Blood Physiology Tests PDF

BLOOD PHYSIOLOGY 1. The system of coordinated reactions that provides a maintenance of constant conditions in the internal environment is called… 1. hemopoiesis 2. homeostasis 3. hemostasis 4. hemolysis 5. hematocrit 2. What blood...

BLOOD PHYSIOLOGY 1. The system of coordinated reactions that provides a maintenance of constant conditions in the internal environment is called… 1. hemopoiesis 2. homeostasis 3. hemostasis 4. hemolysis 5. hematocrit 2. What blood function is due to the presence of antibodies and phagocytic activity of white blood cells? 1. defense function 2. trophical function 3. transporting function 4. respiratory function 3. Respiratory function of blood is provided by 1. heparin 2. plasma 3. hemoglobin 4. prothrombine 4. During the autoregulation of body function the blood act as… 1. a nervous link 2. a receptor link 3. a paracrinous link 4. a humoral link 5. G.F.Lang in 1939 introduced the conception of blood system that includes… 1. peripheral blood, blood formation and destruction organs 2. peripheral blood, blood formation and destruction organs, humoral regulation 3. peripheral blood, blood formation and destruction organs, neurohumoral regulation 6. The total blood volume in adult man, relatively to the body mass, is 1. 40-50% 2. 55-60% 3. 2-4% 4. 6-8% 5. 15-17% 7. Erythron is the… 1. peripheral blood, blood formation and destruction organs 2. erythrocytes of peripheral blood and neurohumoral regulation 3. erythrocytes of peripheral blood, erythrocytes formation and destruction organs, neurohumoral regulation 4. erythrocytes of peripheral blood and erythrocytes formation organs 8. Hematocrit ratio characterizes… 1. the hemostasis system 2. the volume ratio of blood formed elements and plasma  3. the quantitative ratio of blood formed elements 4. the blood formed elements and serum ratio 9. What is the greatest possible hematocrit ratio in patients listed below? 1. 100 % 2. 120 % 3. 0 % 4. 60 % 5. 50 % 10. What is the plasma volume, if total blood volume is 5L and hematocrit ratio is 40%? 1) 4 L 2) 2 L 3) 3 L 4) 2,5 L 5) 5 L 11. What is average blood volume per 1 kg of body weight in males? 1) 77 mL/kg 2) 65 mL/kg 3) 90 mL/kg 4) 30 mL/kg 12. What is average blood volume per 1 kg of body weight in females? 1) 65 mL/kg 2) 77 mL/kg 3) 90 mL/kg 4) 30 mL/kg 13. How much blood of the total blood volume is in depot at rest state? 1) 45-50% 2) 55-60% 3) 20-25% 4) 0-5% 14. What is the total amount of protein in blood plasma? 1) 37-45 g/L 2) 120-140 g/L 3) 40-60 g/L 4) 60-82 g/L 15. What is the oncotic pressure change if the albumin level falls without the changes in total blood protein content? 1. increase 2. no changes 3. decrease 4. increase or decrease is possible 16. The oncotic pressure in the blood is generated by different protein fractions, mainly by 1. α –globulins 2. albumins  3. fibrinogen 4. -globulins 17. The greatest differences between blood plasma and interstitial fluid are in content of … 1) Na+ 2) К+ 3) proteins 4) aminoacids 18. The buffering protein properties provide 1. the maintenance of osmotic pressure 2. the decrease in blood hydrogen ion concentration 3. the blood metabolism 4. the constant blood hydrogen ion concentration 19. Which pressure is created by the blood plasma proteins? 1. osmotic 2. hydrostatic 3. oncotic 4. hemodynamic 20. What is the normal electrophoretic distribution of the blood protein fractions: albumin, 1-globulin, 2-globulin, -globulin, -globulin and fibrinogen? 1) 67,2% - 3,9% - 7,5% - 12,1% - 7,3 % - 2,0% 2) 49,2% - 3,9% - 7,5% - 22,1% - 15,3 % - 2,0% 3) 57,2% - 3,9% - 7,5% - 12,1% - 17,3 % - 2,0% 4) 3,9% - 7,5% - 12,1% - 17,3 -59,2 % - 12,0% 5) 57,2- 3,9% - 7,5% - 12,1% - 7,3 % - 12,0% 21. What are the main groups of solutions for blood replacement currently used in a medical practice? 1. hemodynamical solutions, disintoxicants, trophical solutions 2. albumins, solved glucose, physiological solutions 3. platelet mass, RBC syspension 4. albumins, hemodynamical solutions, disintoxicants, trophical solutions 22. Which plasma protein provides iron transport? 1. albumin 2. transferrin 3. haptoglobin 4. transcobalamine II 5. none of the listed above 23. Which protein provides vitamin B12 transport? 