polymerase-I → rRNA (1) The terminator is located towards 3'-end (2) RNA polymerase-II → hnRNA (downstream) of the coding strand (3) RNA polymerase-III → mRNA (2) The promoter is located towards 5'-end (4) RNA polymerase-III → tRNA (upstream) of the coding strand (3) Apart from promoter and terminator, 134. A particular triplet of bases in the template strand additional regulatory sequences are of 84 DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding absent upstream or downstream to the codon for the mRNA transcribed is : promoter (1) 3' UGA 5' (4) A transcription unit is only a segment of (2) 3'UCA 5' dsDNA (3) 5' TCA 3' (4) 5' ACU 5' 138. Read the following steps of DNA replication and arrange them in sequence : VGA 135. A transcription unit in DNA is basically I. Continuous strand and discontinuous composed of : strand synthesis (1) A promoter II. DNA polymerase action (2) The structural gene III. Primers bind against the 3' ends of each (3) A terminator stand of separated dsDNA (4) All of these IV. Action of single stranded binding (SSB) protein SECTION – B V. Action of helicase (unwindase) and gyrase 136. Identify A, B, C, D in the transcription unit (1) I → II → IV → III → V mentioned below: (2) V → III → IV → I → II (3) V → IV → III → II → I (4) I → V → IV → III → II 139. The main polymerising enzyme in DNA replication is = A B C D (1) DNA polymerase-I (1) Promoter Template Non- Terminator (2) DNA polymerase-II strand coding (3) DNA polymerase-III strand (4) Helicase (2) Terminator Template Coding Promoter strand strand 140. Which enzyme removes the RNA nucleotides (3) Terminator Coding Template Promoter from primer and adds equivalent DNA strand strand nucleotides ? (4) Promoter Antisense Non- Terminator (1) Ligase strand template (2) DNA polymerase-I strand (3) Primase (4) DNA polymerase-II Space for Rough Work 141. Which of the following enzymes covalently 145. If a hybrid DNA molecule labelled with N15 to connects segments of DNA ? replicate twice in a normal culture medium then (1) Helicase the percentage of hybrid DNA will be : (2) Ligase (1) 50% (2) 25% (3) DNA polymerase-II (3) 12.5% (4) 75% (4) DNA polymerase-I 146. The experimental proof of semiconservative 142. Which of the following correctly represents DNA DNA replication was given by : replication ? (1) Meselson and Stahl in E.coli (2) Watson and Crick in E.coli (3) Wilkins and Franklin in Salmonella (4) Nirenberg and Matthaei in Salmonella (1) 147. One of the hallmarks of Watson and Crick proposition for DNA structure was : (1) Base pairing between the two strands of (2) polynucleotide chains (2) The discovery of nitrogenous bases (3) The presence of deoxyribonucleotides (4) All of the above (3) 148. The length of dsDNA double helix in a human somatic cell is approximately : (1) 3.3 × 109 bp (4) (2) 6.6 × 109 bp (3) 3.3× 109 bp 143. The distance between the two strands of a dsDNA (4) 6.6 × 109 bp is approximately uniform because of the following reason(s) ? 149. In a nucleosome, the histone core is made of: (1) Purine always comes opposite to (1) 2(H2A + H2B + H3 + H4) pyrimidine in a dsDNA (2) 2(H1+ H2 + H3 + H4) (2) Presence of phosphodiester bonds (3) 4(H2A + H2B + H3 + H4) (3) Presence of N-glycosidic linkage (4) 8(H2A + H2B + H3 + H4) (4) More than one option is correct 150. A transcription unit in DNA is basically 144. RNA was not selected as genetic material in most composed of : organisms because : (1) A promoter (1) It is chemically unstable (2) The structural gene (2) The 2' OH group present at every (3) A terminator nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group (4) All of these (3) Some RNAs are catalytic (4) All of the above Space for Rough Work  Section – IV (Zoology) SECTION – A (1) (1) is correct but (2) is false (2) (2) is correct but (1) is false 151. After about how many years of formation of (3) Both (1) and (2) are correct earth, life appeared on this planet ? (4) Both (1) and (2) are false (1) 50 billion years (2) 500 billion years 155. Mark the correct statement/option : (3) 50 million years (1) Life appeared about 500 M yrs after the (4) 500 million years formation of earth. (2) Louis Pasteur believed that life appeared 152. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced only from pre-existing life. amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : (3) Oparin advocated that simple organic (1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapour at molecular come from inorganic 800°C molecular (2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at (4) All of the above 600°C (3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 156. Which one of the following experiments 600°C suggests that simplest living organisms could (4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C not have originated spontaneously from non- living matter? 