بنك تجميعي لكل المحاضرات غير مترجم مايكرو PDF

‫ واالجوبة صادرة من دكتور معتصم ودكتورة فاطمة‬3/6/10/11/6/7/8/9/2/4/5.‫هذا امللف يشمل كل بنوك املحاضرات لكال الدكتورين م‬ ‫بنك املحاضرة الثالثة الخاصة بدكتور معتصم‬...

‫ واالجوبة صادرة من دكتور معتصم ودكتورة فاطمة‬3/6/10/11/6/7/8/9/2/4/5.‫هذا امللف يشمل كل بنوك املحاضرات لكال الدكتورين م‬ ‫بنك املحاضرة الثالثة الخاصة بدكتور معتصم‬ ‫غير مترجم‬ Bacterial Chromosome and Plasmids 1. What is the structure containing most of the DNA in a bacterial cell? A) Nucleus B) Nucleoid C) Mitochondrion D) Ribosome Answer: B 2. What is the shape of the bacterial chromosome? A) Linear B) Circular C) Branched D) Rectangular Answer: B 3. Which term describes DNA tightly coiled, compacted, and supercoiled in bacteria? A) Replication B) Condensation C) DNA Packing D) Transcription Answer: C 4. Most prokaryotes are haploid, meaning: A) They have no chromosomes. B) They have two sets of chromosomes. C) They have one set of chromosomes. D) They are diploid. Answer: C 5. What are plasmids? A) Ribosomal RNA molecules B) Linear DNA molecules in prokaryotes C) Small, circular DNA molecules carrying genes like antibiotic resistance  D) Membrane-bound organelles Answer: C DNA Structure and Function 6. DNA is made up of: A) Amino acids and lipids B) Nucleotides with nitrogen bases, sugars, and phosphate groups C) Polysaccharides and proteins D) Lipids and carbohydrates Answer: B 7. What are the four nitrogenous bases in DNA? A) Adenine, Cytosine, Uracil, Guanine B) Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine C) Cytosine, Thymine, Guanine, Ribose D) Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Ribose Answer: B 8. DNA strands are described as: A) Identical B) Parallel C) Antiparallel D) Randomly aligned Answer: C 9. What is the complementary base pair for adenine (A) in DNA? A) Cytosine (C) B) Guanine (G) C) Thymine (T) D) Uracil (U) Answer: C 10. What type of bond links base pairs in the DNA double helix? A) Covalent bond  B) Glycosidic bond C) Hydrogen bond D) Peptide bond Answer: C DNA Replication 11. In DNA replication, what is the role of DNA polymerase? A) Synthesizes RNA primers B) Unwinds the DNA strand C) Synthesizes new DNA strands D) Joins Okazaki fragments Answer: C 12. The leading strand is synthesized: A) In short fragments B) Continuously C) Randomly D) Using Okazaki fragments Answer: B 13. What are Okazaki fragments? A) Sections of DNA on the leading strand B) Fragments of RNA on the lagging strand C) Short DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand D) Errors during replication Answer: C 14. Which enzyme removes RNA primers in DNA replication? A) Helicase B) DNA ligase C) RNase D) DNA polymerase III Answer: C  15. What completes the joining of Okazaki fragments? A) Helicase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA ligase D) RNase Answer: C Genes and Genetic Code 16. What is the basic unit of heredity? A) Chromosome B) Gene C) Plasmid D) Codon Answer: B 17. Genes encode instructions for making: A) Lipids B) RNA and proteins C) Sugars D) DNA molecules Answer: B 18. Variants of a gene are called: A) Chromatids B) Alleles C) Centromeres D) Mutations Answer: B 19. The genetic code consists of triplets called: A) Nucleotides B) Codons C) Anticodons  D) Amino acids Answer: B 20. How many codons exist in the genetic code? A) 20 B) 64 C) 128 D) 32 Answer: B RNA and Nucleosides 21. RNA differs from DNA because it: A) Contains thymine B) Has ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose C) Is double-stranded D) Lacks a sugar-phosphate backbone Answer: B 22. What is a nucleoside? A) A nucleotide without the sugar group B) A sugar and nitrogenous base without phosphate C) A nucleotide without the nitrogenous base D) A phosphate molecule Answer: B 23. What does a nucleotide consist of? A) Nitrogenous base, sugar, and one to three phosphate groups B) Sugar and phosphate only C) DNA and protein D) RNA and sugar Answer: A 24. In transcription, what is synthesized? A) DNA  B) RNA C) Proteins D) Lipids Answer: B 25. RNA primers are added during replication by: A) Primase B) DNA polymerase C) RNase D) Helicase Answer: A Replication Termination and Application 26. In prokaryotic replication, termination occurs: A) Randomly across the chromosome B) At specific termination sequences (ter sites) C) By splitting the nucleus D) Through Okazaki fragment errors Answer: B 27. Circular bacterial chromosomes terminate replication: A) At multiple points B) When the replication forks meet C) By forming new plasmids D) At the centromere Answer: B 28. What structure is used for DNA packing in bacterial chromosomes? A) Ribosome B) Histone-like proteins C) Mitochondria D) Plasmids Answer: B 29. Which enzyme unwinds DNA strands for replication? A) DNA ligase B) Helicase C) RNase D) Primase Answer: B 30. Prokaryotic plasmids are often used in biotechnology because they: A) Code for ribosomes B) Carry essential survival genes C) Are easy to manipulate for cloning purposes D) Contain RNA primers Answer: C  ‫بنك املحاضرة السادسة الخاصة بدكتور معتصم‬ Transmission Mechanisms in Prokaryotes 1. What is the process of direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous DNA into a bacterial cell called? A) Transduction B) Transformation C) Conjugation D) Replication Answer: B 2. Which state must bacteria achieve to perform transformation? A) Dormancy B) Competence C) Growth D) Sporulation Answer: B 3. What mediates the transfer of bacterial DNA in transduction? A) Pilus B) Plasmid C) Virus D) Restriction enzymes Answer: C 4. Which process does NOT require physical contact between donor and recipient bacterial cells? A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Conjugation D) Binary fission Answer: B 5. In conjugation, the donor bacterium must carry which genetic element? A) R-plasmid B) Transposon C) F-factor  D) Operon Answer: C Molecular Techniques 6. What type of ends are generated by EcoRI restriction enzyme? A) Blunt ends B) Sticky ends C) Overlapping ends D) None Answer: B 7. What is the primary role of DNA ligase in genetic engineering? A) Cutting DNA B) Joining DNA fragments C) Replicating DNA D) Degrading DNA Answer: B 8. What is the enzyme used to amplify DNA during PCR? A) Helicase B) Taq polymerase C) DNA ligase D) Restriction enzyme Answer: B 9. What is the first step of a PCR reaction? A) Annealing B) Denaturation C) Extension D) Replication Answer: B 10. Which technique separates DNA fragments based on their size? A) PCR  B) Gel electrophoresis C) Transformation D) Blunt-end cloning Answer: B Applications and Implications 11. Transduction is commonly used in molecular biology for: A) Antibiotic production B) Transferring resistance genes C) Introducing foreign genes into host cells D) Protein synthesis Answer: C 12. What advantage can conjugation provide to recipient bacteria? A) Increased motility B) Antibiotic resistance C) Nutritional benefits D) Photosynthetic capability Answer: B 13. Which genetic engineering technique uses "sticky ends" for DNA assembly? A) PCR B) Cloning C) Gel electrophoresis D) Transduction Answer: B 14. A bacterial virus that transfers genetic material is known as a: A) Bacteriophage B) Plasmid C) Endospore D) Transposon Answer: A  15. DNA fragments joined by blunt ends require which condition? A) Higher enzyme specificity B) Precise nucleotide matching C) Less ligase activity D) Random insertion Answer: A Restriction Enzymes 16. Restriction enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences called: A) Codons B) Promoters C) Palindrome sequences D) Introns Answer: C 17. EcoRV produces what type of DNA ends? A) Sticky B) Blunt C) Curved D) None Answer: B 18. Why are sticky ends useful in cloning? A) Easier insertion of fragments B) Faster replication C) Reduced mutations D) Increased stability Answer: A 19. Which bacteria is the source of Taq polymerase? A) Escherichia coli B) Thermus aquaticus C) Bacillus subtilis  D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Answer: B 20. What step ensures compatibility of DNA fragments in cloning? A) Annealing B) Digestion with restriction enzymes C) Replication D) Electrophoresis Answer: B DNA Amplification and Analysis 21. What is an "amplicon"? A) An enzyme used in PCR B) A DNA sequence amplified by PCR C) A plasmid in bacteria D) A restriction enzyme product Answer: B 22. How are bacterial cells made competent for transformation? A) Heat shock or electroporation B) Antibiotic exposure C) Nutrient supplementation D) UV radiation Answer: A 23. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move based on their: A) Charge and size B) Sequence and shape C) Origin of source D) Enzyme specificity Answer: A 24. What is the main purpose of a vector in cloning? A) Destroy DNA  B) Amplify foreign DNA C) Transport genetic material into host D) Replace bacterial genome Answer: C 25. Which phase of PCR involves binding of primers to the template DNA? A) Extension B) Denaturation C) Annealing D) Replication Answer: C General Knowledge 26. What is the role of primers in PCR? A) Terminate DNA replication B) Provide a starting point for DNA synthesis C) Amplify RNA D) Separate DNA strands Answer: B 27. The enzyme that synthesizes DNA during PCR is derived from: A) Viruses B) Thermophilic bacteria C) Algae D) Mammalian cells Answer: B 28. What is the significance of antibiotic resistance plasmids? A) Aid in digestion B) Enhance transformation C) Provide survival advantage D) Inhibit conjugation Answer: C 29. Which process requires the use of a pilus? A) Transduction B) Transformation C) Conjugation D) PCR Answer: C 30. In cloning, the term "ligation" refers to: A) Cutting DNA strands B) Joining DNA fragments C) Amplifying genetic material D) Sequencing DNA Answer: B  ‫بنك املحاضرة العاشرة الخاصة بدكتور معتصم‬ General Characteristics of Bacteria 1. Which bacterial genera are known for forming spores? A) Escherichia and Pseudomonas B) Bacillus and Clostridium C) Listeria and Corynebacterium D) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus Answer: B 2. What type of capsule does Bacillus anthracis have? A) Polysaccharide B) Polypeptide (polyglutamate) C) Lipid-based D) Chitin-like Answer: B 3. What stain is used to demonstrate the capsule of Bacillus anthracis? A) Gram stain B) M’Faydean capsule stain C) Acid-fast stain D) Malachite green Answer: B 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria? A) Thin peptidoglycan layer B) Lipopolysaccharides in the outer membrane C) Spore formation D) Biofilm formation Answer: C 5. Which feature is common in Gram-negative bacteria? A) Thick peptidoglycan layer B) Sporulation C) Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides  D) Lack of a cell wall Answer: C Spore Formation 6. What is the primary purpose of bacterial spores? A) Reproduction B) Protection against environmental stress C) Energy production D) Antibiotic production Answer: B 7. Which type of bacterium forms spores under aerobic conditions? A) Clostridium B) Listeria C) Bacillus D) Escherichia Answer: C 8. What staining method is used to visualize bacterial spores? A) Gram staining B) Acid-fast staining C) Hot malachite green D) Methylene blue Answer: C 9. What is the appearance of Bacillus anthracis colonies on nutrient agar? A) Medusa head B) Inverted fir tree C) Smooth and shiny D) Rough and mucoid Answer: A 10. Which environmental conditions trigger spore formation? A) Abundant nutrients  B) Extreme heat and desiccation C) Antibiotic exposure D) Normal physiological growth Answer: B Biofilm Formation 11. What is the primary function of a biofilm? A) Enhance nutrient absorption B) Protect bacteria from hostile environments C) Facilitate spore formation D) Increase metabolic activity Answer: B 12. Which of the following is a key survival mechanism for Gram-negative bacteria? A) Sporulation B) Biofilm formation C) Capsule production D) Flagella synthesis Answer: B 13. Biofilms help bacteria survive by: A) Increasing growth rate B) Enhancing gene transfer C) Providing a protective matrix D) Destroying competing microbes Answer: C 14. Which of the following bacteria is known for forming biofilms? A) Escherichia coli B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Helicobacter pylori D) All of the above Answer: D  15. Dormancy in Gram-negative bacteria is an alternative to: A) Capsule formation B) Antibiotic production C) Spore formation D) Conjugation Answer: C Virulence and Pathogenesis 16. What is the primary virulence factor of Bacillus anthracis? A) Lipopolysaccharides B) Anthrax toxin C) Beta-lactamase production D) Flagella Answer: B 17. Which component of anthrax toxin causes edema? A) Edema factor B) Protective factor C) Lethal factor D) Capsule Answer: A 18. How does the lethal factor in anthrax toxin affect host cells? A) Increases cAMP levels B) Cleaves MAP kinases C) Inhibits DNA replication D) Disrupts membrane integrity Answer: B 19. What does the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contain? A) Peptidoglycan B) Lipopolysaccharides C) Polyglutamate  D) Teichoic acid Answer: B 20. Which bacteria thrive in acidic stomach environments? A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Helicobacter pylori C) Escherichia coli D) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: B Resistance Mechanisms 21. How do efflux pumps aid in bacterial survival? A) By forming spores B) By expelling toxic substances C) By increasing nutrient uptake D) By producing biofilms Answer: B 22. What is the role of lipopolysaccharides in Gram-negative bacteria? A) Enhance DNA replication B) Increase cell permeability C) Reduce antibiotic susceptibility D) Stimulate biofilm formation Answer: C 23. Horizontal gene transfer in bacteria involves: A) Replication B) Mutation C) Conjugation, transformation, and transduction D) Binary fission Answer: C 24. What enables Gram-negative bacteria to resist detergents and antibiotics? A) Biofilm formation  B) Modified lipopolysaccharides C) Capsule production D) Sporulation Answer: B 25. What is the genetic adaptation mechanism in Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A) Spore formation B) Efflux pumps and biofilm formation C) Capsule synthesis D) Antibiotic production Answer: B General Knowledge 26. Gram-positive bacteria are distinguished by: A) Thick peptidoglycan layers B) Presence of outer membranes C) High antibiotic resistance D) Biofilm reliance Answer: A 27. Gram-negative bacteria adapt to hostile environments by: A) Sporulation B) Dormancy and biofilm formation C) Capsule development D) Plasmid elimination Answer: B 28. What type of media demonstrates "Medusa head" colonies for Bacillus anthracis? A) Blood agar B) Nutrient agar C) PLET medium D) Gelatin stab agar Answer: B 29. Which Gram-negative bacterium is highly resistant and thrives in hospital environments? A) Escherichia coli B) Helicobacter pylori C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: C 30. Which method is NOT used to visualize bacterial spores? A) Gram staining B) Hot malachite green staining C) Modified acid-fast staining D) Electron microscopy Answer: A  ‫ الخاصة بدكتور معتصم‬11 ‫بنك املحاضرة‬ General Concepts 1. What is the definition of sterilization? A) Reduction of microbial load B) Elimination of all forms of microbial life C) Killing of harmful pathogens only D) Use of antiseptics on living tissues Answer: B 2. Which of the following is NOT a sterilization method? A) Filtration B) Incineration C) Pasteurization D) Autoclaving Answer: C 3. The purpose of sterilization in healthcare is: A) Reducing microbial levels to safe standards B) Eliminating all microbial life C) Killing vegetative bacteria only D) Removing dirt from surfaces Answer: B 4. What is the primary challenge in sterilizing bacterial endospores? A) Their metabolic activity B) Their resistance to heat and chemicals C) Their rapid reproduction rate D) Their reliance on oxygen Answer: B 5. What is the key difference between sterilization and disinfection? A) Sterilization kills all microbes, including spores. B) Disinfection is more thorough than sterilization. C) Disinfection is limited to vegetative bacteria.  