BT3 Exam Reviewer PDF

1. What type of foundation is typically used when soil conditions are poor? a) Spread footing b) Deep foundation c) Slab on grade d) Strip foundation 2. Concrete used for mass concrete works has a proportion of: a) 1:2:4 b) 1:3.5:7 c) 1:1.5:3 d) 1:2.5:5 3. A structural element used to resi...

1. What type of foundation is typically used when soil conditions are poor? a) Spread footing b) Deep foundation c) Slab on grade d) Strip foundation 2. Concrete used for mass concrete works has a proportion of: a) 1:2:4 b) 1:3.5:7 c) 1:1.5:3 d) 1:2.5:5 3. A structural element used to resist lateral forces from soil is: a) Load-bearing wall b) Retaining wall c) Exterior wall d) Curtain wall 4. The consistency of freshly mixed concrete is measured by: a) Slump test b) Compression test c) Tension test d) Bearing test 5. Identify the function of a splice connection in structural design: A. To improve the building's energy efficiency B. To join structural elements for load continuity C. To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the structure D. To reduce the overall construction cost 6. This is a component of the building/structure that transfers all building load (i.e., Dead Load, Live Load) to the ground. A. Superstructure B. Substructure C. Foundation D. Ground Structure 7. Which among the following is not a component of a Concrete Mixture? A. Gravel B. Silica C. Sand D. Cement 8. Concrete Proportioning for suspended slabs, beams, columns, arches, stairs, walls of 100mm (4”) thickness. A. 1:1.5:3 B. 1:2:4 C. 1:2.5:5 D. 1:3:6 9. It is the amount of water used per bag of cement. A. Slump Test B. Flood Test C. Water-cement Ratio D. Water-cement Consistency Test 10. A type of aggregate that may range up to 50mm (2”) for less highly reinforced parts of the structures such as footings, thick walls, and massive work. A. Coarse Aggregates B. Fine Aggregates C. Special Aggregates D. Sand 11. The process of relocating the point of boundaries and the property line of the site where the building is to be constructed. a. Stakes b. Staking c. Staking-out d. Strings 12. The average water-cement ratio of water used per bag of cement. a. 4.5 gallons b. 5.5 gallons c. 6.5 gallons d. 7.5 gallons 13. A temporary support designed to carry forms for beams and slabs a. Shoring b. Formworks c. Masonry d. Concrete 14. Used to shape and support fresh concrete until cured and able to support itself. a. Shoring b. Formworks c. Masonry d. Concrete 15. Are clamping devices for keeping column forms and tops of wall forms spreading under the fluid pressure of newly placed concrete. a. Snap ties b. Spreaders c. Yokes d. She bolts  16. These drawings offer the necessary graphical information for contractors to carry out construction or for suppliers to manufacture components of the project. a. Architectural Plan b. Floor Plan c. Construction Working Drawings d. Specifications 17. It includes all the visible parts of the building that define its form and function, such as walls, floors, roof, windows, doors, and so on. a. Substructure b. Superstructure c. Megastructure d. Civil Structure 18. Pre-construction process includes the following, except a. Procurement b. Planning c. Excavation d. Design 19. It refers to the underlying support structure of a building or civil engineering project that is typically below ground level or at ground level. a. Substructure b. Superstructure c. Megastructure d. Civil Structure 20. This includes building proposals, reconstructions, graduate projects, masterplans and renderings showing unbuilt ideas. a. Technical Drawings b. Conceptual Drawings c. Architectural Drawings d. Construction Plan 21. What is the purpose of steel reinforcement in a concrete slab? a) To increase the slab's thickness b) To improve tensile strength c) To control cracking during curing d) To provide thermal insulation 21. Which aggregate is typically larger than 6mm? a) Fine aggregate b) Coarse aggregate c) Special aggregate d) None of the above  22. Concrete joist construction is typically used for: a) Long-span floors b) Light framing systems c) Short-span residential floors d) Slab on grade applications 23. In steel floor systems, lateral bracing is primarily used to: a) Provide vertical load transfer b) Stabilize beams and columns c) Support roof loads d) Create a suspended floor system 24. The primary purpose of control joints in a concrete floor is to: a) Improve the appearance of the floor b) Provide spaces for expansion c) Prevent random cracking d) Increase structural capacity 25. It is denser and less porous than ceramic tile. This would mean they are much more durable and