153. Which of the following is the correct sequence (1) Microbes did not appear in stored meat of events in the origin of life? (2) Larvae could appear in decaying organic (I) Formation of protobionts matter (II) Synthesis of organic monomers (3) Microbes appeared from unsterilized (III) Synthesis of organic polymers organic matter (IV) Formation of DNA-based genetic (4) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and systems kept sealed in a vessel Code: (1) II, III, I, IV (3) I, II, III, IV 157. According to Oparin, which one of the following (2) II, III, IV, I (4) I, III, II, IV was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth? 154. Following are the two statements regarding the (1) Methane (2) Oxygen `origin of life: (3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour (1) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and 158. Organisms which obtain energy by the oxidation presumably anaerobes. of reduced inorganic compound are called : (2) The first autotrophic organisms were the (1) Photoautotrophs chemoautotrophs that never released (2) Chemoautotrophs oxygen. (3) Saprozoic Of the above statements which one of the (4) Coproheterotrophs following options is correct? Space for Rough Work 159. First life on earth was : 163. The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are (1) Cyanobacteria the example of the: (2) Chemoheterotrophs (1) Convergent evolution (3) Autotrophs (2) Divergent evolution (4) Photoautotrophs (3) Adaptive radiation 160. Read the following statements (4) Natural selection (A) Evolutionary biology is the study of history of life forms on earth 164. Match the column A with column B (B) Chemical evolution preceded the Column A Column B appearance of first cellular forms of life (a) Theory of (i) Diversity is (C) The universe is almost 20 billion years old Special always the (D) Life appeared about 4.5 billion years Creation same back (b) Sea voyage by (ii) Malay (E) The first organism were chemoautotroph Darwin Archipelago (F) There was no atmosphere on early earth (c) Alfred (iii) H.M.S. How many of the above statements are correct? Wallace Beagle Ship (1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 6 (1) a – i, b-ii, c-iii 161. Read the following statements (2) a- i, b-iii, c- ii (A) Spontaneous theory was supported by (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i the experiment of Louis Pasteur (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (B) Theory of spontaneous generation depicted that life came out only from pre 165. Which of the following statements is not true? existing life (C) Louis Pasteur proved that life comes (1) Homology indicates common ancestry. only from pre – existing life (2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a (D) According to early Greek thinkers -unit pair of homologous organs of life called spores was transmitted to (3) Analogous structures are a result of different planets including earth convergent evolution (E) The Big Bang theory explains the origin (4) Sweet potato and potato is an example of universe. of analogy How many of the above statements are false? (1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 166. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by: 162. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time (1) Alfred Wallace of origin of life? (2) Ernst Haeckel (1) NH3 (2). H2 (3) Karl Ernst vol Baer (3) O2 (4) CH4 (4) Charles Darwin Space for Rough Work 167. Which of the following refer to correct 171. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimb example(s) of organisms which have evolved of many vertebrates is an example of: due to changes in environment brought about by (1) Homology anthropogenic action? (2) Analogy (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. (3) Convergent evolution (b) Herbicide resistant weeds (4) Adaptive radiation (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes (d) Man – created breeds of domesticated 172. Analogous structures are a result of : animals like dogs. (1) Divergent evolution (1) a and c (2) b, c and d (2) Convergent evolution (3) only d (4) only a (3) Shared ancestry (4) Stabilizing selection 168. Embryological support evolution was disapproved by : 173. Which of the following structures the wing of a (1) Alfred Wallace bird is homologous to (2) Charles Darwin (1) Dorsal fin of a Shark (3) Oparin (2) Wing of a Moth (4) Karl Ernst von Baer (3) Hind limb of Rabbit (4) Flipper of Whale 169. Which of the following is not correctly matched with its category? 