1. albumin 2. transferrin 3. transcobalamine II 4. haptoglobin 5. none of the listed above 24. What is the blood plasma osmotic pressure?  1. 4.7 atm 2. 8.5 atm 3. 2.7 atm 4. 7.0 atm 5. 7.6 atm 25. Which of the substances listed below is physiological solution? 1) 0,95 % NaCl 2) 3% NaCl; 3) 0,9 % NaCl; 0,042 % KCl; 0,024 % CaCl; 0,015 % NaHCO3; 0,1 % глюкозы 4) 0,1 % глюкозы 5) 0,65 % NaCl; 0,042 % KCl; 0,024 % CaCl; 0,015 % NaHCO3; 0,5 % глюкозы 26. Which solution for intravenous injection will not change the blood plasma osmotic pressure? 1. glucose (0.9%) 2. NaCl (0.9%) 3. NaCl (0.2%) 4. CaCl2 (20%) 27. What anion prevails in the interstitial fluid quantitatively? 1. chloride 2. bicarbonate 3. phosphate 4. sulfate 28. Destruction of the red blood membrane and hemoglobin outflow into the plasma induced by different factors is known as 1. plasmolysis 2. hemolysis 3. fibrinolysis 4. hemostasis 5. homeostasis 29. The chemical hemolysis results from… 1 red blood cell swelling 2 strong mechanical effect 3 exposure to low or high temperature 4 action of substances which destroy the erythrocyte membrane 5 incompatible blood transfusion, snake poisons, effects of immunic hemolysins 30. The biological hemolysis results from… 1 red blood cell swelling 2 strong mechanical effect 3 exposure to low or high temperature 4 incompatible blood transfusion, snake poisons, effects of immunic hemolysins 31. What experiment with the blood results in generation of specific light red colour solution (laky blood)? 1. determination of RBC concentration 2. osmotic hemolysis 3. determination of blood coagulation 4. determination of WBC concentration 32. What happens with erythrocytes by placing them in a solution with a concentration of 0,09% NaCl? 1 partial hemolysis 2 swelling 3 complete hemolysis 4 consolidation and shrinkage 33. Which kind of fluid is blood? 1 non-Newtonian fluid 2 plastic fluid 3 aberrant fluid 4 Newtonian fluid 34. Farheus-Lindqvist effect – it is … 1 reducing the viscosity of the blood in large vessels 2 constriction of capillaries when blood viscosity is increased 3 reducing the viscosity of the blood in small vessels (about 100 mkm) 4 increase in the viscosity of the blood in small vessels (about 100 mkm) 35. Which phenomenon is described by the hemorheological Newton’s law? 1. Farheus-Lindqvist effect 2. young RBC generation 3. friction force during the movement of fluid 4. all answers are correct 36. Which of the following is not directly related to red blood cell deformability? 1 intraerythrocyte convection 2 non-Newtonian blood properties 3 red blood cell elimination from vessels 4 active transport 5 red blood cell membrane rotation 37. Price-Jones curve reflects the… 1 red blood cell fraction in total blood volume 2 blood formed elements distribution by their thickness 3 red blood cell distribution by size 4 blood oxygen-binding properties 38. For which gas iron of hemoglobin has a greater affinity? 1 oxygen 2 carbon dioxide (CO2) 3 nitrogen 4 carbon monoxide (CO)  5 nitrogen monoxide 39. What is the maintenance of the red blood cell shape as a biconcave disc provided by? 1. HbA2 2. actin 3. carbon dioxide 4. HbA1 40. What is the normal red blood cell count in peripheral blood of men? 1. 2.0 - 3.0 *1012/L 2. 7.0 - 8.0 *1012/L 3. 4.0 - 5.0 *1012/L 4. 4.0 - 5.0 *109/L 41. What is the normal red blood cell count in peripheral blood of women? 1. 2.0 - 3.0 *1012/L 2. 3.9 - 4.7 *1013/L 3. 3.9 - 4.7 *1012/L 4. 4.0 - 5.0 *1013/L 42. Chose the red blood cell of normal shape from the cells listed below: 1. acanthocyte 2. stomatocyte 3. meniscocyte 4. discocyte 5. macrocyte 6. microcyte 43. Shape of red blood cells as biconcave disks comparing with a spherical shape provides… 1. erythrocyte deformability 2. larger membrane surface area 3. blood oxygen transport 4. biological hemolysis 5. elastic properties 44. What is the electric charge of the red blood cell membrane? 1 negative 2 positive 3 unstable 4 neutral 45. What is the aggregation of red blood cells? 