D) Both methods target only bacterial spores. Answer: A Physical Methods 6. Which of the following methods uses moist heat? A) Hot-air oven B) Incineration C) Autoclaving D) UV radiation Answer: C 7. The minimum temperature and pressure required for autoclaving are: A) 100°C and 1 atm B) 121°C and 15 psi C) 140°C and 20 psi D) 63°C and 30 psi Answer: B 8. What is the main disadvantage of boiling water as a sterilization method? A) It is ineffective against endospores. B) It is too expensive for routine use. C) It damages heat-resistant materials. D) It sterilizes too slowly. Answer: A 9. Which method is most suitable for sterilizing glassware? A) Filtration B) Incineration C) Dry heat (hot-air oven) D) Pasteurization Answer: C 10. HEPA filters are effective at removing: A) Soluble toxins  B) Particles as small as 0.3 microns C) Viruses only D) Bacteria but not allergens Answer: B Chemical Methods 11. Which sterilant is ideal for heat-sensitive materials? A) Ethylene oxide B) Sodium hypochlorite C) Alcohol D) Phenol Answer: A 12. What is the mechanism of action for glutaraldehyde as a sterilant? A) Denaturing proteins B) Generating free radicals C) Crosslinking proteins and nucleic acids D) Disrupting lipid membranes Answer: C 13. Hydrogen peroxide is sporicidal at: A) Low concentrations B) High concentrations C) Neutral pH D) Low temperatures Answer: B 14. Alcohols are effective as disinfectants because they: A) Oxidize bacterial DNA B) Denature proteins and dissolve lipids C) Inactivate bacterial endospores D) Penetrate bacterial cell walls Answer: B  15. What term describes agents that inhibit microbial growth without killing them? A) Bactericidal B) Sporicidal C) Microbistatic D) Fungicidal Answer: C Applications 16. What is the purpose of pasteurization? A) Sterilize beverages B) Reduce microbial load while preserving flavor C) Eliminate all pathogens, including endospores D) Prevent the growth of all microbes in milk Answer: B 17. Flash pasteurization involves heating at: A) 71.6°C for 15 seconds B) 63°C for 30 minutes C) 100°C for 5 minutes D) 121°C for 1 minute Answer: A 18. Filtration is commonly used for sterilizing: A) Glassware B) Heat-sensitive liquids C) Metallic instruments D) Biofilms Answer: B 19. Which of the following employs osmotic pressure for microbial control? A) UV radiation B) Salting and sugaring foods C) Incineration  D) Autoclaving Answer: B 20. Radiation sterilization is effective because it: A) Denatures microbial enzymes B) Damages microbial DNA and RNA C) Disrupts bacterial membranes D) Prevents microbial respiration Answer: B Terminology and Efficiency 21. What does the term "asepsis" refer to? A) Microbial growth in tissues B) Prevention of infection C) Inhibition of microbial metabolism D) Use of antiseptics on surfaces Answer: B 22. Antiseptics are used for: A) Sterilizing instruments B) Reducing microbes on living tissues C) Disinfecting floors D) Preserving food Answer: B 23. Which term describes the total killing of bacteria, excluding spores? A) Microbistatic B) Bactericidal C) Fungicidal D) Sporicidal Answer: B 24. What type of sterilization is preferred for hospital air filtration? A) Osmotic pressure  B) HEPA filters C) Ethylene oxide D) UV radiation Answer: B 25. What is the advantage of dry heat over moist heat? A) Sterilizes faster B) Suitable for heat-sensitive materials C) Prevents material damage during sterilization D) More effective for sterilizing glass and metals Answer: D Effectiveness Factors 26. Which of the following microbes is the least resistant to sterilization? A) Bacterial endospores B) Gram-negative bacteria C) Vegetative bacteria D) Viruses with lipid envelopes Answer: D 27. Which factor does NOT influence the effectiveness of a germicide? A) Microbial type B) Exposure time C) Concentration D) Ambient noise Answer: D 28. How does ethylene oxide sterilize materials? A) Boiling B) Alkylating DNA and proteins C) Generating free radicals D) Blocking cell wall synthesis Answer: B 29. What is a limitation of filtration as a sterilization method? A) Removes only bacterial spores B) Cannot remove soluble toxins C) Damages heat-sensitive materials D) Is not compatible with liquids Answer: B 30. What is the efficiency of HEPA filters? A) 95% for particles smaller than 1 micron B) 99.97% for particles as small as 0.3 microns C) 80% for all particles D) 50% for airborne microbes Answer: B  2/4/5 ‫بنك محاضرات املد الخاصة بدكتورة فاطمة والتي تشمل محاضرات‬ Chemotherapy 1. What is the source of natural antibiotics? - A) Plants - B) Fungal sources - C) Human cells - D) Synthetic production - Answer: B) Fungal sources 2. Which type of antibiotics are often more toxic than synthetic antibiotics? - A) Semi-synthetic - B) Natural - C) Synthetic - D) Modified - Answer: B) Natural 3. What is an example of a semi-synthetic antibiotic? - A) Benzylpenicillin - B) Moxifloxacin - C) Ampicillin - D) Vancomycin - Answer: C) Ampicillin 4. What is the main advantage of synthetic antibiotics? - A) Less toxicity - B) Pre-exposure to bacteria - C) High natural resistance - D) None of the above - Answer: A) Less toxicity 5. Which type of drug kills the target bacterium? - A) Bactericidal - B) Bacteriostatic - C) Probiotic - D) Antiviral - Answer: A) Bactericidal 6. What does a bacteriocidal drug do? - A) Kills bacteria - B) Inhibits fungal growth - C) Inhibits bacterial growth - D) Kills viruses - Answer: C) Kills viruses 7. Which drug class is effective against osteomyelitis? - A) Bacteriostatic - B) Antifungal - C) Bactericidal - D) Antiviral - Answer: C) Bactericidal 8. What are β-lactams commonly used to inhibit? - A) Protein synthesis - B) DNA replication - C) Metabolism - D) Cell wall synthesis - Answer: D) Cell wall synthesis 9. What is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic? - A) Targets many organisms - B) Targets few organisms - C) Targets viruses - D) Targets fungi - Answer: B) Targets few organisms 10. Which antibiotic class inhibits protein synthesis? - A) Penicillins - B) Aminoglycosides - C) Cephalosporins - D) Glycopeptides - Answer: B) Aminoglycosides 11. Which of these is a plasma membrane-injuring agent? - A) Tetracycline - B) Chloramphenicol - C) Bacitracin - D) Polymyxin - Answer: D) Polymyxin 13. Which antibiotic is known to be toxic to human kidneys? - A) Vancomycin - B) Tetracycline - C) Polymyxin - D) Erythromycin - Answer: C) Polymyxin 14. What type of agents are sulfonamides? - A) Protein synthesis inhibitors - B) Metabolic inhibitors - C) Plasma membrane agents - D) Nucleic acid inhibitors - Answer: B) Metabolic inhibitors 15. What does TMZ inhibit? - A) Protein synthesis - B) DNA synthesis - C) Folate synthesis - D) Cell wall synthesis - Answer: C) Folate synthesis 16. Intrinsic resistance in bacteria means they have: - A) Acquired genes - B) A natural lack of target - C) External plasmids - D) Gene mutations - Answer: B) A natural lack of target 17. What is an example of acquired resistance? - A) Efflux pumps - B) Lack of cell wall - C) Gene mutation - D) Presence of R-plasmids - Answer: C) Gene mutation 18. What is the frequency of mutation in bacteria that leads to resistance? - A) 1 per 100 - B) 1 per 1000 - C) 1 per 10,000 - D) 1 per 10 million - Answer: D) 1 per 10 million 19. Which bacteria are intrinsically resistant to penicillin? - A) E. coli - B) Staphylococcus - C) Klebsiella - D) Mycoplasma - Answer: D) Mycoplasma 20. R-plasmids are: - A) Intrinsic resistance genes - B) Acquired resistance genes - C) Non-genetic resistance elements - D) Structural proteins - Answer: B) Acquired resistance genes 21. Which antibiotic resistance method involves the export of a drug? - A) Plasmid-mediated - B) Decreased permeability - C) Drug inactivation - D) None of the above - Answer: B) Decreased permeability 22. Which antibiotic can bacteria inactivate using enzymes? - A) Vancomycin - B) Amoxicillin - C) Erythromycin - D) Sulfonamides - Answer: B) Amoxicillin 23. Mutations in bacteria can lead to: - A) Intrinsic resistance - B) Altered target sites - C) Increased sensitivity - D) None of the above - Answer: B) Altered target sites 24. How do bacteria develop multidrug resistance? - A) Gene modification - B) Single-step mutation - C) Plasmid acquisition - D) All of the above - Answer: D) All of the above 25. Which antibiotic targets cell wall synthesis by binding to NAM? - A) Fosfomycin - B) Erythromycin - C) Chloramphenicol - D) Clindamycin - Answer: A) Fosfomycin 26. Which enzyme is targeted by Trimethoprim? - A) DNA polymerase - B) RNA polymerase - C) Dihydrofolate reductase - D) Transpeptidase - Answer: C) Dihydrofolate reductase 27. Bacteria acquire resistance through plasmids via a process called: - A) Conjugation - B) Transcription - C) Replication - D) Mutation - Answer: A) Conjugation 28. Sulfonamides act by inhibiting which bacterial pathway? - A) Protein synthesis - B) Cell wall synthesis - C) Folate synthesis - D) Plasma membrane synthesis - Answer: C) Folate synthesis 29. What is the primary purpose of bactericidal drugs? - A) Suppress bacterial growth - B) Prevent immune response - C) Kill the bacterium - D) Stimulate bacterial replication - Answer: C) Kill the bacterium 30. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are most useful against: - A) A specific bacterial species - B) A wide variety of organisms - C) Only gram-positive bacteria - D) Only fungi - Answer: B) A wide variety of organisms 31. Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis are least effective against: - A) Gram-positive bacteria - B) Mycoplasma - C) Fungi - D) Viruses - Answer: B) Mycoplasma 32. Which of the following drugs is a protein synthesis inhibitor? - A) Cephalosporin - B) Tetracycline - C) Ciprofloxacin - D) Rifampicin - Answer: B) Tetracycline 33. What is the main mechanism by which aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial growth? - A) Disrupt cell wall - B) Inhibit protein synthesis - C) Inhibit DNA synthesis - D) Inhibit cell membrane - Answer: B) Inhibit protein synthesis 34. Antibiotics that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis include: - A) Sulfonamides - B) Macrolides - C) Fluoroquinolones - D) Penicillins - Answer: C) Fluoroquinolones 35. What is the role of efflux pumps in antibiotic resistance? - A) Enhance drug absorption - B) Block drug entry - C) Export drugs out of the cell - D) Break down antibiotics - Answer: C) Export drugs out of the cell 36. Which class of drugs inhibits bacterial metabolic pathways? - A) Aminoglycosides - B) Sulfonamides - C) Penicillins - D) Polymyxins - Answer: B) Sulfonamides 37. What happens to bacterial cell walls when exposed to beta-lactams? - A) They strengthen - B) They lyse - C) They thicken - D) They repair faster - Answer: B) They lyse 38. Which of the following is NOT a target for antibiotic action? - A) Cell wall synthesis - B) Human cell DNA - C) Metabolic pathways - D) Protein synthesis - Answer: B) Human cell DNA 39. Which of the following inhibits folate synthesis? - A) Macrolides - B) Sulfonamides - C) Tetracyclines - D) Fluoroquinolones - Answer: B) Sulfonamides 41. What does a single-step mutation in bacteria often lead to? - A) High-level resistance - B) Low-level resistance - C) No resistance - D) Resistance in all species - Answer: A) High-level resistance 42. Which bacterial enzyme breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics? - A) Lactase - B) Cephalosporinase - C) Protease - D) Kinase - Answer: B) Cephalosporinase 43. Which of these is a synthetic antibiotic? - A) Benzylpenicillin - B) Ampicillin - C) Gentamicin - D) Moxifloxacin - Answer: D) Moxifloxacin 45. Vancomycin is primarily used to treat infections caused by: - A) Gram-negative bacteria - B) Gram-positive bacteria - C) Mycoplasma - D) Viruses - Answer: B) Gram-positive bacteria 46. Which antibiotic is known to cause a misreading of mRNA by altering the 30S ribosomal subunit? - A) Chloramphenicol - B) Streptomycin - C) Erythromycin - D) Ciprofloxacin - Answer: B) Streptomycin 47. Which of the following inhibits bacterial DNA replication? - A) Rifampicin - B) Ciprofloxacin - C) Clindamycin - D) Chloramphenicol - Answer: B) Ciprofloxacin 48. Plasmid-mediated resistance can lead to the transfer of genes via: - A) Binary fission - B) Mutation - C) Conjugation - D) Transformation - Answer: C) Conjugation 49. Resistance due to porin channel alteration affects the entry of which kind of drugs? - A) DNA synthesis inhibitors - B) Cell wall synthesis inhibitors - C) Cell membrane inhibitors - D) All drugs requiring entry into the cell - Answer: D) All drugs requiring entry into the cell 50. Which of the following drugs binds to the bacterial RNA polymerase? - A) Erythromycin - B) Rifampicin - C) Tetracycline - D) Streptomycin - Answer: B) Rifampicin  ‫تابع الى بنك محاضرات املد مو عبالكم بنك جديد‬ Anatomy of Bacteria 1. Which of the following is not an essential structure of a bacterial cell? - A) Cell wall - B) Capsule - C) Cytoplasm - D) Chromosome - Answer: B) Capsule 2. What is the main function of the bacterial cell wall? - A) Movement - B) DNA synthesis - C) Preventing osmotic lysis - D) Attachment - Answer: C) Preventing osmotic lysis 4. Which of the following bacteria is known to have a capsule? - A) Escherichia coli - B) Streptococcus pneumoniae - C) Vibrio cholerae - D) Salmonella - Answer: B) Streptococcus pneumoniae 6. Which structure is responsible for bacterial motility? - A) Capsule - B) Flagella - C) Pilus - D) Plasmid - Answer: B) Flagella 7. Bacteria with multiple flagella located at one or both poles are termed as: - A) Monotrichous - B) Lophotrichous - C) Amphitrichous - D) Peritrichous - Answer: B) Lophotrichous 8. Which bacteria have a single flagellum at each of two opposite ends? - A) Monotrichous - B) Lophotrichous - C) Amphitrichous - D) Peritrichous - Answer: C) Amphitrichous 9. Pili are mainly found in which type of bacteria? - A) Gram-positive - B) Gram-negative - C) Both A and B - D) Acid-fast - Answer: B) Gram-negative 10. Which bacterial structure allows DNA transfer between cells? - A) Flagella - B) Pilus - C) Capsule - D) Ribosome - Answer: B) Pilus 11. Peptidoglycan provides bacterial cells with:  - A) Energy - B) Rigidity and strength - C) Motility - D) Genetic material - Answer: B) Rigidity and strength 13. What component is found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria? - A) Teichoic acids - B) Lipopolysaccharides - C) Ribosomes - D) Chromosomes - Answer: B) Lipopolysaccharides 14. Gram-positive cell walls contain: - A) Outer membrane - B) Teichoic acids - C) Lipopolysaccharides - D) Flagella - Answer: B) Teichoic acids 15. The lipopolysaccharides in Gram-negative bacteria are responsible for: - A) Structural rigidity - B) Antibiotic resistance - C) Antigenic variation - D) Energy production - Answer: C) Antigenic variation 16. Which structure is selectively permeable, controlling the passage of molecules? - A) Cell wall - B) Cytoplasm - C) Plasma membrane - D) Capsule - Answer: C) Plasma membrane 17. Photosynthetic pigments in bacteria are located in: - A) Ribosomes - B) Chromatophores - C) Nucleus - D) Cell wall - Answer: B) Chromatophores 18. The term for directed movement in response to a stimulus is: - A) Chemotaxis - B) Phototaxis - C) Taxis - D) Thermotaxis - Answer: C) Taxis 19. What protein forms the pili in bacteria? - A) Flagellin - B) Fimbrin - C) Pilin - D) Myosin - Answer: C) Pilin 20. A polymer of N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid in bacteria is: - A) Lipopolysaccharide - B) Teichoic acid - C) Peptidoglycan - D) Lipoteichoic acid - Answer: C) Peptidoglycan 21. Which process in bacteria does not require energy? - A) Active transport - B) Passive transport - C) ATP production - D) DNA replication - Answer: B) Passive transport 22. Which bacteria is an example of peritrichous flagella arrangement? - A) Vibrio cholerae - B) Escherichia