174. The wings of a bird and wings of an insect are : (1) Homologous organ – Divergent (1) Homologous structures and represent evolution divergent evolution (2) Analogous organ – Convergent (2) Analogous structures and represent evolution convergent evolution (3) Sweet potato and potato – Example of (3) Phylogenetic structures and represent analogy divergent evolution (4) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins – (4) Homologous structures and represent Example of homology convergent evolution 170. Among the following sets of examples for 175. Which one of the following are analogous divergent evolution, select the incorrect option: structures ? (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (1) Thorns of Bougainvillia and Tendrils of (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah Cucurbita (3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (2) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse (4) Eye of octopus, bat and man (3) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon (4) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man Space for Rough Work 176. Identify the statements as True (T) of False (T) 178. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution I. Lichens can be used as industrial and divergent evolution? pollution indicators Convergent Evolution Divergent Evolution II. Evolution is a directed process in the (1) Bones of forelimbs of Wings of butterfly sense of determinism vertebrates and birds III. Evolution is not a stochastic process, but (2) Thorns of Bougainvillia Eyes of Octopus and is based on chance event in nature and and tendrils of mammals chance mutation in the organism Cucurbita IV. Pesticides resistant organisms are (3) Eyes of Octopus and Bones of forelimbs examples of evolution by anthropogenic mammals of vertebrates action (4) Thorns of Bougainvillia Wings of butterflies and tendrils of and birds (1) I -T, II-T, III – T, IV - F Cucurbita (2) I -T, II-F, III – F, IV – T 179. Which of the following is correct for the (3) I -T, II-T, III – F, IV – F structures A, B, C and D in the following (4) I -F, II-F, III – F, IV - F diagram? 177. Which of the following is correct for A, B, C, D in the given diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment? (1) A, B, C and D represent analogous A B C D structures which are based on divergent (1) CH4, NH3, Electrode Condenser Boiling evolution H2O, H2 water (2) A, B, C and D shows analogous (2) CH4, NH3, Conderser Electrode Boiling structures which are based on H2O, H2 water convergent evolution (3) CH4, NH3, Boiling Electrode Condenser (3) A, B, C and D shows homologous H2O water structures, which show divergent evolution (4) CH4,H2O,O2 Boiling Electrode Condenser (4) A, B, C and D shows homologous water structures which show convergent evolution Space for Rough Work 180. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that 184. Which one of the following describes correctly (1) Life arose from living forms only the homologous structures? (2) life can arise from both living and non – (1) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, living but performing same function (3) life can arise from non – living (2) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors (4) life arises spontaneously, neither from (3) Organs appearing only in embryonic living nor from the non – living. stage and disappearing later in the adult (4) Organs with anatomical similarities, but 181. Evolutionary history of an organism is known performing different functions as: (1) Phylogeny 185. Fossils are generally found in (2) Ancestry (1) Sedimentary rocks (2) igneous rocks (3) Paleontology (3) metamorphic rocks (4) Ontogeny (4) any type of rock 182. Animal husbandry and plant breeding SECTION – B programmes are the examples of : 186. In the solar system of the milky – way galaxy, (1) reverse evolution the earth was supposed to have been formed (2) artificial selection about: (3) mutation (1) 20 billion years back (4) natural selection (2) 10 billion years back (3) 4.5 billion years back (4) 3.0 billion years back 183. In 1953SL Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave 187. Which of the following is the correct group of experimental evidence for origin of first form of vestigial organs in man ? life from pre – existing non -living organic (1) Nictitating membrane, ear muscles, molecules. The primitive earth conditions eyelids and соссух created include (2) Appendix, coccyx, ear muscles and elbow joint (1) Low temperature, volcanic storms, (3) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, body hairs and atmosphere rich in oxygen ear muscles (2) Low temperature, volcanic storms, (4) Wisdom tooth, body hairs, nictitating reducing atmosphere membrane and vermiform appendix (3) high temperature, volcanic storms, non – 188. Which theory, regarding the origin of life, is reducing atmosphere alternatively also called “panspermia” ? (4) high temperature, volcanic storms, (1) Special Creation reducing atmosphere containing CH4, (2) Spontaneous Generation NH3 etc. (3) Cosmozoic theory (4) Biochemical Evolution Space for Rough Work 189. Consider the two statements: 193. Assertion: The diversity was always the same I: