Chemical Services: Cosmetology Practice Questions PDF

Chemical Services 501. Why are high lift tints and bleach applied away from the scalp in a virgin lightening? Answer (A) a) To achieve even porosity and color b) To achieve the lightest possible color c) To maintain elasticity d) To maintain client comfort 502. Why is the product initially applied...

Chemical Services 501. Why are high lift tints and bleach applied away from the scalp in a virgin lightening? Answer (A) a) To achieve even porosity and color b) To achieve the lightest possible color c) To maintain elasticity d) To maintain client comfort 502. Why is the product initially applied away from the scalp in a virgin bleach / high-lift tint? Answer (D) a) The scalp will process faster b) To achieve even lightening c) To avoid possible scalp burns d) All of the above 503. The minimum sub-partings in a bleach application are: Answer (B) a) 1/16 inch b) 1/8 inch c) 1/4 inch d) ½ inch 504. When applying a high lift-high volume virgin tint on the hair, begin the application: Answer (B) a) Away from the scalp through the ends b) Away from the scalp and up to the ends c) From the scalp through the ends d) Away from the scalp and ½ inch from ends 505. When applying a virgin bleach on the hair, begin the application: Answer (B) a) Away from the scalp through the ends b) ½ inch away from the scalp and 1 inch from the ends c) From the scalp through the ends d) 1 inch away from the scalp and ½ inch from ends 506. In which layer of the hair do all permanent chemical reactions occur? Answer (D) a) Cuticle b) Medulla c) Papilla d) Cortex 507. Which of the following colors will not penetrate the cortex? Answer (C) a) Semi-permanent b) Demi-permanent c) Temporary d) Permanent 508. Another term sometimes used for Bleach is: Answer (B) a) High lift b) Decolorizer c) Toner d) Solvent 509. When decolorizing hair, strand tests are performed to test for: Answer (D) a) Porosity b) Elasticity c) Decolorization d) Both B and C 510. What liquid could you use to reduce the strength of Hydrogen Peroxide? Answer (C) a) Tap water b) Spring water c) Distilled water d) Conditioner 511. When doing a "tint-back" from a lighter color, which of the following should be used: Answer (B) a) Darker tint b) Filler c) Lighter tint d) Dye solvent 512. When testing for the presence of metallic dyes / salts in the hair, you should place a strand of the hair in which of the following solutions: Answer (B) a) 30 v. H2O2, 30 drops ammonia, 30 minutes b) 20 v. H2O2, 20 drops ammonia, 30 minutes c) ½ ammonia and ½ water, 30 minutes d) 20 volume H2O2, 45 minutes 513. Which of the following will decolorize the fastest? Answer (D) a) Coarse, dense hair b) Coarse, thick, light hair c) Soft, fine, dark hair d) Soft, fine, light hair 514. When using a higher volume H2O2 than manufacturer recommends, what is likely? Answer (A) a) Burning of client's scalp b) Faster processing c) Lower lifting than anticipated d) Higher lifting than anticipated 515. Although anyone may decide an allergy, patch or predisposition test might be a good idea, which agency is responsible for "Ordering" that these types of tests be administered: Answer (D) a) The state government b) The State Board of Cosmetology c) Salon management d) None of the above 516. A tone lacking warm pigment may be referred to as all of the following except: Answer (D) a) Ash tones b) Smokey tones c) Drab tones d) Silvery tones 517. A strand test reveals too much orange in the hair, what would not correct this: Answer (D) a) Add a cool tone b) Add a drabber c) Add a smoky tone d) Add a warm toner 518. A strand test reveals too much yellow in the hair, what would correct this: Answer (C) a) Add a blue drabber b) Add a green toner c) Add a violet toner d) Add a warm toner 519. A strand test reveals a greenish cast in the hair, all of the following are incorrect except: Answer (D) a) Adding a cool tone b) Adding a drabber c) Adding a smoky tone d) Adding a warm toner 520. The normal pH of human hair, skin, and nails is: Answer (A) a) 4.5 - 5.5 b) 5.5 - 6.5 c) 2.5 - 3.5 d) 5.0 - 5.5 521. After the removal of perm solution, relaxer, bleach, or aniline tints, hair is in what state: Answer (D) a) Acid b) Alkaline c) Base d) Both Band C 522. The best way to be certain how a color will appear on a clients hair, is to conduct a / an: Answer (B) a) Experimental test b) Strand test c) Predisposition test d) Color hold test 523. The best way to determine how a client's hair, skin, or nails will react to a certain product is to conduct, any or all of the following except: Answer (A) a) Allergy Test b) Patch Test c) Predisposition Test d) P.D. Test 524. If the client's skin becomes inflamed after a Patch Test is given, this result is said to be: Answer (A) a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) Contra-indicated 525. If a positive result is observed, including inflamed skin, this is a condition known as: Answer (D) a) Dermatitis verruca b) Dermatitis rubra c) Dermatitis vitiligo d) Dermatitis venenata 526. The application of a virgin tint going lighter, should begin: Answer (D) a) Where the hair is the lightest b) At the crown of the head c) Around the hairline d) Where the hair is the darkest 527. This act / law requires a P.D. Test prior to the application of aniline derivative tints: Answer (D) a) Cosmetology and Cosmetics Act (1976) b) Cosmetics and Chemistry Act of 1978 c) U.S. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act d) U.S. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act 528. Which governmental agency mandates the use of a P.D. Test prior to using aniline tints: Answer (C) a) EPA b) OMB c) FDA d) OSHA 529. An example of a progressive hair dye is: Answer (C) a) Aniline derivative tint b) Demi-permanent colors c) Metallic dyes d) Color rinses 530. leave the hair unfit for further chemical services: Answer (A) a) Metallic dyes b) Demi-permanent colors c) Aniline derivative tints d) Color rinses 531. Certified colors are: Answer (A) a) Temporary products b) Aniline derivative tints c) Metallic salts d) Permanent colors 532. The application of a virgin tint going darker, should begin: Answer (A) a) Where the hair is the lightest b) At the crown of the head c) Around the hairline d) Where the hair is the darkest 533. If your client has almost entirely gray hair and wants to darken it to its original color, where should you begin to apply the product? Answer (D) a) Nape b) Crown c) Sides d) Front 534. The simplest way to correct a greenish cast in blonde hair would be with: Answer (B) a) Orange b) Red c) Green d) Yellow 535. The terms, ash, smoky, and drab are used interchangeably and regard what color base/s? Answer (D) a) Red or green b) Yellow orange, or violet c) Orange or blue d) Green, blue, or violet 536. Henna is an example of what type of tint? Answer (D) a) Metallic b) Permanent c) Aniline d) Vegetable 537. Aniline derivative tints may safely be applied if the P.D. test was: Answer (D) a) Positive and at least 24 hours old b) Positive and at least 5 - 7 minutes old c) Negative and at least 72 hours old d) Negative and between 24 & 48 hours old 538. A compound dye, is generally made by combining metallic salts with: Answer (D) a) Progressive dyes b) Permanent dyes c) Semi-permanent dyes d) Vegetable dyes 539. Aniline derivative tints are also known as: Answer (C) a) Metallic dyes / tints b) Henna c) Penetrating dyes d) Non-penetrating dyes 540. A yellowish cast in hair could be camouflaged by using a: Answer (B) a) Vinegar rinse b) Bluing rinse c) Alkaline rinse d) Cream rinse 541. A synthetic organic compound derived from coal tar used to give color to hair dye: Answer (C) a) Paratoluenedaimene b) Para-tourmaline-diamine c) Para-phenylene-diamine d) Henna 542. Certified colors are most often found in: Answer (D) a) Aniline derivative tints b) Temporary colors c) Color rinses & mousses d) Both B and C 543. Aniline derivative tints are also known as: Answer (C) a) Progressive tints b) Deposit only tints c) Oxidative tints d) Vegetable tints 544. Builds up and coats the cuticle, with repeated applications makes the hair darker: Answer (C) a) Aniline derivative tint b) Semi-permanent tint c) Progressive dye / tint d) None of the above 545. What is the action of a semi or demi-permanent color on the hair? Answer (D) a) Lift artificial pigment b) Lift natural pigment c) Lift and deposit pigment d) Deposit pigment 546. What is the action of an aniline derivative tint color (w/ appropriate H2O2) on the hair? Answer (C) a) Lift artificial pigment b) Lift natural pigment c) Lift and deposit pigment d) Deposit pigment 547. What is the action of a high lift color (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair? Answer (C) a) Lift artificial pigment b) Lift natural pigment c) Lift and deposit pigment d) Deposit pigment 548. What is the action of a bleach (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair? Answer (B) a) Lift artificial pigment b) Lift natural pigment c) Lift and deposit pigment d) Deposit