suitable for both indoor and outdoor use. The extra density is a result of a slightly different manufacturing process. A. Vinyl Tyles B. Ceramic Mossaic C. Porcelain Tiles D. Machuca Tiles 26. A tile finish that is available only in some varieties of marble & granite, this finish gives the stone a suede look and feel. This texture is smooth and slip-resistant. A. Sandblasted B. Honed C. Flamed D. Leather Finish 27. Grinding and sanding produces a smooth, yet not glossy finish. This is best for low maintenance, high traffic applications. This type of floor tile finishes unlike polished finishes are not reflective. A. Sandblasted B. Honed C. Flamed D. Leather Finish 28. One of the most popular finishes for external use where slip resistance is a concern. It is produced by applying a high-temperature flame to the surface of the stone which creates thermal shock and causes the inherent crystals to fracture, resulting in deeply textured surface ideal for external surfaces. A. Sandblasted B. Honed C. Flamed D. Leather Finish 29. Creates a finely textured surface ideal for use in traffic-ways. Applying a high-pressure jet of water mixed with sand, this treatment softens the color and characteristics of the original stone. A. Sandblasted B. Honed C. Flamed D. Leather Finish 30. Which of the following flooring types uses a click-lock system for installation? a) Solid Wood Flooring b) Parquet Flooring *c) Laminated Flooring d) Terrazzo Flooring 31. What characteristic makes marble a preferred material for luxurious spaces? *a) It adds a luxurious and classic aesthetic b) It is resistant to stains and scratches c) It is easy to maintain without sealing d) It is highly affordable compared to other stones 32. Why is parquet flooring considered visually striking? a) It is easy to install even by unskilled workers *b) It is arranged in geometric patterns c) It is more affordable than solid wood d) It is available in unusual colors of wood 33. What is a key drawback of using travertine in a bathroom? a) It is prone to cracking due to constant water *b) Its porous surface requires regular sealing c) It's hard to clean specially when soap stain occurs d) It is not slip-resistant 34. What installation method is typical for marble flooring? a) Floating system using contact cement b) Eding the material then Click-lock system *c) Thin-set mortar or cement-based adhesive d)Nail-down method on wood joist 35. Made by simultaneously interweaving the backing and pile yarns on a loom. Woven carpet is longer wearing and more stable than tufted carpet, but it is more expensive to produce. a. Tufted Carpet c. Fusion-bonded Carpet b. Knitted Carpet d. Woven Carpet  36. Is obtained by inserting coarse rock salt crystals using rollers on the freshly placed concrete surface and washing it off with streams of water after the concrete is set. a. Crystal Finish c. Troweled Finish b. Salt Finish d. Exposed Aggregate Finish 37. A mechanized trowel is used for large commercial projects which resemble large fans with the blades sitting directly against the concrete. a. Automatic Trowel c. Floor Trowel b. Power Trowel d. Fan Trowel 38. One of the most exceptional types of concrete finish that is generated by smearing the concrete surface in a uniformly overlapping circular pattern. a. Stamped Concrete Finish c. Swirl Finish b. Troweled Finish d. Broom Finish 39. A type of flooring that generally comprises a compressed fiberboard plank covered with an image of a material such as timber, stone, tiles and so on that is then given a protective coating. a. Laminate Flooring c. Protective Flooring b. Timber Flooring d. Fiber Flooring 40. It is the common type of reinforced concrete floor system which the reinforcements runs only in one direction. a. Two-way slab b. One way slab c. Flat Slab d. Waffle slab 41. It is comparatively economical to use for a medium and heavy live loads on short spans ranging from 2.00 to 3.60 meters long. a. Two-way slab b. One way slab c. Flat Slab d. Waffle slab 42. It is a slab which are supported on four sides where the floor panel is nearly square. a. Two-way slab b. One way slab c. Flat Slab d. Waffle slab 43. Ultimately, the best way to decide which type of slab is right for your project is _____________. a. Compute for the load requirements b. Consult with a qualified structural engineer  c. Refer to previous projects d. Ask your skilled workers 44. On a one-way slab, to counter bending, main steel cranked bars are provided to ___ side of slab. a. Longer b. Shorter c. Parallel d. Perpendicular 45. What is the primary function of the ridge beam in a sloped roof? a) Provide lateral stability