coli - C) Salmonella - D) Bacillus - Answer: B) Escherichia coli 23. Bacterial ribosomes are involved in: - A) DNA replication - B) Protein synthesis - C) ATP production - D) Cell division - Answer: B) Protein synthesis 24. The rigid structure that protects bacterial cells from osmotic lysis is: - A) Cell membrane - B) Capsule - C) Cell wall - D) Ribosome - Answer: C) Cell wall 26. Lipoteichoic acid is associated with: - A) Gram-positive bacteria - B) Gram-negative bacteria - C) Acid-fast bacteria - D) All bacteria - Answer: A) Gram-positive bacteria 27. The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains: - A) Peptidoglycan - B) Teichoic acid - C) Phospholipids - D) Chromosomes - Answer: C) Phospholipids 28. The genetic material of bacteria is usually: - A) Single-stranded DNA - B) Double-stranded DNA - C) RNA - D) Protein - Answer: B) Double-stranded DNA 29. What is the primary function of bacterial flagella? - A) DNA replication - B) Motility - C) Protein synthesis - D) Energy production - Answer: B) Motility 30. The bacterial cell membrane is primarily composed of: - A) Peptidoglycan - B) Phospholipids - C) Proteins - D) Lipopolysaccharides - Answer: B) Phospholipids 31. A slime layer is different from a capsule in that it is: - A) Firmly attached - B) Neatly organized - C) Easily washed off - D) Made of protein - Answer: C) Easily washed off 32. Which structure is used by bacteria for attachment to surfaces? - A) Flagella - B) Capsule - C) Pilus - D) Ribosome - Answer: C) Pilus 33. Which part of the cell wall provides Gram-negative bacteria with resistance to some antibiotics? - A) Peptidoglycan - B) Lipopolysaccharides - C) Teichoic acid - D) Ribosomes - Answer: B) Lipopolysaccharides 34. Teichoic acids in Gram-positive bacteria are linked to: - A) Lipopolysaccharides - B) Ribosomes - C) Peptidoglycan - D) Plasma membrane - Answer: C) Peptidoglycan 36. Which type of cell wall has a thick peptidoglycan layer? - A) Gram-positive - B) Gram-negative - C) Both A and B - D) Acid-fast - Answer: A) Gram-positive 37. The primary composition of bacterial fimbriae is: - A) Polysaccharide - B) Lipid - C) Protein - D) RNA - Answer: C) Protein 38. The term used for bacteria with a single flagellum at one pole is: - A) Monotrichous - B) Lophotrichous - C) Amphitrichous - D) Peritrichous - Answer: A) Monotrichous 39. Plasmids in bacteria are: - A) Essential for survival - B) Involved in protein synthesis - C) Circular DNA molecules - D) Components of the cell wall - Answer: C) Circular DNA molecules 40. Bacterial species names are always written in: - A) Uppercase - B) Lowercase - C) Italics or underlined - D) Bold - Answer: C) Italics or underlined  ‫كذلك تابع الى بنك محاضرات املد‬ Bacterial physiology 1. Microbial growth refers to an increase in: - A) Cell size - B) Number of cells - C) Nutrient intake - D) Cell complexity - Answer: B) Number of cells 2. Most medically important bacteria grow best at what temperature? - A) 0°C - B) 20-30°C - C) 37°C - D) 70°C  - Answer: C) 37°C 3. Psychrophiles are bacteria that thrive in: - A) Cold temperatures - B) Moderate temperatures - C) High temperatures - D) Saline environments - Answer: A) Cold temperatures 4. Which group of bacteria grows best between 20°C and 30°C and often causes food spoilage? - A) Mesophiles - B) Thermophiles - C) Hyperthermophiles - D) Psychrotrophs - Answer: D) Psychrotrophs 5. Mesophiles are bacteria that grow best at: - A) High temperatures - B) Moderate temperatures - C) Low temperatures - D) pH above 8.5 - Answer: B) Moderate temperatures 6. Thermophiles are bacteria that grow optimally between: - A) 0°C and 20°C - B) 20°C and 30°C - C) 45°C and 70°C - D) 70°C and 110°C - Answer: C) 45°C and 70°C 7. Bacteria that grow best at a pH range of 5 to 8 are termed: - A) Neutrophiles - B) Acidophiles - C) Alkaliphiles - D) Psychrophiles - Answer: A) Neutrophiles 8. Which type of bacteria grow best at a pH below 5.5? - A) Neutrophiles - B) Acidophiles - C) Alkaliphiles - D) Mesophiles - Answer: B) Acidophiles 9. Which bacteria thrive at pH levels above 8.5? - A) Neutrophiles - B) Acidophiles - C) Alkaliphiles - D) Psychrophiles - Answer: C) Alkaliphiles 10. Most bacteria require which type of osmotic environment for optimal growth? - A) Hypertonic - B) Hypotonic or isotonic - C) Alkaline - D) Acidic - Answer: B) Hypotonic or isotonic 11. Organisms that can grow in high salt concentrations up to 10% are called: - A) Halophiles - B) Osmotolerant - C) Neutrophiles - D) Thermophiles - Answer: B) Osmotolerant 12. Halophiles are organisms that: - A) Require high salt concentrations - B) Grow at high temperatures - C) Prefer low oxygen environments - D) Thrive in acidic conditions - Answer: A) Require high salt concentrations 13. Obligate aerobes are bacteria that: - A) Grow only in the absence of oxygen - B) Grow only in the presence of oxygen - C) Can grow with or without oxygen - D) Are killed by the presence of oxygen - Answer: B) Grow only in the presence of oxygen 14. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an example of a(n): - A) Obligate anaerobe - B) Facultative anaerobe - C) Obligate aerobe - D) Microaerophile - Answer: C) Obligate aerobe 15. Bacteria that grow with or without oxygen but prefer its presence are called: - A) Obligate aerobes - B) Facultative anaerobes - C) Obligate anaerobes - D) Microaerophiles - Answer: B) Facultative anaerobes 16. Obligate anaerobes are organisms that: - A) Grow only in the presence of oxygen - B) Grow only in the absence of oxygen - C) Are not affected by oxygen - D) Require high oxygen levels - Answer: B) Grow only in the absence of oxygen 17. Aerotolerant anaerobes: - A) Cannot grow in the presence of oxygen - B) Require oxygen but in low amounts - C) Do not use oxygen but can grow in its presence - D) Are inhibited by oxygen - Answer: C) Do not use oxygen but can grow in its presence 18. Microaerophiles require: - A) High oxygen concentrations - B) No oxygen - C) Low oxygen concentrations (2-10%) - D) Moderate temperatures - Answer: C) Low oxygen concentrations (2-10%) 19. Chemoheterotrophs use organic compounds as: - A) Carbon sources - B) Light sources - C) Salt sources - D) Nitrogen sources - Answer: A) Carbon sources 20. Autotrophs use which of the following as a carbon source? - A) Organic compounds - B) Glucose - C) CO₂ - D) Proteins - Answer: C) CO₂ 21. Photoautotrophs use which as an energy source? - A) Chemicals - B) Light - C) Organic compounds - D) Proteins - Answer: B) Light 22. Chemoautotrophs obtain energy from: - A) Light - B) Chemicals - C) Organic compounds - D) Amino acids - Answer: B) Chemicals 23. Nitrogen is essential in bacterial cells for the synthesis of: - A) Carbohydrates - B) Proteins - C) Lipids - D) Vitamins - Answer: B) Proteins 25. Phosphorus is required in bacterial cells for the formation of: - A) RNA and DNA - B) Proteins - C) Carbohydrates - D) Cell walls - Answer: A) RNA and DNA 26. Trace elements in bacteria act as: - A) Structural components - B) Enzyme cofactors - C) Carbon sources - D) Membrane components - Answer: B) Enzyme cofactors 27. Bacteria reproduce primarily by: - A) Mitosis - B) Budding - C) Binary fission - D) Conjugation - Answer: C) Binary fission 28. The phase of bacterial growth with no increase in cell number is the: - A) Lag phase - B) Log phase - C) Stationary phase - D) Death phase - Answer: A) Lag phase 29. During the log phase of bacterial growth, cells: - A) Die rapidly - B) Grow slowly - C) Grow exponentially - D) Remain constant in number - Answer: C) Grow exponentially 30. In which growth phase do bacteria become sensitive to adverse conditions? - A) Lag phase - B) Log phase - C) Stationary phase - D) Death phase - Answer: B) Log phase 31. Endospore formation typically occurs in which phase? - A) Lag phase - B) Log phase - C) Stationary phase - D) Death phase - Answer: C) Stationary phase 32. In the stationary phase, bacterial growth rate: - A) Equals the death rate -B) Exceeds the death rate - C) Drops