pigment 549. What is the action of a dye solvent (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair? Answer (A) a) Lift artificial pigment b) Lift natural pigment c) Lift and deposit pigment d) Deposit pigment 550. What is the action of a deposit only color (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair? Answer (D) a) Lift artificial pigment b) Lift natural pigment c) Lift and deposit pigment d) Deposit pigment 551. The agent that begins any chemical reaction is known as: Answer (B) a) A developer b) A catalyst c) A protinator d) A protagonist 552. When rinsing a decolorizer from the hair, the stylist should use cool water: Answer (C) a) To open cuticle and remove all product b) Avoid scalp irritation c) To avoid tangling d) Helps to close cuticle and adds shine 553. Which of the following ingredients, all used by the cosmetologist, is the principal ingredient in semi, demi, and permanent hair color? Answer (D) a) Sodium hypochlorite b) Ammonium thioglycolate c) Sodium hydroxide d) Para phenylenediamine 554. Because most oxidative tints contain known allergens, prior to use they require a / an: Answer (C) a) Strand Test b) Allergy Test c) P.D. Test d) Elasticity Test 555. During a permanent wave, if the hair begins to smoke, or the cotton turns purple: Answer (C) a) This indicates the presence of Henna b) This indicates the presence of vegetable dyes c) This indicates the presence of metallic salts d) This indicates the presence of Certified Colors 556. Decolorizing is another term for: Answer (B) a) Tinting b) Bleaching c) Drabbing d) Tint-back 557. In a virgin tint going darker, apply the product: Answer (C) a) From the scalp through the ends b) ½ inch from the scalp to / through the ends c) ½ inch from the scalp until ½ from the ends d) From the scalp until ½ from the ends 558. After decolorizing a client's hair, you would likely use: Answer (B) a) A lift and deposit color b) A toner c) A metallic salt d) Henna 559. The decolorization process is best done on hair that is: Answer (C) a) Moist b) Damp c) Dry d) Wet 560. Stylists use Activators, Boosters, Protinators, and as a catalyst? Answer (C) a) Bleach b) Aniline derivative tint c) H2O2 d) Alcohol 561. If your client began the decolorization process with darkest brown or black hair, how many levels would the hair go through to reach a platinum level / stage? Answer (D) a) 4 b) 7 c) 5 d) 10 562. If your client began the decolorization process with dark brown or black hair, how many levels could the hair safely go through before serious harm occurred? Answer (B) a) 4 b) 7 c) 5 d) 10 563. This chemical reaction occurs when H2O2 is combined with an aniline derivative tint: Answer (D) a) Anaphoresis b) Phoresis c) Bromhidrosis d) Oxidation 564. A "positive" reaction to a P.D. test would mean that: Answer (B) a) Client is positively not allergic to product b) Client is allergic to the product c) Product is a good match for the client d) Client has metallic dyes on their hair 565. Which of the following products are not added to bleach to speed up the action: Answer (D) a) Protinators b) Activators c) Boosters d) Impediments 566. may not be used, if hair has been treated with a metallic salts product: Answer (B) a) Vegetable dyes b) Bleach c) Semi-permanent colors d) Certified Colors 567. Black, White, and Gray are often referred to as: Answer (B) a) Mono-chromatic colors b) Achromatic colors c) Poly-chromatic colors d) Acro-chromatic colors 568. Colors approved by the FDA that do not require a P.D. Test prior to use: Answer (A) a) Certified Colors b) Azo Dyes c) Demi-permanent colors d) Para-Phenylenediamine Dyes 569. Accounting for nearly two-thirds of the blood's volume, this is the blood's fluid portion: Answer (C) a) Thrombocytes b) Hemoglobin c) Plasma d) Lymph 570. If the hair is extremely porous, the cosmetologist should probably use: Answer (D) a) Cream based colors b) A lighter shade than ultimately desired c) Cream H2O2 d) A filler 571. Permanent waves, chemical hair relaxers, decolorizing, and permanent hair coloring, are all contra-indicated on hair that has been previously treated with: Answer (C) a) Aniline derivative tints b) Demi-permanent color c) Metallic salts d) Products containing DMDM hydanton 572. When attempting to tint highly resistant hair, you should: Answer (C) a) Use a high volume H2O2 b) Use a low volume H2O2 c) Use a pre-softener d) Apply product on damp hair 573. Which of the following would a cosmetologist use to pre-soften resistant gray hair: Answer (D) a) Ammonium thioglycolate b) Sodium thioglycolate c) Aniline derivative tint d) Hydrogen peroxide 574. Which of the following procedures might be a bad idea prior to tinting the hair: Answer (B) a) Strand testing b) Brushing c) Pre-softening d) P.D. Test 575. The minimum wait time between the application of one decolorization and the next, is: Answer (A) a) 24 hours b) 48 hours c) 1 week d) 7 - 14 days 576. Para- phenylene-diamine is an ingredient found in all the following except: Answer (C) a) Semi-permanent colors b) Demi-permanent colors c) Certified colors d) Permanent colors 577. If your client has almost entirely gray hair and wants to darken it to its original color, where should you begin to apply the product? Answer (D) a) Nape b) Crown c) Sides d) Front 578. Which governmental agency regulates cosmetics in the United States? Answer (B) a) EPA b) FDA c) USP d) OSHA 579. Which agency regulates & approves the efficacy of products used for infection control: Answer (A) a) EPA b) FDA c) USPS d) OSHA 580. Which governmental agency enforces health and safety standards in the workplace: Answer (D) a) EPA b) FDA c) USPS d) OSHA 581. Which of the following products would work the fastest to relax overly curly hair: Answer (C) a) Sodium hypochlorite b) Sodium bromate c) Sodium hydroxide d) Ammonium thioglycolate 582. Client with kinky hair wants it temporarily relaxed (completely straight), you should do: Answer (B) a) A Soft press / Single press b) A Hard press / Double press c) A Soft perm d) A Sodium hydroxide relaxer 583. A client with kinky hair wants it temporarily relaxed with large curls, stylist should do? Answer (A) a) A Soft press b) A Hard press c) A Soft perm d) A Sodium hydroxide relaxer 584. A client with kinky hair wants it permanently relaxed until it is curly, stylist should do: Answer (C) a) A Soft press / Single press b) A Hard press / Double press c) A Soft perm d) A Sodium hydroxide relaxer 585. Client with kinky hair wants it permanently relaxed (straight), stylist should do: Answer (D) a) A Soft press b) A Hard press c) A Soft perm d) A Sodium hydroxide relaxer 586. When applying a virgin sodium hydroxide relaxer, the application should be done: Answer (C) a) From the scalp up to the ends b) From the scalp through the ends c) ½ inch from the scalp, 1 inch from the ends d) 1 inch from the scalp, ½ inch from the ends 587. When applying a virgin thio relaxer, the application should be done: Answer (C) a) From the scalp up to the ends b) From the scalp through the ends c) ½ inch from the scalp to the ends d) ½ inch from both scalp and ends 588. When relaxing the hair with a Thio relaxer, how wide should the partings be? Answer (A) a) 1/8 inch b) ¼ inch c) ½ inch d) ¾ inch 589. Which of the following relaxers leave the hair unfit for any further chemical service? Answer (B) a) Ammonium thioglycolate b) Sodium hydroxide c) Sodium thioglycolate d) Potassium hydroxide 590. Hair previously relaxed with a sodium hydroxide product should not be: Answer (D) a) Colored using a permanent hair color b) Set in rollers for 24 hours c) Shampooed with a color fast product d) Flat ironed 591. Hair that was relaxed with a thioglycolate based product, should not be treated with a: Answer (B) a) Thio based product b) Sodium based product c) Demi-permanent color d) Permanent color 592. Pressing creams, oils, and other products designed to protect the hair, should be used: Answer (C) a) After completing the style b) After the shampoo, prior to drying c) On dry hair after the shampoo d) After drying and prior to completing the style 593. This type of relaxer is usually advertised as a "no-lye" relaxer: Answer (C) a) Sodium hydroxide b) Lithium hydroxide c) Guanidine d) Potassium hydroxide 594. Relaxer recommended for sensitive scalps and sold "over-the-counter": Answer (C) a) Sodium hydroxide b) Lithium hydroxide c) Guanidine d) Potassium hydroxide 595. Process where a hydroxide relaxer removes one atom of sulfur from a disulfide bond: Answer (B) a) Oxidation b) Lanthionization c) Lithiumization d) Redox 596. The hydroxide relaxer breaks the disulfide bond (it losses one atom of sulfur) thereafter, it is referred to as a "Lanthionine Bond", these bonds: Answer (D) a) Must be reformed by the neutralizer b) Reform through air neutralization c) Are the last bonds to reform d) Can never be reformed 597. If a relaxer is advertised as "no-lye", you can be certain it is not which of the following: Answer (D) a) Ammonium thioglycolate b) Guanidine