b) Support the rafters at the roof's peak c) Allow drainage of water d) Transfer loads to the walls 46. A mansard roof is characterized by: a) Two slopes on each side b) A single continuous slope c) A flat roof with parapet walls d) A steep pitch on one side only 47. Roof trusses subjected to only vertical loads have: a) Compressive web members b) Tension chords c) Horizontal braces d) Zero stress web members 48. When a roof truss is entirely supported at one end, it is referred to as: a) Cantilever truss b) Overhanging truss c) Simple truss d) Spandrel truss 49. What is the primary function of flashing in a roof or roof deck system? A. To improve the aesthetic appeal of the roof edges B. To prevent water penetration at joints and roof intersections C. To provide insulation and reduce energy costs D. To support the structural load of the roof Choices: A. B. C. D. Questions: 50. Which among the following images shown above is a Saltbox Roof? A. Image A B. Image B C. Image C D. Image D 51. Which among the following images shown above is referred to as “Dos Aguas”? A. Image A B. Image B C. Image C D. Image D 52. Which among the following images shown above is referred to as “Cuatro Aguas”? A. Image A B. Image B C. Image C D. Image D 53. Which among the following images shown above is referred to as “Bonnet Roof”? A. Image A B. Image B C. Image C D. Image D 54. What is the other term for “Cuatro Aguas”? A. Gable Roof B. Hip Roof C. Pitch Roof D. Dormer 55. A web-like roof design of wood or steel that uses tension and compression to create strong, light components that can span a long distance. The sides are in compression and the bottom is in tension to resist being pulled apart. a. Trust c. Beam b. Queen Post d. Truss 56. The main members that form the outline of the truss and subject to relatively large axial forces and bending moments. a. Chord c. Apex  b. Web d. Heel 57. A type of roof that resembles a serrated blade. They comprise of multiple slopes at the same angle and are a popular choice for modern design. a. Hip Roof c. Blade Roof b. Dutch Gable Roof d. Sawtooth Roof 58. The simplest variety of roof trusses with the fewest components—just two top chords, one bottom chord, and one central vertical post. a. Pawn Post c. King Post b. Queen Post d. Fink 59. An intersection of two inclined roof surfaces toward which rainwater flows. a. Rake c. Hip b. Valley d. Ridge 60. What is one disadvantage of a butterfly roof design? *a) Drainage can be problematic b) It is difficult to construct c) It is the most economical option d) It provides minimal natural light 61. In what way does a dual pitch truss differ from a regular truss? a) It supports single slopes only *b) It has top chords with two different roof slopes c) It is less efficient in load-bearing d) It is only used for residential structures 62. What is a notable characteristic of a mansard roof? a) It is easy to construct *b) It has a steep pitch that allows for an attic space c) It provides excellent ventilation d) It is primarily used for single-storey structures 63. Which type of roof truss is known for providing additional headroom with a sloped bottom chord? a) Regular Truss *b) Scissor Truss c) Dual Pitch Truss d) Flat Truss 64. What is the purpose of a roof truss in construction? a) To add aesthetic appeal to the building b) To support only the roof covering materials *c) To efficiently resist external loads over larger spans d) To create additional living space in the attic  65. A non-load bearing wall system that provides weatherproofing is called: a) Load-bearing wall b) Curtain wall c) Partition wall d) Reinforced wall 66. Which reinforcement type is used at the intersections of vertical and horizontal bars in CHB walls? a) Lap splice b) Reinforced ties c) Dowel bars d) Beam blocks 67. The term "drywall" refers to: a) Brick-and-mortar wall systems b) Gypsum board wall panels c) Masonry construction techniques d) Precast concrete panels 68. What is a key difference between stick-type and unitized curtain wall systems? a) Stick-type systems are assembled on-site, while unitized systems are prefabricated off-site and installed in larger sections. b) Stick-type systems are more energy-efficient than unitized systems. c) Unitized systems require more on-site labor than stick-type systems. d) Unitized systems are less weather-resistant compared to stick-type systems. 