1 erythrocytes agglutination and sedimentation 2 reversible clumping of erythrocytes 3 process of young erythrocyte formation 4 irreversible clumping of erythrocytes 46. The criterion of erythropoietic activity is the increased blood content of 1. megakaryocytes 2. oxyphilic erythroblasts 3. basophilic erythroblasts  4. reticulocytes 47. Erythropoiesis is stimulated by… 1. higher hemopoietic factor production by the stromal cells of bone marrow 2. hypoxia 3. augmented secretory activity in interstitial renal cells 4. higher blood oxygen content 48. What is the renal response to oxygen deficiency? 1. dramatic fall of erythropoietin release 2. no response 3. increased erythropoietin release 4. kidneys are not related to erythropoiesis regulation 5. all answers are correct 49. Which solution is used for blood dilution in Goriajev’s counting chamber for erythrocyte count? 1. 0.1 N HCl 2. distilled water 3. 3% sodium chloride 4. 5% acetic acid + methylene blue 50. Which solution is used for determination of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? 1. 5% sodium citrate 2. isotonic solution 3. 0.1 N HCl 4. 5% glucose 51. What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) change after the accumulation of high-molecular-weight proteins (globulins, fibrinogen) in plasma? 1. decrease 2. no changes 3. dramatic decrease 4. increase 5. high-molecular-weight proteins do not affect the ESR 52. Red blood cells can normally have the following hemoglobin compounds except 1. HbA2 2. HbF 3. HbА1 4. HbM 5. MetHb 53. Carboxyhemoglobin – it is… 1 hemoglobin compound with СО2 2 hemoglobin compound with Н2СО3 3 hemoglobin compound with СО 4 hemoglobin compound with CaCO3 54. What is the physiological significance of hemoglobin presence in red blood cell rather than in plasma? 1. decrease of blood viscosity 2. decrease of oncotic pressure 3. prevention of hemoglobin renal loss 4. all answers are correct 5. increase of blood oxygen capacity 55. What is the colour index if hemoglobin concentration is 150 g/L, and red blood cell count is 4,5 *1012 cells/L? 1. colour index = 1.5 - hyperchromia 2. colour index = 0.3 – hypochromia 3. colour index = 1.0 – normochromia 4. colour index = 3.0 - hyperchromia 56. What is the blood hemoglobin concentration in healthy women? 1. 160 - 180 g/L 2. 170 - 200 g/L 3. 120 - 140 g/L 4. 100 - 110 g/L 57. The colour index of blood reflects the … 1. total hemoglobin amount in the blood 2. hemolysed red blood cell content 3. red blood cell amount in 1 L of blood 4. relative hemoglobin saturation of red blood cells 58. Erythropoiesis 1. all answers are correct 2. mostly occurs in thymus 3. provides the transferring synthesis 4. mostly occurs in red bone marrow 59. Daily erythropoiesis is … 1 (3.2 – 4.7) * 1012/L 2 (0.05 – 0.08) * 1012/L 3 (0.01– 0.02) * 102/L 4 (0,05 - 0,08) * 106/L 60. What is the blood hemoglobin concentration in healthy men? 1. 170 - 200 g/L 2. 130 - 160 g/L 3. 100 - 110 g/L 4. 90 - 100 g/L 61. In the elderly people of both sexes erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) have value … 1 2-20 mm/h 2 5-10 mm/h 3 5-15 mm/h 4 no particular differences 62. What is the blood oxygen capacity, if its hemoglobin concentration is 100 g/L?  1. 100 mL/L 2. 268 mL/L 3. 134 mL/L 4. 50 mL/L 63. Which from blood parameters of a healthy 25-year-old woman (Hb - 105 g/L; ESR - 5 mm/h; RBC - 3.0*109/L; platelets - 200*109/L; WBC - 4.2*10 9/L; hematocrit - 40%) is/are abnormal? 1. white blood cells 2. platelets 3. hemoglobin, red blood cells 4. hematocrit 5. erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 64. The conversion of reticulocyte into mature red blood cell after blood vessels entering is … 1 50-70 hours 2 50-70 days 3 5 days 4 1 hour 65. Hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha (HIF-1- alpha) activates the formation of … 1 erythropietin 2 urokinase 3 plasminogen 4 thromboxane 66. People living at high altitudes above sea level, have an increased red blood cells number because of 1 inhibitory effect of hypoxia on the bone marrow 2 increased tissue oxygen demand 3 inhibitory effect of hypoxia on the red blood cells destruction in the spleen 4 increased formation of erythropoietin in the kidney under the influence of hypoxia 67. What is the white blood cell count in healthy human blood? 1. 10.0 – 12.0 *109/L 2. 4.0 – 9.0 * 109/L 3. 2.0 – 3.0 * 109/L 4. 