c) Thioglycolate d) Sodium hydroxide 598. All of the following are true of guanidine relaxers except: Answer (B) a) They contain no lye b) Have a lower pH than Thio relaxers c) Cause less skin/scalp irritation d) More drying to the hair 599. Although marketed for sensitive scalps, this type of relaxer will cause more swelling of the hair shaft and is more drying to the hair than hydroxide type relaxers: Answer (D) a) Sodium b) Lithium c) Potassium d) Guanidine 600. If the relaxer is rinsed with cold water, there is a good chance the relaxed hair will: Answer (D) a) Break b) Revert c) Tangle d) All of the above 601. When doing a chemical relaxer service, the best H2O temperature for shampooing is: Answer (B) a) Hot b) Tepid c) Cool d) Cold 602. Unless instructions say otherwise, to stop the action of a relaxer, the stylist should: Answer (A) a) Rinse with cool/ tepid water b) Apply the neutralizer c) Rinse with warm water d) Rinse with cold water 603. To avoid "Tangling" the hair while rinsing the relaxer, use: Answer (D) a) Hot water with medium pressure b) Hot water with low pressure c) Cold water with medium pressure d) Tepid water with medium pressure 604. Unless otherwise instructed by manufacturer, when rinsing any relaxer, it is best to use: Answer (B) a) Warm to tepid water b) Cool to tepid water c) Cold water to cool the scalp d) Hot water to remove all relaxer 605. To stop the chemical reaction after relaxer has been removed, stylist should use /apply: Answer (A) a) Fixative, neutralizer, or stabilizer b) Cold water c) Oil based conditioner d) Warm water 606. In a chemical relaxer, the action of the neutralizer is to do which of the following: Answer (D) a) Stop the action of the processing solution b) Reform the broken bonds of the hair c) Establish how curly/straight the hair will be d) All of the above 607. In a chemical relaxer, the action of the fixative is to do which of the following: Answer (D) a) Stop the action of the processing solution b) Reform the broken bonds of the hair c) Establish how straight the hair will be d) All of the above 608. A Thio relaxer should be applied to: Answer (D) a) Dry hair b) Wet hair c) Pressed hair d) Damp hair 609. In a permanent wave, the action of the neutralizer is to do which of the following: a) Stop the action of the processing solution b) Reform the broken bonds of the hair c) Establish how curly the hair will be d) All of the above Answer (D) 610. Chemical hair relaxers will tend to: a) Be disulphides b) Be alkaline c) Be neutral d) Be acid Answer (B) 611. Chemical relaxers will tend to have which of the following effects on the hair? Answer (B) a) Harden and shrink b) Soften and swell c) Harden and swell d) Soften and shrink 612. The application of a neutralizer has what effect on the hair: Answer (D) a) Curl straight hair b) Relax curly hair c) Soften and swell the hair d) Reform broken hair bonds 613. Which hair bonds can only be broken chemically? Answer (A) a) Disulfide b) Hydrogen c) Keratin d) Salt 614. Chemical relaxers are designed to break which bonds of the hair? Answer (A) a) Disulfide b) Hydrogen c) Keratin d) Salt 615. The stylist should begin the application of the chemical relaxer: Answer (B) a) At the top b) At the nape or most resistant area c) At the crown d) At the sides 616. Permanent wave solutions are designed to break which bonds of the hair? Answer (A) a) Disulfide b) Hydrogen c) Keratin d) Salt 617. Chemical relaxers and permanent wave solutions will often begin to "smoke" on the client's head if there is/are any on the hair: Answer (D) a) Aniline derivative color b) Demi-permanent color c) Alcohol based styling aids d) Metallic dyes 618. If a client has Metallic Salts / Dyes on their hair you should not give a: Answer (D) a) Permanent wave b) Chemical hair relaxer c) Press & Curl d) Both A and B 619. Shampooing, blow drying/curling irons, and brushing, will break which bonds of the hair? Answer (C) a) Disulfide b) Polypeptide c) Hydrogen d) Salt 620. Acidic products have which action on the hair? Answer (D) a) Soften b) Soften and swell c) Harden d) Harden and shrink 621. Alkaline products have which action on the hair? Answer (B) a) Soften b) Soften and swell c) Harden d) Harden and shrink 622. Although incompatible, Sodium and Thio relaxers are both: Answer (B) a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) Acidic and alkaline d) Sodium is alkaline and Thio is acidic 623. Both Thio and Sodium relaxers will have what effect on the hair? Answer (B) a) Hardening