69. What is the purpose of dowel bars in masonry walls? a) Support lintel beams b) Reinforce the footing c) Tie the vertical reinforcement to slabs and columns d) Act as water stops 70. Are exterior non-load bearing walls whose outer surface may form exterior building face, or it may be used back of panel curtain wall as back-up. A. Shear Wall B. Curtain Wall C. Masonry Wall D. Drywall 71. This technique involves fastening sheets to a framework of wood or metal studs using screws or nails. Once installed, the seams between panels are taped, and joint compound is applied to create a smooth, even surface A. Shear Wall B. Curtain Wall C. Masonry Wall D. Drywall  72. Designed to resist lateral forces, such as wind or seismic activity, that can cause the structure to tilt, shift, or collapse. These walls are typically made of reinforced concrete, masonry, or wood, and are positioned vertically to provide rigidity and stability. A. Shear Wall B. Curtain Wall C. Masonry Wall D. Drywall 73. A non-structural exterior wall or façade of a building, typically made of lightweight materials like glass, aluminum, or metal panels. It is designed to enclose the building without bearing any of the structural load. Instead, it is attached to the building's structural frame (such as floors or columns) and serves to protect the interior from environmental elements like weather and wind while allowing natural light to penetrate. A. Shear Wall B. Curtain Wall C. Fire Wall D. Drywall 74. Are typically constructed using non-combustible materials like concrete, brick, or gypsum, and they are rated based on their ability to withstand fire for a specific duration, often measured in hours. A. Shear Wall B. Curtain Wall C. Fire Wall D. Drywall 75. In masonry construction, what is the primary purpose of grout or mortar? a) To act as a decorative finish b) To provide insulation *c) To bind individual masonry units together d) To prevent water leakage 76. What type of painting preparation involves using concrete neutralizer? a) Surface sealing *b) Surface cleaning c) Color selection d) Texture application 77. What must be ensured before finalizing a technical drawing? a) It must be aesthetically pleasing *b) It must be technically accurate and buildable c) It must include as many details as possible d) It must meet personal preferences of the designer 78. What is the critical step in painting a cement-plastered wall after the first coat dries? a) Applying a primer number 2 b) Changing paint colors to final color  c) Skipping the clear coat *d) Sanding or scraping surface imperfections 79. What is the primary purpose of an elevation drawing in building construction? *a) To show the final appearance and height dimensions of a structure b) To represent the internal coordination of a building with level plan c) To illustrate plumbing and electrical plans together d) To depict the foundation layout 80. Is obtained by finely pulverizing clinker produced by calcining a proportioned mixture of argillaceous (silica, alumina) and calcareous (lime) materials with iron oxide and small amounts of other ingredients. a. Portland cement b. Quick setting cement c. Sulfate-resisting cement d. White Cement 81. Cinders, blast furnace slag, expanded shale or clay, perlite, vermiculite, and sawdust are examples of which aggregates? a. Fine aggregates b. Coarse aggregates c. Course aggregates d. Special aggregates 82. How does plaster differ from mortar in its application? a. Plaster is used for bonding, while mortar is used as a finished coat b. Both are used for bonding masonry units c. Plaster is used for foundations, while mortar is for wall finishes d. Mortar is used for bonding, while plaster is applied as a finished coat 83. What material do we apply prior to the puttying of the masonry wall? a. Skim coat plaster b. Flat white paint c. Concrete neutralizer d. Sand it first 84. Is a wall whose purpose is to resist the thrust of a bank of earth or other material. a. Retaining wall b. Gravity wall c. Cantilever wall d. Counterfort wall 85. A cellular framework of squared steel, concrete, or timber members, assembled in layers at right angles, and filled with earth or stones. a. Gabion c. Bin Wall b. Riprap d. Cribbing  The application of mortar or concrete under pneumatic pressure through a cement gun. The dry mix of cement and sand is mixed with water as it’s being applied. Also known as Shotcrete. a. Gunite c. Cement Guning b. Grout d. Plastering 86. Refers to the construction of buildings with individual pieces that are laid in mortar and then bound together by mortar. Bricks, stones, or concrete blocks are the most common types of units. a. Masonry c. Plastering b. Concreting d. Mortaring 87. A load-bearing concrete masonry unit suitable for use both above and below grade in walls exposed to moisture or weather; this type of units have a compressive strength from 800 to 1500 