20.0 – 25.0 *109/L 68. The percentage ratio between the different white blood cell types is known as… 1. colour index 2. hematocrit 3. leucocyte formula 4. leucocytosis 69. What is the change in leucocyte amount after food consumption, muscular work, during the pregnancy or on deep emotions? 1. decrease  2. no changes 3. increase 70. Which of the listed below is incorrectly indicated as physiological leukocytosis? 1 thermal 2 miogenic 3 dietary 4 emotional 5 ovulatory 71. The average time of basophils presence in the bloodstream is … 1 up to 24 hours 2 up to 12 hours 3 up to 10 days 4 up to 3 days 72. What percentage of neutrophils circulate in blood vessels from their total amount in the body? 1 about 1% 2 about 10% 3 about 5% 4 about 50% 73. Phagocytosis – it is … 1 process of engulfing a solid particle by a phagocyte 2 process of solid particle emission from a phagocyte 3 process of programmed cell death 4 process of outward passage of leukocytes through intact vessel walls 74. Diapedesis – it is… 1 process of outward passage of leukocytes through intact vessel walls 2 process of solid particle emission from a phagocyte 3 process of programmed cell death 4 process of engulfing a solid particle by a phagocyte 75. In healthy human blood the monocyte percentage relative to the total white blood cells amount is… 1. 20 - 30% 2. 50 - 75% 3. 10 - 18% 4. 3 - 11% 76. In healthy human blood the basophil percentage relative to the total white blood cells amount is… 1. 3 - 5% 2. 0 - 1% 3. 10 - 12% 4. 20 - 25% 77. In healthy human blood the eosinophil percentage relative to the total white blood cells amount is… 1. 10 - 12% 2. 25 - 30% 3. 0.5 - 5% 4. 40 - 45% 78. In healthy human blood the lymphocyte percentage relatively to the total white blood cells amount is… 1. 0.5 - 1% 2. 60 - 70% 3. 75 - 85% 4. 19 - 37% 79. Parasitary infection is usually associated with … 1. basophilia 2. eosinophilia 3. monocytosis 4. thrombocytosis 80. The increased number of white blood cells in peripheral blood is known as 1. leucocytosis 2. leucopoiesis 3. leucopenia 4. thrombocytosis 81. Which cells form histamine after their stimulation (e.g., by binding antigen to cell-surface IgE)? 1 neutrophiles 2 eosinophiles 3 basophiles 4 monocytes 5 lymphocytes 82. White blood cells do not perform one of the functions listed below: 1. participation in phagocytosis 2. participation in collagen and elastin synthesis 3. active migration 4. migration along the chemical gradients 5. participation in humoral and cellular immunity 83. What is the cell that develops itself into macrophage after its exit from vascular bed to surrounding tissues? 1. eosinophil 2. basophil 3. T-lymphocyte 4. monocyte 5. B-lymphocyte 84. Which blood cells have active histaminase? 1. basophils 2. monocytes  3. eosinophils 4. red blood cells 5. B-lymphocytes 85. Interleukin-1 promote the secretion of hemopoietic growth factors in the cells listed below, except 1. endothelial cells 2. T-lymphocytes 3. macrophages 4. fibroblasts 5. red blood cells 86. Cytokinins are the… 1. proteins produced by cells and functioning as intercellular mediators during the immune response (for example, interleukins) 2. family of membraneous proteins serving as the receptors for protein molecules of extracellular matrix (for example, fibronectin, laminine) 3. Ca-binding proteins of cytoplasmic membrane 4. cytolysins found in the granules of T-lymphocytes 87. In healthy human blood the neutrophil percentage relative to the total white blood cells amount is… 1. 40-65% 2. 47-72% 3. 5-10% 4. 10-20% 88. Which solution is used for blood dilution in Goriajev’s counting chamber for Leukocyte count? 1. distilled water 2. 0.9% sodium chloride + methylene blue 3. 0.1 N HCl 4. 5% acetic acid + methylene blue 89. Neutrophils mostly provide the… 1 production of specific antibody 2 heparin transport 3 phagocytosis of the microorganisms 4 lymphocyte activation 90. Eosinophil function is… 1 carbon dioxide and oxygen transport 2 osmotic pressure maintenance 3 antibody production 4 disintoxication in case of allergic reactions 91. Lymphocyte function is… 1 phagocytosis and normal process of the reparative phase of inflammation 2 bactericide effect 3 antigen recognition and immunoglobulin (antibody) production 4 participation in blood pH maintenance 92. Apoptosis is the... 1 process of regulation of blood cell physiological properties 2 physiological process of protein synthesis suppression 3 physiological process of hemostasis maintenance in the body 4 physiological process of programmed cellular death 93. During the ‘respiratory burst’ the neutrophils generate… 1 СО , N2О2, ONOO- 2 О2, Rх, H2O 3 СО2, СО2 , N2N2 4 О2-, ONOO-, H2O2, OH- 94. The following substances take part in cellular adhesion processes: 1. hemoglobin 2. haptoglobulin 3. interferon 4. integrins, selectins 95. White blood cell (WBC) count in peripheral blood of adult man is 15.0 * 109/L. Compare this quantity with a normal value and name this state. 