Biopath 1 Complete Questions PDF

b. CD4/CD25! c. CD8/CD20 d. Fc epsilon receptor e. CXCR4 In most common x-linked SCID is due to lack of: a. BTK b. PNP c. ADA d. ZAP-70 e. Common-gamma chain? HLA alleles HLA-A*02 01 and HLA-A 02 02 differ because of: a. Non-synonymous polymorphism(s) that determine the serotype b. Non-synonymous polymorphism(s) of the coding region! c. Synonymous polymorphism(s) of the coding regions d. Non-synonymous polymorphism(s) of the non- coding regions e. Synonymous polymorphism(s) of the non- coding regions Pathology 2. One of the first signs of cell injury is: Na/K ATPase impairment 3. Which one is the main consequence of anaerobic glycolysis: lactate accumulation 4. One of the first cell sign of a mild hypoxic injury is: swelling 5. Protease activation is triggered by: cytosolic calcium increase 6. Which cell type produces large amounts of ROS: phagocytes 7. Autophagy: is used to degrade unwanted cell components 8. The DNA Damage Response allows cells to: repair DNA damage 9. Which of the following enzymes is not involved in phase I biotransformations: UDP glucuronyl-transferase 10. Steatosis consists in an intracellular accumulation of: triglycerides 11. Pneumoconiosis are lung accumulation of: all of the previous 12. Hemosiderosis is a condition reflecting: Iron accumulation 13. Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease is a condition associated to: Obesity 14. Extrinsic Apoptosis pathway is not triggered by: IGF1 15. Bcl-2 family proteins are: all of the previous 16. The apoptosome is composed by: cytochrome c and Apaf-1 17. Which of the following tumors was responsible for the highest rates of death around 1930: 18. Which of the following best defines an oncogene: an oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutated gene that gives a cell a growth or a survival advantage 19. Which of the following types of protein could be coded by a tumor-suppressor gene: a protein that controls progression through the cell cycle 20. Which property of p53 enables it to prevent the development of cancer: p53 prevents the replication of cells with damaged DNA 21. Which of the following genes is NOT mutated in colorectal cancer: Rb 22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer stem cell: the inability to undergo symmetric divisions 23. Which of the following features best characterizes a malignant rather than a benign tumor: undergo metastasis 24. Which of the following sentences is not correct: 25. Which of the following cell types does NOT favor tumor progression: M1 macrophages 26. Which of the following gene alterations is not directly targetable by current cancer therapy: p53 mutation in colorectal cancer 27. Which of the following cancer types has a very high number of non- synonymous mutations: 28. Which of the following breast tumors has the worst prognosis: Basal-like breast cancer 29. Which of the following statements referred to chimeric antigen receptor engineered T cells is NOT correct: New generation Chimeric Antigen receptors does not contain CD3 beta chain 30. Which of the following statements referring to active tumor immunotherapy is not correct: 31. Which of the following statement is not correct according to recist criteria: progressive disease occurs when there is at least a 30% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions. 32. Which cell among the following express both Class I and Class II HLA molecules: Dendritic cells 33. Which statement about Th cells is correct: Interaction with distinct TLRs on APCs results in the priming of T cells towards distinct phenotypes 34. Which statement about the pathogenesis of autoimmune disease is CORRECT: Self reactive Th cells are always involved but are directly responsible of the damage only in organ-specific cell-mediated diseases 35. The pathogenesis of systemic autoimmune diseases: is due to type III hypersensitivity 36. Which live attenuated vaccine is administered orally: polio 37. HIV POL encodes for: the reverse transcriptase 38. HLA-DRB1*03:01 is: a genotypic denomination for an allele of beta chain of DR 39. The long term non progressors are: subjects that did not develop AIDS within 20 years after infection by HIV without any antiretroviral therapy 40. Which of the following is associated with secondary immunodeficiency: treatment with cytotoxic drugs 41. The B7 molecules on APC provide a co-stimulatory signal to T cells by ligatingÇ CD28 42. Regulatory t cells express: CD4, CD25, FOXP3 43. Which of the following is the mechanism of generation antibody diversity after antigenic stimulation: somatic hypermutation 44. Somatic recombination occurs: In the progenitor cell as it is becoming a T cell 45. What is the difference between Th1 and Th2 cells: Th1 cells help cell- mediated immunity and Th2 cells help humoral immunity 46. Which one of the following is associated with the development of hereditary angioedema: low levels of the complement regulator C1 inhibitor 47. A 43 year old woman has had a chronic cough with fever and weight loss for the pass month. A chest radiograph reveals multiple nodules from 1 cm to 4cm in size, some of which demonstrate cavitation in upper lobes. A sputum sample reveals the presence of acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells is the most important in the development of her lung lesions: macrophage 48. Which of the following is not a systemic effect of acute inflammation: increased blood pressure 49. Expression of which of the following substances on endothelial cells is the most instrumental in promoting this inflammatory reaction (red, swollen, tender; neutrophils migrate to the area): ? 50. Which of the following is NOT an auto-inflammatory disease: Rheumatoid athritis 51. A 37 year old man has had nausea and vomiting for 5 weeks. He experienced an episode of hematemesis yesterday. On physical examination he has no abnormal findings. Upper GI endoscopy is performed, and there is a 1.5 cm diameter lesion is the gastric antrum with loss of epithelial surface: ulcer 52. Within minutes following a bee sting, 37 year old man develops marked respiratory stridor with dyspnea and wheezing. He also develops swelling and erythema seen in his arms and legs. An injection of epinephrine helps to reverse these events and he recovers within mins. Which of the following chemical mediators is most important in the pathogenesis of the condition: histamine 53. Which of the following does not contribute to fluid exudation from the intracellular compartment during acute inflammation: increased capillary colloid osmotic pressure 54. Aspirin has its greatest effect in diminishing the acute inflammatory process of: 55. Leukocytic emigration during an inflammatory response occurs primarily from: VENULES 56. A 72 year old man develops gram negative bacterial peritonitis resulting from colonic diverticulitis. The ensuing fever, macrophage activation and B cell mitogenicity are mediated by induction of host cytokines including TNF and IL-1. Which bacterial product activates these events: lipopolysaccharide 57. A patient is being treated for tuberculosis. Caseating pulmonary granulomas were seen on microscopic examination of lung biopsy. What is the usual outcome of a pulmonary granuloma after treatment: scarring and calcification 58. Which one of the following factors plays the most important role in chemotaxis: complement C5a 59. Which of the following is a direct consequence of macrophage activation: release of tumor necrosis factor and IL-1 1. A suppurative exudate contains necrotic debris in addition to neutrophils. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the necrosis: Release of bacterial toxins 2. Features shared by both primary and secondary intention include which of the following: all of the above 3. In which of the leukocyte recruitment steps towards the site of the inflammation CD31 molecule is involved: diapedesis 4. A patient developing a scar following a hand lesion due to firework explosion ask you whether his skin will eventually be strong enough to not give him any problem in thefuture. You tell him the following except: Because scars are made of collagen, the wound will regain the original if not more tensile strength. 