psi (5516 to 10,342 kPa). a. Grade L c. Grade N b. Grade M d. Grade O 88. A continuous vertical section of a masonry wall one unit in thickness a. Collar c. Wythe b. Header d. Course 89. A kind of wall that is able to carry the load from above (own weight & load from roof) and transfer it to the foundation. Resist side pressure from wind. a. Non-loadbearing wall b. Load bearing wall c. Semi load bearing wall d. Standalone wall 90. These are known as framed walls that are specially designed for resisting lateral forces. It’s a form of vertical functional element for the force resisting system used to resist earthquake loading, wind, and other natural calamity load on the building. a. Cavity Wall b. Shear Wall c. Partition Wall d. Curtain Wall 91. What is the best paint finish for ceiling? a. Flat Finish b. Gloss Finish c. Semi-Gloss Finish d. Eggshell Finish 92. What is the common finish of elastomeric paint? a. Flat Finish  b. Gloss Finish c. Semi-Gloss Finish d. Eggshell Finish 93. What do you call the waterproofing applied from the interior side of the wall? a. Positive pressure waterproofing b. Negative pressure waterproofing c. Bitumen Waterproofing d. Cementitious Waterproofing 94. What is the standard thickness for Grade “A” plywood used in ceiling formwork? a) 10mm b) 12mm c) 20mm d) 25mm 95. Ceiling finishes that control sound by absorption are known as: a) Drywall b) Stucco c) Acoustic tile d) Shiplapped boards 96. The primary material for direct clipped furred ceiling systems is: a) Wood b) Metal c) Plastic d) Cement board 97. What type of suspended ceiling system uses a grid structure with both vertical and horizontal lines? a) Jointless system b) Paneled system c) Grid system d) Sheathed system 98. Acoustic tile made from rock wool is classified as: a) Glass fiber tile b) Mineral wool tile c) Cellulose fiber tile d) Fireproof tile 99. Which among the following is not used on the suspended ceiling system? A. Suspension Rod B. Suspension Bracket C. Furring Channel D. None of the Above  100. Are attached to the structural framework above the ceiling and are connected to ceiling grids, tiles, or other components below, keeping them securely in place. They help evenly distribute the weight of the ceiling system and any attached fixtures, such as lighting, ensuring stability and safety. A. Suspension Rod B. Suspension Bracket C. Furring Channel D. None of the Above 101. It connects the ceiling grid or framework to the overhead structural elements, such as beams or joists. A. Suspension Rod B. Suspension Bracket C. Furring Channel D. None of the Above 102. A type of metal framing used in construction, typically made of galvanized steel. It serves as a support structure for attaching drywall or other materials to walls and ceilings. A. Suspension Rod B. Suspension Bracket C. Furring Channel D. None of the Above 103. Used for ceiling and wall finishes in rooms where it is required to control sound by absorption. A. Paint B. Acoustic Tiles C. Heat Insulation D. None of the Above 104. How thick can acoustic tiles be? *a) From 1/2 inch to 1 inch b) Only 1/4 inch to 1 ¼ inch c) Up to 2 inches thick d) 3 inches thick for soundproofing 105. What is one disadvantage of a panelled suspended ceiling system? a) It is difficult to install *b) It may not provide adequate sound absorption c) It requires more materials than direct fixed systems d) It is not aesthetically pleasing 106. What is a common size for mineral wool tiles? a) 12” x 12” b) 4” x 4” *c) 12” x 24” d) 24” x 48” 107. Which of the following describes a jointless suspended ceiling system? a) A system that uses visible seams between panels  b) A system that requires additional framing *c) A seamless ceiling system without visible joints d) A system primarily for exterior applications 108. What is the primary function of an acoustic tile in ceiling construction? *a) To control sound absorption b) To provide structural support c ) To enhance aesthetic appeal d) To insulate the space 109. Recommended material for use in buttering the edge of fiber cement board as used in eaves: a. silicon b. jointing compound c. glue d. stikwel 110. True or False. Gypsum boards may be used for a bathroom ceiling. a. True b. False 3. An “L” shaped component of a suspended ceiling that is either nailed or screwed to a wall. a. carrying channel b. tee runner c. metal furring d. wall angle 111. Arrange the sequence of the following activities in chronological order: (1) layout of conduits, (2) installation of light fixtures, (3) wiring, (4) installation of ceiling materials a. 1-2-3-4 b. 4-3-1-2 c. 1-4-3-2 d. 4-1-3-2 112. Which is highly unlikely