1. WBC content is subnormal - leucopenia 2. WBC content is normal - normopenia 3. WBC content is supranormal – leucocytosis 4. WBC content is supranormal - leucopenia 96. What abnormal findings does this leucogram (leucocyte formula) reveal: total white blood cells - 5.0*109 cells/L; eosinophils - 3%; basophils - 1%; stab neutrophils - 4%; polymorphonuclear neutrophils - 56%; lymphocytes - 30%; monocytes - 6%? 1. high total WBC count 2. all findings are normal 3. low stab neutrophils count 4. high eosinophil count 97. What abnormal findings does this leucogram (leucocyte formula) reveal: total white blood cells - 8.5*109 cells/L; eosinophils - 2%; stab neutrophils - 3%, polymorphonuclear neutrophils - 47%; basophils -1%; lymphocytes - 20%; monocytes - 27%? 1. relative monocytosis 2. eosinophilia 3. basophilia 4. lymphopenia 98. Which type of leucocytes is usually in the first line of defense against the bacterial infection? 1. eosinophils 2. basophils 3. macrophages 4. neutrophils 5. lymphocytes 99. Respiratory acidosis usually develops during…  1. activated breathing 2. disturbance of renal function 3. suppressed breathing 100. What is the platelet count in healthy human blood? 1. 140 – 150 *108/L 2. 100 – 120 *109/L 3. 90 – 100 *108/L 4. 180 – 320 *109/L 101. Platelet aggregation factor is … 1. the family of membraneous proteins serving as receptors for protein molecules of extracellular matrix (for example, fibronectin, laminine) 2. the substance that is released from mast cells and activates the platelet aggregation 3. a peptide that stimulates the intestinal secretion 4. α –globulin of platelets 102. What is the effect of aspirin (acetylsalicic acid) on the platelets? 1. impairment of platelet aggregation 2. decrease in platelet amount 3. control of bleeding duration 4. shortening of platelet lifetime 103. Nitric monoxide (NO) induces 1. red blood cell aggregation 2. platelet aggregation 3. inhibition of platelet aggregation 4. red blood cell deformation 104. Prostacyclin induces the 1. inhibition of platelet aggregation 2. platelet aggregation 3. red blood cell deformation 4. red blood cell aggregation 105. Platelets do not perform one of the functions listed below: 1. angiotrophic 2. hemostatic 3. aggregative 4. "scavenger" of the body 106. Integrins are the… 1. proteins produced by cells and functioning as intercellular mediators during the immune response (for example, interleukins) 2. protein family of epithelial cell intermediate filaments 3. family of membraneous proteins functioning as the receptors for protein molecules of extracellular matrix (for example, fibronectin, laminine) 4. enzymes that transfer various chemical groups 107. What is a complement? 1. immunoglobulin  2. the system of chemotactic substances 3. mast cell secretion 4. cytolytic complex formed by plasma proteins 108. Starling’s theory describes 1. active transport processes in capillaries 2. the processes of transcapillary fluid exchange 3. a lymph production in capillaries and arterioles 4. reabsorptive processes in arterial part of capillary 5. all answers are correct 109. Fluid exchange at the capillary level is determined by the following factors… 1. insterstitial hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure of plasma and insterstitial fluid 2. hydrostatic pressure in capillaries and oncotic pressure of plasma and interstitial fluid 3. hydrostatic pressure in capillaries and insterstitial fluid, oncotic pressure of plasma and interstitial fluid 110. What is the approximate daily body lymph production amount? 1. 1L 2. 2L 3. 5L 4. about 6% of body weight 111. What is the difference between lymph and plasma composition? 