5. A patients WBC count displays a shift to left: There is an increased number of immature neutrophils. 6. Which of the following cell types is involved in dermographism: neutrophils 7. Which of the following features is not present in pyroptosis: 8. Inflammasomes are involved in the following activities except: TLR activation 9. Negative acute proteins include all the following except: haptoglobin 10. Which of the following cell types is a typical component of inflammatory infiltrate caused by worms: eosinophil 11. An 8 year old boy cuts his hand on a piece of glass. Two days later there is an open sore surrounded by swelling. His forearm is tender with red streaks extending towards the axilla. What is the most likely diagnosis: lymphangitis 12. A patient is being treated for tuberculosis. Caseating pulmonary granulomas were seen on microscopic examination of a lung biopsy. What is the usual outcome of a pulmonary granuloma after treatment: scarring and calcification 13. A 59 year old man suffers a massive heart attack and expires 24 hours later. Histologic examination of the affected heart muscle at autopsy would show an abundance of: neutrophils 14. Genetic tests reveal a defect leading to absence of beta two integrin. Which of the following defects of neutrophil function is most likely responsible for the increased susceptibility to infections in this child: normal rolling but inadequate adhesion to cytokine activated endothelial cells 15. Platelet derived growth factor is best known for: activating fibroblasts in wound healing 16. Which of the following is not a malignant tumor: osteoma 1) Which of the following apoptosis mechanisms is a “survival signal”? a) FAS-FASL b) CD95-FADD c) TNF-TRAF d) TNF-TRADD e) Perforin-Granzyme Answer – C. TNF-TRAF. It is TNF but the corresponding receptor does not have DD domain. It will initiate a different kind of cascade signalling which will result in survival. 2) The “apoptosome” complex is made of: a) cytC-caspase b) Bim-Bcl-2 c) Bax-Bcl-XI d) AIF-Bcl-2 e) CytC-Apaf Answer – E. The apoptosome is a comples between cytC and APAF. After it has formed the apoptosome complex will then bind to caspase and then activate caspase-9. 3) In apoptosis which of the following proteins are due to gene transcription? a) Caspases b) cytC c) Apaf d) Bim e) Bcl-2 Answer – D. BIM is the one that increase becoming higher than Bcl-2. It allows the pore to open and thus allowing apoptosis to take place. The rest are constitutive caspases and constitutive enzymes in the form of pro-caspases. cytC belongs to the mitochondria. APAF is present always alongside Bcl-2 to maintain the closure of the pore. When BIM is present then and fluctuates then the pore opens, and apoptosis can occur. 4) Which of the following processes is not considered “irreversible damage”? a) Necrosis Apoptosis is a programmed and controlled form of cell death that b) Apoptosis does not typically lead to inflammation or cause irreversible damage to neighboring cells. In contrast, necrosis (option a), anoikis (option c) Anoikis c), hemosiderosis (option d), and pyroptosis (option e) are d) Hemosiderosis associated with different forms of cell damage or death that may be e) Pyroptosis irreversible tissues. and can have detrimental effects on surrounding 5) “Steatosis is the intracellular deposition of: a) Cholesterol b) Phospholipids c) Lipofuscins d) Triglycerides (confirmed graded) e) All of the Previous 6) Hemosiderosis is a condition reflecting: a) Lipid deposition b) Iron Accumulation c) Copper storage d) Old blood cell deposit e) Accumulation of iron-binding proteins 7) “Intrinsic” apoptosis is not triggered by: a) Hypoxia b) Pro-Caspase-8 Activation c) Respiratory chain inhibitors d) DNA damage e) PTP opening 8) Which of the following are resistant to “Anoikis”? a) Epithelial cells b) Anchorage-dependent cells c) Metastatic carcinomas d) Adenomas e) Endothelial cells 9) The DNA Damage Response (DDR) allows cells to: a) Induce Apoptosis b) To repair DNA damage (confirmed graded) c) To become carcinogenic d) To become senescent e) To proceed in the cell cycle 10) Which of the following conditions is not classified as “pneumoconiosis”? a) Asbestosis b) Berylliosis c) Silicosis d) Anthracnosis e) Hemochromatosis 11) Steatosis consists in of an intracellular accumulation of: a) Cholesterol b) Cholesterol esters c) Apolipoproteins d) Triglycerides e) All of the previous 12) Pyroptosis is a programmed cell death induced by: a) A chemical irritant b) A radiation injury c) A bacterial infection d) Different microorganisms e) None of the previous 13) “Pyroptosis” is a PCD (programmed cell death) which does not involve: a) Caspase-8 activation b) Infected cells c) Caspase-1 activation d) Cytokines maturation e) Cytokines release 14) Which intracellular signal is triggered by “DNA damage”? a) Bim-Bax b) Caspase-8 activation c) P53 d) P53-Phosphorylation e) Bim-Bcl-2 15) “Extrinsic Apoptosis” pathway is not triggered by: a) TNF alpha b) CD95 c) FAS d) Perforin e) IGF-1 16) Bcl-2 family proteins are: a) Pro-apoptotic b) Anti-proptotic c) PTP pore regulation d) All of the previous e) None of the previous 17) Which is the fate of “apoptotic bodies”? a) Phagocytosis by neighboring cells b) Autolytic enzyme degradation c) Picnosis d) Autophagy e) None of the previous 18) Which of the following cells produces large amounts of ROS (reactive oxygen species)? a) Lymphocytes b) Endothelial cells c) Phagocytes (confirmed graded) d) Dendritic cells e) NK cells 19) Steatosis may not occur in: a) Myocardium b) Kidney c) Adipose tissue d) Liver e) Muscle 20) How do we describe “Mitochondrial Dysfunction” in aging? a) Damage to mDNA b) Intrinsic ROS production c) Lack of mDDR d) Metabolic Stress e) Impaired mitochondriogenesis Answer – E. All the others are connected, and somehow included in definition of mitochondriogenesis: Damage to Mdna (A), intrinsic ROS production (B), lack of mDDR (C) and metabolic stress (D) are the cause and impaired mitochondriogenesis (E) is the effect. That’s why E is the right answer. 21) Bronchial Squamous Metaplasia can appear in: a) Aged people b) Adult exposed to asbestos c) Tobacco Smokers d) People living at high altitude e) None of the previous 22) Autophagy a) Degrades unwanted cell components b) Is a part of the process of protein synthesis c) Is necessary for the differentiation process d) Is associated with aging e) Is a peculiarity of hepatocytes 23) Muscle hypertrophy depends on the following stimuli, except: a) Exercise b) NF-Kb c) Nutrients d) IGF-1 e) Akt-Mtor 24) Which of the following is not a cause of steatosis? a) Diet b) Alcohol c) Hypoxia d) Malnutrition e) Caloric Restriction 25) Dysplasia involves the following features, except: a) Change in differentiation b) Incomplete differentiation c) Increased nucleolus/cytoplasmic ratio d) Cell heterogeneity e) Deranged tissue architecture 26) Which of the following enzymes is not involved in phase 1 bio-transformations? a) Alcohol dehydrogenase b) Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase c) CYP450 d) UDP glucuronyl-transferase e) All of the previous 27) Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) is a condition associated with: a) Fasting b) Obesity c) Anorexia d) Childhood e) Hypoxia 28) To make a differential diagnosis between Asbestosis and Silicosis we should consider: a) Lung Fibrosis b) Shortness of breath c) Honeycomb lung d) Pleural complications e) None of the previous 29) Progeroid syndromes are generally characterised by: a) Inactive teleromase gene b) Decreased antioxidant capacity c) Impaired IGF-1 signalling d) Impaired DDR or nuclear network e) All of the previous In progeroid syndromes either there is a mutation of a DNA damage response (like ligase for ataxia telangiectasia) or there is a defect in the nuclear network. 30) Knock out P66 increases in mice lifespan by: schick a) Transcription of telemerase b) Potentiation of DDR c) Increasing antioxidant capacity d) All of the previous e) None of the previous Answer – C. P66schick is a gerontogene, it is involved in aging. P66shick knock out mice live longer, and their increased lifespan was associated with stronger SOD (super oxide dismutase) and antioxidant system. 