to zero - D) Increases - Answer: A) Equals the death rate 33. The death phase is characterized by: - A) Exponential growth - B) Equal growth and death rates - C) Death rate exceeding growth rate - D) Formation of spores - Answer: C) Death rate exceeding growth rate 34. Bacteria that decompose proteins to obtain nitrogen are using: - A) Inorganic nitrogen sources - B) Nitrogen fixation - C) Organic nitrogen sources - D) Photosynthesis - Answer: C) Organic nitrogen sources 35. Ammonium ions (NH₄⁺) and nitrate ions (NO₃⁻) are sources of: - A) Phosphorus - B) Nitrogen - C) Sulfur - D) Carbon - Answer: B) Nitrogen 36. The term used for bacteria that use light as an energy source and organic compounds as a carbon source is: - A) Photoautotrophs - B) Chemoheterotrophs - C) Photoheterotrophs - D) Chemoautotrophs - Answer: C) Photoheterotrophs 37. Which microorganism group uses CO₂ as a carbon source and light as an energy source? - A) Chemoheterotrophs - B) Photoheterotrophs - C) Photoautotrophs - D) Chemoautotrophs - Answer: C) Photoautotrophs 38. The term for bacteria requiring very high salt concentrations is: - A) Halophiles - B) Osmotolerant - C) Acidophiles - D) Neutrophiles - Answer: A) Halophiles 39. A high level of metabolic activity without cell division occurs during which phase? - A) Log phase - B) Stationary phase - C) Death phase - D) Lag phase - Answer: D) Lag phase 40. Binary fission results in the formation of: - A) Four identical cells - B) Two identical cells - C) One cell - D) Multiple spores - Answer: B) Two identical cells  6/7/8/9 ‫بنك املحاضرات مابعد املد لدكتورة فاطمة والتي تشمل‬ 1. The name "Staphylococci" is derived from Greek words meaning: A. Chains of berries B. Bunch of grapes C. Spiral bacteria D. Groups of rods Answer: B 2. Which enzyme contributes to Staphylococcus aureus's resistance to phagocytosis? A. Coagulase B. Hyaluronidase C. Protein A D. Lipase Answer: A 3. What is the main role of leukocidin in Staphylococcus aureus? A. Clotting plasma B. Killing leukocytes C. Digesting fibrin D. Causing skin peeling Answer: B 4. Toxic shock syndrome in Staphylococcus aureus is caused by: A. Enterotoxins B. Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 C. Leukocidin D. Protein A Answer: B 5. Which selective medium is used for detecting nasal carriers of Staphylococcus aureus? A. MacConkey agar B. Mannitol salt agar C. Blood agar D. Nutrient agar Answer: B 6. On Mannitol salt agar, Staphylococcus aureus produces colonies that are: A. Yellow B. White C. Pink D. Transparent Answer: A 7. Staphylococcus epidermidis is most commonly associated with infections related to: A. Food poisoning B. Cannulas and catheters C. Skin wounds D. Respiratory tract Answer: B 8. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is coagulase-positive? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. All of the above Answer: A 9. Streptococci are arranged in: A. Clusters B. Chains C. Irregular patterns D. Pairs only Answer: B 10. All Streptococci are a) Non- motile b) Gram-positive c) Non-spore forming d) All of the above Answer: A 11. Which of the following is one of the important virulence factors of Streptococci? A. F protein B. Q protein C. L protein D. N protein Answer: A 12. Which of the following is one of the important virulence factors of Streptococci? A. M protein B. Q protein C. L protein D. N protein Answer: A 13. Which of the following is one of the important virulence factors of Streptococci? A. Capsule B. Q protein C. L protein D. N protein Answer: A 14. The green-brown discoloration on blood agar by alpha-hemolytic Streptococci is due to: A. Complete hemolysis B. Partial hemolysis C. Absence of hemolysis D. Beta hemolysis Answer: B 15. Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to which Lancefield group? A. Group A B. Group B C. Group C D. Group G Answer: A 16. Which of these is a significant virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. IgA1 protease B. Capsule C. Autolysin D. All of the above Answer: D 17. The ASO test is used to measure antibodies against: A. Streptolysin O B. Streptokinase C. DNase D. Fibrinolysin Answer: A 18. Acute glomerulonephritis Following a streptococcal skin infection is detected by the Measurement of : a) anti-streptolysin b) anti-RNA-ase B c) anti-DNA-ase B d) anti-DNA Answer: C 19. The next immune- mediated post-streptococcal throat infections: a) Cellulitis b) scarlet fever c) otitis media d) rheumatic fever answer: D 20. Which of the following infections is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes after skin or throat infections? A. Lobar pneumonia B. Glomerulonephritis C. Endocarditis D. Food poisoning Answer: B 21. Streptococcus pneumoniae is bile soluble, indicated by: A. Alpha hemolysis B. Clearing of turbidity C. Beta hemolysis D. No growth on bile Answer: B 22. What enzyme is associated with the pathogenicity of Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. DNase B. IgA1 protease C. Hyaluronidase D. Coagulase Answer: B 23. The capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae is crucial for: A. Energy B. Motility C. Antiphagocytic activity D. Beta hemolysis Answer: C 24. Quallung Reaction is used to detect: a) Cell wall b) Cell membrane c) DNA d) Capsule Answer: D 25. The Quellung reaction is used to identify: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus Answer: C 26. Capsule can be detected by: a) Quellung reaction b) Indole reaction c) Citrate reaction d) Acid-base reaction Answer: A 27. Which test differentiates between Staphylococci and Streptococci? A. Sucrose B. Lactose C. Coagulase D. Catalase Answer: D 28. Streptococcus species are typically: A. Catalase-positive B. Catalase-negative C. Coagulase-positive D. Lactose fermenting Answer: B 29. What is the optimal growth temperature for Staphylococcus aureus? A. 25°C B. 35-37°C C. 42°C D. 10-15°C Answer: B 30. Pustules and boils are typically caused by: A. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Enterococcus faecalis Answer: B 31. Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species? A. Catalase test B. Coagulase test C. Bile solubility test D. Hemolysis test Answer: B 32. Streptococcus pyogenes can be isolated using: A. Mannitol salt agar B. Blood agar with crystal violet C. Nutrient agar D. MacConkey agar Answer: B 33. The Lancefield classification is based on: A. Hemolysis patterns B. Cell wall A antigen C. Enzymatic activity D. Pigment production Answer: B 34. The presence of yellow colonies on Mannitol salt agar indicates: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus epidermidis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Enterococcus faecalis Answer: A 35. The Lancefield classification is based on: A. Capsule A antigen B. Cell wall A antigen C. Flagella A antigen D. Belli A antigen Answer: B 36. Clostridium species are: A. Gram-negative rods B. Gram-positive rods C. Gram-positive cocci D. Gram-negative cocci Answer: B 37. Clostridium species are primarily: A. Aerobic B. Facultatively anaerobic C. Anaerobic D. Microaerophilic Answer: C 38. Which disease is NOT caused by Clostridium species? A. Gas gangrene B. Tetanus C. Botulism D. Tuberculosis Answer: D 39. The drumstick appearance in Clostridium tetani is due to: A. Capsule formation B. Terminal spore formation C. Flagella arrangement D. Shape of vegetative cells Answer: B 40. Clostridium tetani produces a distinctive "drumstick" appearance due to: A. Capsule formation B. Flagella arrangement C. Terminal spore formation D. Its size Answer: C 41. The drumstick appearance of Terminal spore formation is found in: A. Clostridium B. Staphylococcus C. Bacillus D. Enterococcus Answer: A 42. Which organisim Grows well in cooked meat broth A. Bacillus B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Clostridium Answer: D 43. Which toxin is neurotoxic and essential for Clostridium tetani pathogenicity? A. Tetanolysin B. Tetanospasmin C. Enterotoxin D. Alpha toxin Answer: B 44. Clostridium tetani grows well on: A. MacConkey agar