1. higher protein concentration 2. different phospholipid concentration 3. lower protein concentration 4. higher formed element concentration 112. Estimate the acid-base balance in the following sample of venous blood: рН = 7.392; pCО2 = 47 mm Hg; SBE = 3.4 mM. 1. acidosis 2. alkalosis 3. normal acid-base balance 4. phagocytosis 113. Estimate the acid-base balance in the following sample of venous blood: рН = 7.254; pCO2 = 47 mm Hg; SBE = -5.6 mM. 1. alkalosis 2. phagocytosis 3. normal acid-base balance 4. acidosis 114. Estimate the acid-base balance in the following sample of venous blood: рН = 7.559; pCO2 = 47 mm Hg; SBE= -2.5 mM 1. phagocytosis 2. alkalosis 3. normal acid-base balance 4. acidosis 115. What factors are involved in the maintenance of acid-base balance in blood plasma? 1. osmotic pressure 2. buffer systems 3. ions and nutrients 4. all answers are correct 116. Respiratory alkalosis usually develops during the… 1. activation of breathing 2. suppression of breathing 3. renal function disorder 4. hepatic function disorder 117. The most powerful buffer blood system is … 1. bicarbonate (CO2/H2CO3/HCO3-) 2. phosphate (H2PO4-/HPO42-) 3. hemoglobin 4. plasma proteins 118. What is wrong in the following platelet description? 1. platelets contain the polypeptide growth factor that activates the proliferation of various cells in body tissues 2. platelets are generated in spleen 3. platelets take part in the blood clot formation 4. the platelet precursor is large and has giant polyploid nucleus 5. thrombopoietin is the stimulator for platelet generation 119. Hemostatic system provides the 1. maintenance of blood fluidity 2. blood coagulation inside the vessels 3. maintenance of blood fluidity and blood coagulation after the vascular damage 4. retraction of the fibrinous thromb 120. Which of the following is not directly related to endothelium participation in hemostasis system? 1. presence of negative charges 2. ability to produce NO and prostacyclin 3. lipoprotein metabolism 4. presence of mucopolysaccharides covering the endothelial cells 5. von Willebrand factor generation 6. presence of a hydrodynamically effective endothelial surface layer 121. The following ions are necessary for all blood coagulation phases: 1. sodium 2. potassium 3. calcium 4. fluoride 122. What factor provides the conversion of soluble polymerized fibrin into the insoluble fibrin? 1. II - prothrombin  2. VII – convertin 3. XIII – fibrin-stabilizing factor in the presence of Ca2+ (IV factor) 4. XI – antihemophylic globulin C 123. Plasmin is… 1. the dry residue of plasma 2. a plasma protein 3. the protease that activates the fibrin production 4. the fibrin-cleaving protease 124. Blood coagulation is accelerated if it contains the higher levels of… 1. glucose 2. adrenaline 3. insulin 4. sodium ions 125. The following substance is converted from soluble to insoluble state during the blood coagulation … 1. fibrinogen 2. antihemophilic globulin A 3. prothrombin 4. tissue thromboplastin 126. The substances that prevent blood coagulation (clotting) are known as 1. coagulants 2. coagulation factors 3. anticoagulants 4. hemostatins 127. What is the correct sequence of the vascular-platelet hemostasis? 1. reflectory spasm of the damaged vessel platelet aggregation platelet adgesion thrombus retraction 2. reflectory spasm of the damaged vessel thrombus retraction platelet adhesion platelet aggregation 3. reflectory spasm of the damaged vessel platelet adhesion platelet aggregation platelet retraction 128. What is the correct sequence of the coagulation hemostasis: 1. prothrombinase formation conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin thrombin generation 2. prothrombinase formation thrombin generation conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin 3. conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin thrombin generation prothrombinase formation 129. What is the correct sequence of the fibrinolytic processes: 1. conversion of plasminogen into plasmin fibrin cleavage to peptides and amino acids generation of blood plasminogen activator 2. fibrin cleavage to peptides and amino acids generation of blood plasminogen activator conversion of plasminogen into plasmin  3. generation of blood plasminogen activator conversion of plasminogen into plasmin fibrin cleavage to peptides and amino acids 130. Urokinase… 1. inhibits plasminogen 2. is a coagulant 3. activates plasminogen 4. activates hemolysis 131. Where is prothrombin generated? 