31) A drug is converted by CYP450 into a toxic metabolite. Its accumulation induces lipid peroxidation and other kinds of injury. The depletion of which of the following cell components can aggravate the situation? a) ADP b) Calcium c) Glutathione d) NAPDH oxidase e) NO-synthase 32) Anoikis is a programmed cell death due to: a) Lack of nutrients b) Presence of toxic agents c) Loss of cell-matrix interaction d) All of the previous e) None of the previous 33) Among the following cells, which one probably displays higher Telomerase activity? a) Endothelial cells b) Germinal cells c) Neurons d) Neutrophils e) Erythrocytes 34) p53 protein function is regulated by: a) Mdm-2 b) DNA-k c) Phosphorylation reaction d) All of the previous e) None of the previous 35) Which molecules are involved in A-beta peptide deposition? a) Beta-secretase b) Gamma-secretase c) Psen1-Psen2 d) Apo-e e) All of the previous Answer – E. Alpha beta (A-beta or B) amyloid is formed because this protein, which normally is transmembrane protein in the extracellular domain, is degraded by some enzymes, Alfa, Beta or Gamma Sectretase: usually Alpha Secretase is active and there is the extracellular portion that is not at risk of becoming B amyloid; instead, when it is cut by Beta or Gamma secretase, they form the B amyloid, a 42 amino acid peptide. 36) Which of the following is the Alzheimer disease amyloid precursor? a) SAA b) Beta-microglobulin c) APP d) IG light chains e) Prealbumin (TTR) Answer – C. Amyloid protein precursor; Saa is produced by the liver, it is similar to C Reactive Protein, which is a consequence of chronic inflammation. B microglobulin is also related to the liver, Ig light chain is related to multiple myeloma. Prealbumine (TTR) is again associated with the liver. 37) Following a car accident, a young man undergoes surgery to remove an injured portion of the left lobe of the liver. After several weeks a CT scan of the abdomen reveals that the liver is about the normal size. Which of the following processes is going on? a) Steatosis b) Dysplasia c) Hyperplasia d) Hypertrophy e) Metaplasia 38) A 10-year-old child has always been overweight due to a very uncontrolled eating habit. He is also lazy with sports, preferring to entertain himself with the PlayStation and other PC based games. What kind of health risk does he face if he continues to behave like this? a) Liver steatosis b) Hypertension c) Steatonecrosis d) Insulin Resistance e) All of the previous 39) In one cell line a “knock-out” mutation produces a cell culture characterised by decreased cell volume, increased blebbing and decreased survival, when compared to the wild type cell line. Which gene has been mutated? a) BAX b) Bcl-2 c) cMYC d) FAS 40) One of the first signs of cell injury is: a) Loss of membrane integrity b) Decrease protein synthesis c) NA/K ATPase impairment d) Loss of DNA integrity e) Decreased phagocytosis 41) Which of the following “Amyloids” are classified as, secondary generalised? a) Alzheimer disease b) Multiple myeloma c) Rheumatoid Arthritis d) Familial amyloidotic neuropathies e) Mediterranean fever Answer – C. Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as secondary generalised. It is a chronic inflammation as a result of antibody deposition. Multiple Myeloma (B) is classified as primary generalised. It is a proliferation of B cells which produce many small pieces of IG light chains which can cause amyloidosis deposition. They are deposited in kidney and liver. Diagnosis involves checking for their presence in the plasma or urine. Familial Amyloidotic Neuropathies and Mediterranean Fever are classified as primary generalised. They are genetic disease. 