B. Nutrient agar C. Blood agar anaerobically D. Chocolate agar Answer: C 45. Gas gangrene is primarily caused by: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium sporogenes Answer: B 46. The Nagler reaction is used to identify: A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum D. Clostridium difficile Answer: B 47. Which of the following is the most potent toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum? A. Alpha toxin B. Beta toxin C. Botulinum toxin D. Tetanospasmin Answer: C 48. The most potent toxin produced by Clostridium species is: A. Tetanospasmin B. Alpha toxin C. Botulinum toxin D. Beta toxin Answer: C 49. The mechanism of botulinum toxin involves inhibition of: A. Glycine release B. Acetylcholine release C. Serotonin release D. GABA release Answer: B 50. Botulinum toxin acts by inhibiting the release of: A. Dopamine B. Acetylcholine C. Serotonin D. GABA Answer: B 51. Clostridium botulinum serotype associated with fish products is: A. Type A B. Type B C. Type E D. Type F Answer: C 52. Clostridium difficile causes: A. Tetanus B. Gas gangrene C. Pseudomembranous colitis D. Botulism Answer: C 53. Which Clostridium species is responsible for pseudomembranous colitis? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Clostridium difficile Answer: D 54. Clostridium tetani causes: A. Tetanus B. Gas gangrene C. Pseudomembranous colitis D. Botulism Answer: A 55. Which Clostridium species is responsible for tetanus? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Clostridium difficile Answer: B 56. The primary diagnostic method for tetanus involves: A. Gram staining B. Clinical symptoms C. Blood tests D. Biochemical assays Answer: B 57. Spores of Clostridium species are killed by: A. 1% iodine in water B. Alcohol C. Boiling water D. UV light Answer: A 58. The alpha toxin of Clostridium perfringens is: A. Neurotoxic B. Hemolytic C. Enterotoxic D. Proteolytic Answer: B 59. Which medium is commonly used to grow Clostridium perfringens? A. Mannitol salt agar B. Robertson's cooked meat medium C. Sabouraud agar D. Mueller-Hinton agar Answer: B 60. Which medium is best for isolating Clostridium species? A. Blood agar B. Chocolate agar C. Robertson’s cooked meat medium D. MacConkey agar Answer: C 61. Which Clostridium species is motile? A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum D. Clostridium difficile Answer: A 62. Botulinum toxin is sensitive to: A. Alcohol B. Dry heat C. 100°C heat for 15 minutes D. Low pH Answer: C 63. Spores of Clostridium botulinum are destroyed by heating at: A. 80°C for 15 minutes B. 100°C for 15 minutes C. 60°C for 30 minutes D. 70°C for 30 minutes Answer: B 64. Infant botulism can be caused by: A. Honey B. Rice C. Milk D. Vegetables Answer: A 65. Infant botulism is commonly linked to: A. Milk B. Meat products C. Honey D. Vegetables Answer: C 66. The primary treatment for botulism is: A. Antibiotics B. Antitoxin therapy C. Surgical debridement D. Antipyretics Answer: B 67. Cl. Perfringens produces lecithinase which is an example of: a) αToxin b) -toxin c) γ-toxin d) Enterotoxin Answer: A 68. Cl. Perfringens causes necrotic lesions by: a) αToxin b) -toxin c) γ-toxin d) Enterotoxin Answer: B 69. Cl. Perfringens causes food poisoning by: a) αToxin b) -toxin c) γ-toxin d) Enterotoxin Answer: D 70. Food poisoning caused by Clostridium perfringens involves: A. Alpha toxin B. Beta toxin C. Enterotoxin D. Tetanospasmin Answer: C 71. The most common symptom of gas gangrene is: A. depression B. Black tissue with foul smell C. Loss of appetite D. Constipation Answer: B 72. Floppy movements & Drooping eyelids are signs of: a) Gas gangrene b) Infant botulism c) Tetanus d) None of the above A. Answer: B 73. Bacillus anthracis is primarily a pathogen of: A. Humans B. Herbivores C. Birds D. Amphibians Answer: B 74. Bacillus anthracis spores are resistant to: A. Boiling water B. Dry heat C. Autoclaving D. UV light Answer: B 75. Cutaneous anthrax presents as: A. Painful black ulcers B. Painless black eschar C. Skin vesicles with pus D. Red, inflamed skin patches Answer: B 76. Cutaneous anthrax is identified by: A. Black eschar formation B. Muscle paralysis C. Foul-smelling tissue D. Severe diarrhea Answer: A 77. The edema factor in Bacillus anthracis toxin causes: A. Vascular collapse B. Edema formation C. Hemolysis D. Neurological symptoms Answer: B 78. The emetic type of food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus is associated with: A. Fried rice B. Meat products C. Dairy products D. Vegetables Answer: A 79. Bacillus cereus can cause: A. Pseudomembranous colitis B. Food poisoning C. Muscle paralysis D. Gas gangrene Answer: B 80. Bacillus species are typically: A. Gram-positive spore-forming rods B. Gram-negative cocci C. Gram-positive cocci D. Gram-negative spore-forming rods Answer: A 81. Colonies are flat or slightly convex with irregular edge and have a ground-glass appearance in transmitted light are found in: a) Bacillus cereus b) Bacillus anthracis c) Bacillus subtilis d) Clostridium tetani Answer: B 82. Which organism growth in gelatin stabs resembles an inverted fir tree A. Bacillus cereus B. Bacillus anthracis C. Bacillus subtilis D. Clostridium botulinum 83. The pathogen responsible for anthrax is: A. Bacillus cereus B. Bacillus anthracis C. Bacillus subtilis D. Clostridium botulinum Answer: B 84. Bacillus anthracis produces a characteristic appearance on: A. Chocolate agar B. Blood agar C. Gelatin stab culture D. Mannitol salt agar Answer: C 85. The protective antigen of Bacillus anthracis is involved in: A. Capsule formation B. Facilitating toxin entry into cells C. Hemolysis D. Spore germination Answer: B 86. Which Bacillus species is hemolytic on blood agar? A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Bacillus subtilis D. Bacillus thuringiensis Answer: B 87. The anthrax vaccine is made from: A. Live attenuated Bacillus anthracis B. A cell-free culture supernatant C. Inactivated spores D. Recombinant protein Answer: B 88. Bacillus cereus diarrhea is caused by: A. Emetic toxin B. Enterotoxin C. Neurotoxin D. Cytotoxin Answer: B 89. The incubation period for Bacillus cereus emetic food poisoning is: A. 1-5 hours B. 5-10 hours C. 10-24 hours D. 24-48 hours Answer: A 90. The incubation period for emetic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus is: A. 1–5 hours B. 5–10 hours C. 1–24 hours D. 24–48 hours Answer: C 91. Anthrax toxin genes are encoded on: A. Chromosome B. Plasmid pXO1 C. Plasmid pXO2 D. Mitochondrial DNA Answer: B 92. Which form of anthrax is most common in humans? A. Inhalation anthrax B. Gastrointestinal anthrax C. Cutaneous anthrax D. Systemic anthrax Answer: C 93. The causative agent of wool sorter's disease is: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Bacillus anthracis C. Bacillus cereus D. Bacillus subtilis Answer: B 94. Inhalation anthrax is also known as: A. Wool sorters’ disease B. Farmers’ lung C. Gas gangrene D. Foodborne anthrax Answer: A 95. Bacillus species are typically found in: A. Soil and water B. Animal intestines C. Airborne particles D. Decaying vegetation Answer: A 96. Which component is antiphagocytic in Bacillus anthracis? A. Edema factor B. Lethal factor C. Poly-D-glutamic acid capsule D. Spore coat Answer: C 97. Which toxin is NOT produced by Bacillus anthracis? A. Lethal factor B. Edema factor C. Enterotoxin D. Protective antigen Answer: C 98. The major virulence factor of Bacillus anthracis is its: A. Spore formation B. Neurotoxins C. Poly-D-glutamic acid capsule D. Lecithinase activity Answer: C 99. The enterotoxin of Bacillus cereus affects: A. CNS B. GI tract C. Respiratory system D. Cardiovascular system Answer: B 100. Bacillus anthracis spores infect humans through all routes EXCEPT: A. Inhalation B. Ingestion C. Skin wounds D. Direct blood injection Answer: D 101. Which of the following bacteria is not part of the Enterobacteriaceae family? A. Escherichia coli B) Yersinia C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Klebsiella Answer: C) Staphylococcus aureus 102. Which of the following genera is NOT a lactose fermenter? A. Escherichia B) Klebsiella C) Salmonella D) Enterobacter Answer: C) Salmonella 103. The family Enterobacteriaceae is also known as: A. Lactobacilli B) Enterics C) Bacilli D) Spirochetes Answer: B) Enterics 104. All of the following bacteria are motile, except ……….? A. Citrobacter B) Escherichia coli C) Serratia D) Klebsiella Answer: D) Klebsiella 105. All of the following bacteria are motile, except ……….? A. Citrobacter B) Escherichia coli C) Serratia D) Shigella Answer: D) Shigella 106. All of the following bacteria are motile, except ……….? A. Citrobacter B) Escherichia coli C) Yersinia D) Serratia Answer: C) Yersinia 107. Which of the following is an example of rare strains of pathogenic of E. coli? A. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) B) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) C) Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) D) Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC) Answer: D) Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC) 108. Which of the following is an example of rare strains of pathogenic of E. coli? A) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) B) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) C) Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) D) Enteroaggregative Escherichia coli (EAEC). Answer: D) Enteroaggregative Escherichia coli (EAEC). 109. What is the common result of the indole test for Escherichia coli? A. No red ring B) Red ring C) Yellow ring D) Blue ring Answer: B) Red ring 110. Which of the following bacteria is known for causing nosocomial infections? A. Klebsiella B) Proteus C) Yersinia D) Salmonella Answer: A) Klebsiella Which of the following tests gives a positive result for Klebsiella? B. Voges-Proskauer test B) Methyl Red test C) Citrate test D) Both A & C Answer: D) Both A &C  111. Which of the following tests gives a negative for Klebsiella? A) Voges-Proskauer test B) Methyl Red test C) Indole test D) Both B & C Answer: D) Both B & C 112. The causative agent of enteric fever is: A. Klebsiella B) Yersinia C) Salmonella D) Shigella Answer: C) Salmonella 113. The O antigen in Salmonella refers to: A. Flagellar antigen B) Surface antigen C) Capsular antigen D) Somatic antigen Answer: D) Somatic antigen 114. Which of the following covers O antigen and acts as virulence factor, protects the bacilli against phagocytosis A) Flagellar antigen B) Surface antigen C) Capsular antigen D) Somatic antigen Answer: B) Surface antigen 115. What is the primary test for identifying Salmonella in clinical specimens? A) Gram stain B) Catalase test C) Widal test D) Indole test Answer: C) Widal test 116. The biochemical test used to identify Salmonella in the lab is: A) Gram stain B) Widal test C) Catalase test D) Oxidase test Answer: B) Widal test 117. Which of the following tests is used to determine the presence of the H antigen in Salmonella? A) Citrate test B) Indole test C) Widal test D) Voges-Proskauer test Answer: C) Widal test 118. Which of the following bacteria is known to cause neonatal meningitis? A. Klebsiella B) Enterobacter C) Escherichia coli D) Salmonella Answer: C) Escherichia coli 119. Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with neonatal meningitis? A) Klebsiella B) Proteus C) Salmonella D) Escherichia coli Answer: D) Escherichia coli 120. Which bacterial species is identified by the presence of a mucoid appearance on MacConkey agar? A. Yersinia B) Escherichia coli C) Klebsiella D) Salmonella Answer: C) Klebsiella 121. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Klebsiella on MacConkey agar? A) Green colonies B) Pink colonies C) Yellow colonies D) No colonies Answer: B) Pink colonies 122. Which of the following bacteria has a prominent polysaccharide capsule? A. Proteus B) Salmonella C) Yersinia D) Klebsiella Answer: D) Klebsiella 123. The pathogenicity of Klebsiella is mostly attributed to: A) Sopre B) Flagella C) Capsule D) Exotoxins Answer: C) Capsule 124. The causative agent of typhoid fever is: A_)Enterococcus B) Escherichia coli C) Shigella D) Salmonella Typhi Answer: D) Salmonella Typhi 125. Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor for E. coli? A. Endotoxins B) Exotoxins C) Adhesins D) Capsule Answer: D) Capsule 126. Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor for E. coli? A) Endotoxins B) Exotoxins C) Adhesins D) Vi surface antigen Answer: D) Capsule 127. Which of the following bacteria is known for producing red pigmented colonies on agar? A. Serratia marcescens B) Klebsiella pneumoniae C) Escherichia coli D) Salmonella enterica Answer: A) Serratia marcescens 128. Which bacteria produces red pigment on agar? A) Salmonella B) Klebsiella C) Serratia D) Citrobacter Answer: C) Serratia 129. Which of the following capsulated bacteria produces a positive Voges- Proskauer test? A. E. coli B) Proteus C) Klebsiella D) Salmonella Answer: C) Klebsiella 130. The presence of the Vi antigen in Salmonella provides: A. Antibiotic resistance B) Protection against phagocytosis C) Fermentation of lactose D) Capsule formation Answer: B) Protection against phagocytosis 131. 22. Which of the following bacteria is oxidase-negative? A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella C) Shigella D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above 132. 24. Which of the following bacteria is associated with wound infections, septicemia, and endocarditis? A) Serratia marcescens B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Proteus mirabilis D) Morganella morganii Answer: A) Serratia marcescens 133. The IMViC tests are used to differentiate between which of the following bacteria? A) Salmonella and Yersinia B) Klebsiella and E. coli C) Shigella and Salmonella D) Serratia and Salmonella Answer: B) Klebsiella and E. coli 134. Which of the following organisms is classified under the family Morganellaceae? A) Proteus B) Salmonella C) Enterobacter D) Yersinia Answer: A) Proteus 135. Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between Lactose fermenters and non-fermenters? A) Sucrose fermentation test B) Glucose fermentation test C) MacConkey agar test D) Urease test Answer: C) MacConkey agar test 136. Which bacterial species is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium difficile C) Salmonella D) All of the above Answer: C) Salmonella 137. 31. Which of the following bacteria is not motile? A) Klebsiella B) Salmonella C) Yersinia D) Escherichia coli Answer: A) Klebsiella 138. 32. Which of the following bacteria is known for causing gastroenteritis and urinary tract infections? A) Yersinia B) Klebsiella C) Escherichia coli D) Proteus Answer: C) Escherichia coli 139. 34. What is the main antigenic structure of Salmonella? A) Spore B) Endotoxin C) H antigens D) Exotoxin Answer: C) H antigens 140. What is the main antigenic structure of Salmonella? A) Spore B) Endotoxin C) O antigens D) Exotoxin Answer: C) O antigens 141. What is the main antigenic structure of Salmonella? A) Spore B) Endotoxin C) Somatic antigens D) Exotoxin Answer: A) Somatic antigens 142. Peritrichous flagella is found in: a) S. gallinarum b) S. pullorum c) S. Typhi d) Klebsiella Answer: C) S. Typhi  143. Which of the following is a characteristic of Salmonella that differentiates it from other enteric bacteria? A) Lactose fermenter B) Non-motile C) Vi antigen D) Indole positive Answer: C) Vi antigen 144. What color does Klebsiella produce on Simmons’ citrate agar? A) Green B) Blue C) Red D) Pink Answer: B) Blue 145. Which of the following bacteria can cause soft tissue infections? A) Yersinia B) Klebsiella C) Salmonella D) Shigella Answer: B) Klebsiella 146. What is the substrate used in the urease test? A) Citrate B) Urea C) Lactose D) Glucose Answer: B) Urea ‫نتمنى لكم دوام التوفيق والنجاح‬ (𝒔𝒆𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒅 𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒈𝒆)‫صيـدالنـيـون‬ By : ‫حسني حميد الخاقاني‬