1. in the red bone marrow 2. in red blood cells 3. in the liver 4. all answers are correct 132. The primary anticoagulants, in contrast to secondary ones: 1. are generated only after the proteolysis activation 2. are activated by thrombine 3. are continuously generated in the body, independently of the blood coagulation 4. are sometimes generated in the body according to the blood coagulation 133. Afterphase of blood coagulation includes… 1. platelet adhesion and aggregation 2. prothrombinase generation 3. thrombin production 4. retraction and fibrinolysis 5. fibrin formation 134. The first phase of the coagulation hemostasis includes… 1. platelet adhesion and aggregation 2. fibrin formation 3. prothrombinase generation 4. retraction and fibrinolysis 5. thrombin production 135. The result of the second coagulation hemostasis phase is… 1. platelet adhesion and aggregation 2. prothrombinase generation 3. retraction and fibrinolysis 4. fibrin formation 5. thrombin production 136. The result of the third coagulation hemostasis phase is… 1. platelet adhesion and aggregation 2. fibrin formation 3. prothrombinase generation 4. thrombin production 5. retraction and fibrinolysis 137. Primary natural anticoagulants include the following substances:  1. heparin, dicoumarine, warfarin 2. antithrombin I 3. hirudin 4. antithrombins III and IV, heparin 138. Which anticoagulant is produced by basophils and mast cells and inhibits all blood coagulation phases? 1. retractozym 2. plasmin 3. urokinase 4. heparin 5. tripsine 139. What is the difference between serum and plasma? 1. serum does not contain red blood cells 2. serum contains antibodies 3. serum contains complement 4. serum does not contain fibrinogen 140. What will happen to the duration of blood coagulation if blood plasma Ca2+level decreases? 1. blood coagulation elongates 2. blood coagulation shortens 3. duration will remain unchanged 4. Са2+ does not affect the duration of blood coagulation 141. Alpha 1-Antitrypsin – it is … 1. primary anticoagulant, inhibiting thrombin, kallikrin and other coagulation factors 2. secondary anticoagulant, inhibiting thrombin, kallikrin and other coagulation factors 3. product of arachidonic acid metabolism, which causes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction 4. potent activator of platelet aggregation 142. ADP (adenosine diphosphate) – it is … 1. potent activator of platelet aggregation 2. potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation 3. product of arachidonic acid metabolism, which causes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction 4. primary anticoagulant, inhibiting thrombin, kallikrin and other coagulation factors 143. Clot retraction – it is … 1. shrinking of a blood clot dependent on release of multiple coagulation factors from platelets trapped in the fibrin mesh of the clot 2. expanding of a blood clot dependent on release of multiple coagulation factors from platelets trapped in the fibrin mesh of the clot  3. process of outward passage of leukocytes through intact vessel walls 4. process of coagulation hemostasis iniciation 144. Thromboxane – it is … 1. product of arachidonic acid metabolism, which causes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction 2. product of arachidonic acid metabolism, which causes platelet aggregation and vasodilation 3. primary anticoagulant, inhibiting thrombin, kallikrin and other coagulation factors 4. potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation 145. Von Willebrand factor – it is … 1. large multimeric glycoprotein present in blood plasma, endothelial cells, platelet granules, promoting platelet adhesion to wound sites 2. product of arachidonic acid metabolism, which causes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction 3. primary anticoagulant, inhibiting thrombin, kallikrin and other coagulation factors 4. potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation 146. Whole blood coagulation (clotting) time in a healthy person by the method of Lee-White in non-silicone test tube at 37 C is … 1. 