b) Softening c) Thio will harden, Sodium will soften d) Straighten 624. A neutralizer, stabilizer, or fixative will have what effect on the hair? Answer (A) a) Hardening b) Softening c) Straighten d) Relax 625. A neutralizer, stabilizer, or fixative is: Answer (A) a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) Acidic and alkaline d) Straightening 626. Neutralizing shampoos are sometimes referred to as: Answer (D) a) Neutralizers b) Stabilizers c) Fixatives d) All of the above 627. Because they are incompatible and usage may cause extensive breakage, hair treated with a Sodium Hydroxide relaxer should not be treated with: Answer (B) a) Guanidine b) Ammonium Thioglycolate c) Certified Colors d) Temporary Colors 628. To remove relaxers from the hair, stop their chemical action, and avoid damage to the hair itself, it is necessary to: Answer (C) a) Shampoo the hair at least twice b) Use an acid balanced shampoo c) Rinse the hair well d) Both B and C 629. If the relaxer comes into contact with the skin or scalp, it must be: Answer (D) a) Gently removed with cold water b) Gently removed with hot water c) Gently removed with a dry towel d) Gently removed with a moist towel 630. How often is it recommended to have a relaxer retouch? Answer (C) a) Every 4 weeks b) 1 to 2 months c) 3 to 4 months d) 6 to 8 months 631. What strength relaxer would you suggest using on fine / damaged hair? Answer (D) a) Weak b) Regular c) Alkaline d) Mild 632. If the relaxer is left on the hair longer than directions state, what will likely occur? Answer (D) a) May be necessary if hair is resistant b) Hair may become to straight c) Hair may discolor d) Hair may break 633. A disulphide relaxer, often marketed as "less damaging" to the hair, is or has: Answer (B) a) An alkaline pH b) An acidic pH c) pH that starts as alkaline, then turns acidic d) None of the above 634. Relaxer application generally begins: Answer (B) a) At the crown b) At the nape c) At the temples d) At the sides 635. What would be the first step in a chemical relaxer service: Answer (C) a) Section hair b) Apply base cream c) Discuss with client d) Complete a client record card 636. Once hair is relaxed with a Thio relaxer, the application of a new Thio relaxer Answer (B) may cause: a) Destruction of the hair shaft b) Breakage c) Color to darken d) None of the above 637. In cutting chemically relaxed hair, it is recommended you use: Answer (A) a) Shears b) Clippers c) Razors d) Specialized shears for cutting relaxed hair 638. Using very cold water while rinsing the relaxer, will cause all of the following except: Answer (D) a) Reversion b) Breakage c) Tighter curl d) Looser curl 639. Which of the following is not a strength of professionally made relaxers? Answer (A) a) Color-treated b) Mild c) Super / extra strength d) Regular 640. The product protecting the scalp from irritation in a "no-base" relaxer is known as: Answer (D) a) Base cream b) Protective cream c) Neutralizing cream d) No scalp cream is applied in a no-base relaxer 641. The product protecting the scalp from irritation in a relaxer service is known as: Answer (A) a) Base cream b) Protective cream c) Neutralizing cream d) No scalp cream is applied in a no-base relaxer 642. In a virgin relaxer, the relaxing product should be applied: Answer (D) a) ½ inch from the scalp to ½ from the ends b) 1 inch from the scalp to ½ inch from the ends c) From the scalp to / through the ends d) ½ inch from the scalp and 1 inch from the ends 643. When doing a retouch relaxer service, avoid: Answer (B) a) Using a sodium hydroxide relaxer b) Overlapping the previously relaxed hair c) Using a Thio relaxer d) The use of oil based conditioners 644. Which agency approves the efficacy of products used for infection control? Answer (B) a) Food and Drug Administration b) Environmental Protection Agency c) Department of Health d) State Board of Cosmetology 645. Designed to reform the hair's disulphide bonds, neutralizers have what effect on the hair? Answer (C) a) Swell and harden b) Swell and soften c) Harden and shrink d) Harden and swell 646. Which of the following cannot be used to reform the hair after the relaxer is removed: Answer (C) a) Fixative b) Stabilizer c) Conditioner d) Neutralizer 647. Stretching of the hair during the application of the relaxing cream, will cause it to: Answer (B) a) Straighten faster b) Break c) Have no effect d) Revert 648. The average pH range of a Sodium Hydroxide relaxer is: Answer (B) a) About the same as a Thio relaxer b) Somewhat