cannot be seen in the reflected ceiling plan sheet/s? a. wall lights b. ceiling material c. ceiling cove detail d. lighting fixtures 113. A short beam passes through a wall as a temporary support while the foundation or part beneath is repaired, altered, or strengthened. a. Dead shore b. Lintel beam c. Form Concrete d. Needle 114. A Type of mortar used for non-load-bearing structures. a. Type O b. Type N  c. Type S d. Type M 115. This type of slab is used for buildings requiring expensive spans such as auditorium or exhibition halls a.Flat slab b.Waffle slab c.Two way slab d.One way slab 116. The curing period or time required for the removal of forms for cantilever footings a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 120 hours 117. This type of slab is best used for structures where beam is not necessary. a.Waffle slab b.Flat plate c. Flat slab d.Two way slab 118. What is the minimum concrete cover for reinforcing steel where concrete is exposed to earth but poured against forms? a. 25mm b. 40mm c. 50mm d. 75mm 119. What is the minimum concrete cover for reinforcing steel where concrete is deposited directly against earth? a. 25mm b. 40mm c. 50mm d. 75mm 120. In structural general notes, db means ________________. a. distinct bar b. bar distance c. bar diameter d. diameter bend 121. Stripping of forms timeline on foundation is _________________. a. 21 days  b. 24 hours c. 28 days d. 2 days 122. In rebar markings, 60 means? a. Grade Trade b. Steel Type c. Grade Mark d. Diameter size 123. Which grade of rebar is not commonly used in the Philippines? a. grade 33 b. grade 40 c. grade 50 d. grade 60 124. Arrange the sequence of the following activities in chronological order: (1) layout and staking, (2) excavation, (3) site clearing, (4) steel works a. 1-2-3-4 b. 2-3-4-1 c. 4-3-2-1 d. 3-1-2-4 125. When is it necessary to employ deep foundations? a. when the soil underlying a foundation is made up of clay b. when the soil underlying a foundation has inadequate bearing capacity c. when the soil underlying a foundation is made up of dense sands d. when the soil underlying a foundation is made up of rock 126. In analysis of truss, which of the following are true? a. Members are regarded as pinned joints. b. Members are joined together to transfer only the axial forces and not moments and shears. c. both of the above d. none of the above 127. The specified wide flange for a particular structural member of a floor framing has a tag of W14x53. What is the approximate depth in mm of the wide flange? a. 250mm b. 300mm c. 350mm d. 400mm  128. What do you use to connect a PVC fitting to a PVC pipe? a. fusion machine b. Teflon tape c. rugby d. solvent cement 129. In a septic tank, the first chamber where the wastewater goes to is called: a. leaching chamber b. sludge c. digestive chamber d. scum 130. True or False. Wastewater treatment involves processes to remove contaminants from used water so that it can be safely returned to the environment. a. True b. False 131. For a 5-storey mixed-used project with each level having a 3.50 meter floor-to-floor height, if your roof design is a gable roof having gutters with 2 roof drains each, compute for the number of downspout pipes you will need if the available length in your suki hardware is 6m? a. 12pcs. b. 6pcs. c. 18pcs. d. 9pcs. 132. Which fitting do you need to connect a hose bibb with a brass thread? a. coupling b. elbow with female thread c. tee d. elbow with male thread 133. The appropriate wire size for a residential single-point water heater is: a. 2.0mm2 b. 3.5mm2 c. 5.5mm2 d. none of the above 134. The “N” in THHN means: a. nano b. nylon c. ninety degrees d. none 135. True or False. A circuit break will trip to protect an electrical circuit from damage caused by an undercurrent / underload. a. True b. False  136. Which sector is not a result of the EPIRA law? a. supply b. transmission c. billing d. generation 137. Another pump used in the fire protection system that maintains the pressure within the system? a. ejector pump b. sump pump c. transfer pump d. jockey pump 138. How do you read this in main panel board, 1φ? a. one diameter b. one phase c. single phase d. single diameter 139. White wires are typically used for current carrying? a. Hot connections b. Neutral connections c. Cold connections d. Ground Connections 140. This delivers power at a steady, constant rate and better accommodates higher loads. a. Three-Phase Power b. Single Phase Power c. Four-Phase Power d. Transformer 141. Standard height of convenience outlet? a. 0.35m b. 35mm c. 300mm d. 350cm 142. Standard height of switches? a. 1.5M b. 1.1M c. 1.2M d. 1.4M