5-8 min 2. 1-3 min 3. 10-15 min 4. до 20 min 147. Agglutinins are the component of … 1. red blood cells 2. plasma 3. white blood cells 4. platelets 148. Agglutininogens are the components of… 1. plasma 2. white blood cell nuclei 3. platelets 4. red blood cell membranes 149. Man with blood group А (Rh+) can be a donor for humans with blood group… 1. А, Rh- 2. 0, Rh+ 3. В, Rh+; 4. А, Rh+ 150. What combination of agglutininogens and agglutinins corresponds to the blood group I? 1. AB and O 2. B and α  3. O and α, β 4. A and β 151. Man with blood group I can be transfused blood of 1. any group 2. group IV 3. group I 4. group II 152. The plasma of man with blood group III contains the agglutinin(s) 1. β 2. α 3. α, β 4. neither α nor β 153. The red blood cells of man with blood group IV contain the agglutininogen(s) 1. А 2. В 3. 0 4. АВ 154. What is the blood group if combination of patient’s blood sample with different standard serums resulted in agglutination with neither of them? 1. blood group II(A) 2. blood group I (0) 3. blood group III (B) 4. blood group IV (AB) 155. What is the blood group if combination of patient’s blood sample with different standard serums resulted in agglutination with serums of I and III groups? 1. blood group I(0) 2. blood group III (B) 3. blood group IV (AB) 4. blood group II (A) 156. What is the blood group if combination of patient’s blood sample with different standard serums resulted in agglutination with serums of I and II groups? 1. blood group I(0) 2. blood group III (B) 3. blood group II (A) 4. blood group IV (AB) 157. What is the blood group if combination of patient’s blood sample with different standard serums resulted in agglutination with serums of I, II and III groups? 1. blood group I(0) 2. blood group II (A) 3. blood group III (B) 4. blood group IV (AB) 158. Which from the following combinations of erythrocyte agglutinogens and plasma agglutinins is intolerable in human AB0 system?  1. B and 2. 0 and 3. B and 4. AB and 0 159. Which from the following combinations of human erythrocyte agglutinogens and plasma agglutinins is intolerable in AB0 system? 1. 0 and 2. AB and 0 3. A and 4. B and 160. What is the blood group of human AB0 system, if red blood cells contain agglutinogen A and plasma contains agglutinin ? 1. blood group I 2. blood group II 3. blood group III 4. blood group IV 161. What is the blood group if red cells contain agglutinogen B and plasma contains agglutinin ? 1. blood group II 2. blood group III 3. blood group I 4. blood group IV 162. Rhesus antigen is the component of… 1. plasma 2. red blood cell membranes 3. white blood cell nuclei 4. platelet membranes 163. Which combination can result in the rhesus conflict? 1. mother - Rh+; father – Rh+; fetus – Rh- 2. mother - Rh-; father - Rh+; fetus – Rh- 3. mother – Rh+; father – Rh-; fetus – Rh- 4. mother - Rh-; father - Rh+; fetus - Rh+ 164. What is the blood rhesus factor, if combination of blood test sample with standard anti-rhesus serum and control serum resulted in presence and absence of agglutination, respectively? 1. rhesus-positive blood 2. such agglutination pattern during Rh-factor determination is impossible 3. rhesus-negative blood 165. What is the mechanism of hemotransfusion shock development? 1. release of coagulation factors from destroyed red blood cells 2. intravascular blood coagulation 3. all answers are correct 4. occlusion of the microcirculatory bed  5. destruction of aggregated red blood cells 6. impairment of oxygen delivery to organs and tissues 166. What are normal range of arterial blood hydrogen ions activity (pH)? 1. 7.0 – 7.5 2. 7.37 – 7.45 3. 7.25 – 7.85 4. 7.9 – 8.0 167. What are normal range of venous blood hydrogen ions activity (pH)? 1. 7.0 – 7.5 2. 7.34 – 7.43 3. 7.25 – 7.85 4. 7.9 – 8.0 168. What is the viscosity of the blood? 1. 1,7 cP (centipoises) 2. 7,6 atm 3. 5,0 cP (centipoises) 4. 3 g/cm3 169. What is the viscosity of the plasma? 1. 1,7 cP (centipoises) 2. 2,5 mmHg 3. 5,0 cP (centipoises) 4. 3 g/cm3 170. Patient with blood group А (II) can receive a transfusion of blood: 1 only A (II) group 2 A (II) and O (I) groups 3 B (III) and A(II) groups 4 only AB (IV) group