higher than a Thio relaxer c) Somewhat lower than a Thio relaxer d) Highly acidic 649. When doing a retouch relaxer service, it is a good idea to: Answer (C) a) Deeply condition the hair immediately prior to the service b) Have the relaxed hair damp c) Leave conditioner on previously relaxed hair during the service d) Have the hair wet 650. Chemical relaxers and permanent wave solutions have what effect on the hair? Answer (C) a) Acid so they shrink and harden b) Alkaline so they swell and harden c) Alkaline so they swell and soften d) I don't know, I spent my school time texting friends 651. The average pH range of an Ammonium Thioglycolate relaxer is: Answer (C) a) 4.5 - 5.5 b) 7.5 - 8.5 c) 8.5 - 11.5 d) 11.5- 14 652. The average / approximate pH range of a Sodium Hydroxide relaxer is: Answer (D) a) 4.5 - 5.5 b) 7.5 - 8.5 c) 8.5 - 9.5 d) 11.5 - 14 653. When doing a Thio based relaxer, why does the stylist use the wider side of the comb? Answer (D) a) Speed the straightening process b) Reduce the processing time c) Avoid pulling the hair d) Avoid overstretching the hair 654. Hair has been relaxed with a Hot Iron, then a chemical relaxer is applied, what is likely: Answer (D) a) Hair will revert to its curly state b) Hair will relax more easily c) Hair will not relax as well d) Hair will break 655. Straightening the hair with the use of a hot comb, pressing iron, etc., is known as: Answer (B) a) Chemical straightening b) Thermal straightening c) Permanent straightening d) Temporary straightening 656. Students test the heat of thermal tools on a piece of white tissue paper. This is to: Answer (C) a) Comply with State Board regulations b) Comply with School Board requirements c) Avoid usage of excessively hot tools d) Avoid burning the client or student 657. Using extremely high heat on white, gray, lightened, or tinted hair may cause the hair to: Answer (D) a) Discolor b) Scorch c) Burn d) Both A and B 658. Usually, pressing comb handles are wooden, while the combs themselves are made of: Answer (B) a) Steel b) Copper & Brass c) Poly-Resins d) Aluminum 659. When the hair is pressed on both sides, this is referred to as a: Answer (B) a) Soft press b) Hard press c) Single press d) Double press 660. A Hard Press is most suited for which type of hair? Answer (A) a) Coarse hair b) Kinky hair c) Hair that needs to be very straight d) Fine hair 661. Fine hair, especially that around the face / hair line, requires less heat & pressure and a: Answer (C) a) Hard press b) Croquignole press c) Soft press d) Medium press 662. A hair press can be expected to last about: Answer (C) a) 1 day b) 1 week c) 2 weeks d) 1 month 663. After a thermal press & curl, how long should you wait to style the hair? Answer (B) a) Immediately b) Until it has cooled c) After the application of the oil sheen d) After the oil sheen has dried 664. The best method to clean a curling / pressing iron is with: Answer (B) a) Soap & water b) Fine steel wool c) Alcohol d) Quats 665. Which part of the hair is most easily broken during a thermal straightening service? Answer (C) a) Crown b) Back c) Front or hairline d) Nape 666. In a thermal press & curl, the stylist should begin the press: Answer (D) a) At the nape b) Close to the scalp c) At the curliest part d) Both A and B 667. When pressing gray hair, use: Answer (A) a) Light pressure and lowest heat possible b) Light pressure and high heat c) High pressure and low heat d) High heat and high pressure 668. When using hot irons on highly lightened hair, use: Answer (B) a) No heat b) Low heat c) High heat d) None of the above 669. If the ends of the hair are not in the curling iron, the likely result will be: Answer (D) a) An unhappy customer b) Fishhook ends c) Burnt ends d) Both A and B 670. When using very hot irons on highly lightened hair, in addition to breakage, you will: Answer (A) a) Scorch the hair b) Straighten the hair c) Cause the hair to revert d) Over process the hair 671. Thermal styling may be done on wigs made of: Answer (C) a) Remy hair b) Human hair c) Either human or Remy hair d) Wigs should not be thermal styled 672. Thermal styling will likely be unsuccessful on which of the following types of wigs: Answer (D) a) Remy b) Non-remy c) Human hair d) Synthetic 673. The use of creams, oils, and other products are used during thermal styling: Answer (C) a) To create volume b) To create shine c) As a protection from heat damage d) As a styling aid 674. The comb used in a thermal styling service is usually made of: Answer (B) a) Stainless steel b) Brass c) Copper d) Non flammable hard rubber 675. What portion of the thermal pressing comb carries the heat and does the pressing? Answer (B) a) Handle b) Rod c) Teeth d) Tang 676. When pressing fine or damaged hair, use: Answer (B) a) Medium heat and light pressure b) Low heat and light pressure c) High heat and light pressure d) Refuse service 677. Pressing combs are usually made of: Answer (D) a) Aluminum b) Steel c) Brass d) Both B and C 678. When pressing extremely processed hair, use: Answer (B) a) Medium heat and light pressure b) Low heat and light pressure c) High heat and light pressure d) Refuse service 679. Thermal services are: Answer (B) a) Highly damaging to the hair b) Temporary c) Permanent d) May be temporary or permanent 680. Modern thermal irons tend to be made of "fine steel" because it allows them to be: Answer (D) a) Scratch resistant b) Heated quickly c) Cleaned easily d) Heated evenly 681. Following a thermal press & curl, how long should you wait to style the hair? Answer (C) a) After the application of afinishing oil b) Immediately, the hair is pliable at this point c) Wait until the hair cools d) After applying a "working" spray 682. A sign of good porosity in the hair is: Answer (B) a) Hair will not absorb products easily and usually process slowly b) Hair will absorb products easily and usually process quickly c) Hair has excellent elasticity and will usually process quickly d) Hair has good elasticity and will usually process quickly 683. Poor porosity means: Answer (C) a) Hair will not absorb products easily and usually will not process quickly b) Hair absorbs products poorly and will usually process poorly if at all c) Hair absorbs products poorly and will process slowly d) Hair absorbs products slowly and will usually process quickly 684. Hair with good porosity will: Answer (B) a) Absorb products slowly and process slowly b) Absorb products quickly, process quickly c) Absorb products quickly, process slowly d) Absorb products quickly and process slowly 685. Porosity refers to: Answer (C) a) The hairs ability to repel moisture b) The hairs ability to attract moisture c) The hairs ability to absorb moisture d) None of the above 4 questions, 1 simple point. Same question, over-and-over. But, You Must Know It (not memorize a question) 686. Permanent Wave solutions tend to be: Answer (B) a) Acid b) Alkaline c) Both acid and alkaline d) Neither acid nor alkaline 687. In a permanent wave procedure, when should the cotton be removed? Answer (D) a) After processing has been completed b) Before rinsing c) After saturation d) Both B and C 688. The action of the perm solution on the hair is: Answer (D) a) Harden and swell b) Soften and shrink c) Harden and shrink d) Soften and swell 689. Alkaline solutions have what effect on the hair and skin? Answer (D) a) Harden and swell b) Soften and shrink c) Harden and shrink d) Soften and swell 690. Neutralizers are usually: Answer (A) a) Acid b) Alkaline c) Both acid and alkaline d) Neither acid nor alkaline 691. Acid solutions have what effect on the hair and skin? Answer (C) a) Harden and swell b) Soften and shrink c) Harden and shrink d) Soften and swell 692. Cold wave solutions will have a pH in the range of: Answer (D) a) 2.5 - 4.5 b) 3.5 - 4.5 c) 4.5 - 5.5 d) 8.2 - 9.6 693. What is the approximate pH range of acid waves: Answer (B) a) 4.5 - 5.5 b) 5.8 - 6.8 c) 2.5 - 3.5 d) 7.5 - 8.5 694. What is the approximate pH range of neutral / acid-balanced waves: Answer (B) a) 3.5 - 4.5 b) 4.5 - 6.5 c) 2.5 - 3.5 d) 8.2 - 9.6 695. What is the basic ingredient used in most chemical relaxers? Answer (D) a) Ammonium Thioglycolate b) Sodium Hypochlorite c) Sodium Chloride d) Sodium Hydroxide 696. The basic ingredient in most neutralizers is either H2O2 or: Answer (D) a) Sodium hydroxide b) Sodium hydroxite c) Sodium Thioglycolate d) Sodium bromide 697. The basic ingredient of most neutralizers is either Sodium Bromide or: Answer (D) a) Sodium Hydroxide b) 6% H2O2 c) Sodium Thioglycolate d) 2% Hydrogen Peroxide 698. Vigorous brushing or shampooing prior to any chemical service may result in: Answer (C) a) Uneven processing b) Breakage c) Chemical burns d) Over processing 699. Which of the following is not a type of bond found in the hair? Answer (D) a) Cystine b) Disulfide c) Hydrogen d) Keratin 700. Acid balanced permanent wave products tend to be more gentle on the hair, but they require the addition of to work: Answer (B) a) H2O2 b) Heat c) An oxidizing agent d) Alkaline