42) Protease activation is triggered by: a) Cytosolic calcium increase b) Activation of Na/K ATPase c) DNA damage d) Cyclic AMP signalling e) Activation of phosphates 43) In Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal death develops by the following steps (in the correct order of events) a) A-beta aggregation in neurofibrillar deposit (tangle) b) Aggregation of A-beta into diffusible plaque c) Tau-positive dystrophic neurites (Neuritic Plaques) d) Conformation changes in A-beat soluble oligomers e) Synaptic and neuronal degeneration Order is D-A-B-C-E 44) Bcl-2 protein is: a) Pro-apoptotic b) Anti-apoptotic c) PTP pore regulators d) All of the previous e) None of the previous 45) Which is the main consequence of anaerobic glycolysis? a) Decreased ATP production b) Glucose fasting c) Lactate accumulation (confirmed graded) d) Gluconeogenesis stimulation e) IGF stimulation 46) Hemochromatosis is a: a) Acquired disease due to iron overload b) Genetic disease due to increased iron absorption c) Genetic disease due to increase iron storage d) Acquired disease due to increase iron storage e) Accumulation of iron binding proteins 47) Asbestosis leads to lung fibrosis, which may evolve into: a) Mesothelioma b) Non-small cell lung cancer c) Small cell lung cancer d) None of the previous e) All of the previous 48) A 50-year-old man experienced a thoracic pain 6 hours before his death. A section of the left ventricular myocardium shows an area that is strongly eosinophilic, has a loss of nuclei and myocardial stria. No haemorrhaging or inflammation are detected. What happened? a) Viral infection b) Thoracic Trauma c) Anti-nuclei antibodies d) Coronary artery thrombosis e) Dietary protein imbalance Answer – D. The tissue suffered of ischemia due to the thrombosis, resulting in myocardial infarction. 49) A 78-year-old man, in the last 4 months, shows worsening dyspnea, without cough or sputum. He is apyretic. A CT scan shows a pleuric dense and brilliant mass at the right, which surrounds most of the left lung. Which of the following could be responsible for this disease? a) Silica b) Asbestos c) Cotton fibers d) Carbon dust e) Ozone 50) A 63-year-old man has worsening dyspnea, in the last 10 years. He has also lost 5 kgs in the last 2 years. He has a chronic cough without pain and catarrh (sputum). He does not have a fever and he is normotensive. Which of the following contaminants could be the cause of this disease? a) Silica b) Tobacco smoke c) Ozone d) Wood dust e) Carbon Dust 51) Which of the following is not considered a cell adaptation? a) Hypoplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Aplasia d) Neoplasia e) Metaplasia 52) Which of the following processes is not considered a cell degeneration? a) Glycogenosis b) Steatosis c) Shingolipidoses d) Apoptosis e) Asbestosis Q) Why is it not Asbestosis? A) Asbestosis is a degenerative process. When we talk of degenerative process we refer to cells and tissues. Asbestosis is a degeneration of tissue. Diseases can be classified as inflammatory diseases, tumour diseases, or degenerative disease. Cirrhosis is an example of a degenerative disease. 53) Which of the following processes is not considered as irreversible damage? a) Necrosis b) Apoptosis c) Anoikis d) Hemosiderosis e) Pryoptosis Answer – D. Hemosiderosis is a condition in which there is a deposition of iron which can be reversible 1. Which of the following process is not involved in the cell response to injury? A. Membrane integrity B. Protein synthesis C. Respiration D. DNA integrity E. Phagocytosis? 2. Which one is the main consequence of anaerobic glycolysis? A. Decreased ATP production B. Glucose fasting C. Lactate accumulation D. Gluconeogenesis stimulation E. IGF stimulation 3. One of the first cell signs of mild hypoxic injury is: A. Necrosis B. Swelling C. Shrinkage D. Degeneration E. Steatosis 4. Protease activation is triggered by A. Cytosolic calcium increase? B. Activation of Na/K ATPases C. DNA damage D. cyclic AMP signalling E. activation of phosphates 5. Which cell type produces large amounts of ROS? A. Lymphocytes B. Endothelial cells C. Phagocytes (confirmed graded) D. Dendritic cells E. NK cells 6. Autophagy is A. The process to degrade unwanted cell components? B. Part of the process of protein synthesis C. Necessary for differentiation process D. Associated with aging E. A peculiarity of hepatocytes 7. The DNA Damage Response (DDR) allow cells: A. To induce apoptosis B. To repair DNA damage (confirmed graded) C. To become carcinogenic D. To become senescent E. To proceed in cell cycle 8. Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in phase I biotransformations? A. Alcohol dehydrogenase B. Acetaldehyde dehyrpgenase C. CYP450 D. UDP glucuronyl-transferase E. All of the previous 9. Steatosis consists in an intracellular accumulation of: A. Cholesterol B. Cholesterol esters C. Apolipoproteins D. Triglycerides (confirmed graded) E. All of the previous 10. Pneumoconiosis are lung accumulation of: A. Carbon particles B. Silica fibers C. Fibrotic tissue D. Asbestos fibers E. All the previous (confirmed graded) 11. Hemosiderosis is a condition reflecting: A. Lipid depositin B. Iron accumulation (confirmed graded) C. Copper storage D. Old blood cells deposit E. Accumulation of iron binding proteins 12. Non- alcoholic fatty liver disease is a condition is associated to: b. Fasting c. Obesity (confirmed graded) d. Anorexia e. Childhood f. Hypoxia 13. Extrinsic apoptosis pathway is not triggered by: A. TNF alpha B. CD95 C. FAS D. Perforin E. IGF-1 (confirmed graded) 14. Bcl-2 family proteins are: A. Pro-apoptotic B. Anti-apoptotic C. PTP pore regulators D. All of the previous (confirmed graded) E. None of the previous 15. The apoptosome is composed by: A. Caspase 8 and caspase 9 B. Adaptor protein and caspase 8 C. Cytochrome c and Apaf 1 (confirmed graded) D. PTP and Apaf 1 E. Apaf 1 and caspase 3 16. A 58 year old woman has had a cough with fever for 3 days. A sputum culture grows Streptococcus pneumoniae. The clearance of these organisms from the lung parenchyma would be most effectively accomplished through generation of which of the following substances by the major inflammatory cell type responding to this infection? A. Hydrogen peroxide?! (confirmed graded) B. Kallikrein C. Leukotriene B4 D. Platelet activating factor E. Prostaglandin E2 17. Monocytes, giant cells, fibroblasts and lymphocytes are characteristics of: A. Acute inflammation B. Granulation tissue C. Wound healing D. Chronic inflammation?! E. Suppuration 18. A 36 year old woman has been taking aspirin for arthritis for the past 4 months. Her joint pain is reduced via this therapy. This pain reduction is most likely to be the result of diminishing which of the chemical mediators? A. Bradykinin B. Hageman factor C. Interleukin 1 D. Leukotriene B4 E. Prostaglandins? 19. In which steps of the leukocyte recruitment towards the site of inflammation CD31 molecule is involved? A. Rolling B. Margination C. Adhesion D. Diapedesis E. Chemotaxis 20. A 15-year old girl has had episodes of sneezing with watery eyes and runny nose for the past two weeks. On physical examination, she has red swollen nasal mucosal surfaces. She has had similar episodes each spring and summer when the amount of pollen in the air is high. Her symptoms are most likely to be mediated by the release of which of the following chemical mediators? A. Complement c3b B. Histamine C. İmmunoglobulin G D. Platelet activating factor (PAF) E. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) 21. A child with ill-fitting shoes developed a vesicle (small blister) that burst, releasing clear watery fluid. The school nurse would document this drainage as: A. Purulent B. Fibrinous C. Hemorrhagic D. Serous E. Abscess 22. Which of the following can not be considered an auto-inflammatory disease? A. Familial Mediterranean Fever B. Neonatal- Onset Multisystem Inflammatory disease C. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency I?! D. TNF receptor-associated periodic syndrome E. Periodic fever, aphthous stomatitis, pharyngitis, cervical adenitis(not this) 23. A 9-year-old girl sustains a small 0.5 cm long laceration to her right index finger while playing with a letter opener. Which of the following substances on contact with injured vascular basement membrane activates both the coagulation sequence and the kinin system as an initial response to this injury? A. Hageman factor B. Histamine C. Plasmin D. Platelet-activating factor E. Thromboxane 24. Which is the main function of alternatively activated (M2) macrophages? A. Production of NO and ROS B. Upregulation of lysosomal enzymes C. Tissue repair and resolution of inflammation D. To kill ingested organisms E. To secrete cytokines and acute inflammation *25. A 45-year-old man has had a fever and dry cough for 3 days and now has difficulty breathing. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.5. He also shows a right pleural effusion. A right thoracentesis is performed. The fluid obtained has a cloudy appearance with cell count showing 15500 leukocytes per microliter, 98% of which are neutrophils. Which of the following terms best describes his pleural process? A. Chronic inflammation B. Fibrinous inflammation C. Granulomatous inflammation (not this) D. Purulent inflammation?! E. Serous inflammation 26. A patient’s white blood cell count indicates a shift to the left. This indicates that: A. Main blood circulatory pathway is through the left side of the heart B. There is an absolute increase in the number of eosinophils C. There is an increased number of immature neutrophils due to a bacterial infection. D. White blood cell count is greater than their RBC count. E. There is an absolute increase in the nuöber of lymphocytes. 27. Which of the following is defective in chronic granulomatous disease? A. Neutrophil production in the bone marrow B. Neutrophil chemotaxis C. Opsonization D. Intracellular killing of microorganisms?! E. Phagocytic function of macrophages(not this) 28. A 40 year old woman had laparoscopic surgery 3 months ago. Now she has a small 0.5 cm nodule beneath the skin at the incision site that was sutured. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be most characteristic of the inflammatory response in this situation? A. Eisonophil B. Giant cell (confirmed graded) C. Mast cell D. Neutrophil E. Plasma cell 29. Auto-inflammatory diseases are mostly characterized by the increased production of which of the following chemical mediators? A. Bradykinin B. Hageman factor C. Interleukin 1 – beta?! D. Leukotriene B4 E. Prostaglandins(not this) 30. A 31 year old woman has a laparotomy performed for removal of an ovarian tumor. She recovers with no complications. At the time of the surgery, a 12 cm long midline abdominal incision was made. The tensile strength in the surgical scar will increase so her normal activities can be resumed. Most of the tensile strength will likely be achieved in which of the following time period? A. One month B. One week C. One year D. Six months(not this) E. Three months 31. Which of the following is believed to be a key cause of immortalization of cancer cells in many tumours? A. Complete loss of telomeres B. Inactivation of the telomerase enzyme C. Reactivation of the telomerase enzyme? D. Shortening of telomeres E. None of the above(not this) 32. Which of the following best describes an oncogene? A. An oncogene codes for a cell cycle control protein. B. An oncogene codes for truncated form of a protein that forms part of a signal transuction pathway. C. An oncogenes codes for a protein that prevents the cell from undergoing apoptosis. D. An oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutated gene that gives a cell a growth and survival advantage. E. An oncogene often codes for a protein with phosphatase activity. 33. Which of the following types of protein could be coded by a tumor-suppressor gene? A. A protein that forms part of a growth factor signaling pathway. B. A protein that codes for a RNA repair enzyme. C. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis. D. A protein that favors the Epithelial to mesenchymal transition. E. A protein that controls progression through the cell cycle. (confirmed graded) 34. Which property of p53 enables it to prevent the development of cancer? A. P53 is a transcription factor that causes production of protein that stimulate the cell cycle. B. P53 prevents the replication of cells with damaged DNA. (confirmed graded) C. P53 prevents cells from triggering apoptosis. D. P53 stimulates synthesis of DNA repair enzymes that replace telomere sequence lost during cell division. E. P53 prevents the activation of the transcription factor MDM2. 35. Which of the following statements about the Rb tumour suppressor protein is correct? A. Rb is activate when phosphorylated by Cdk. B. Rb binds the transcription factor E2F and thus prevents the cell from entering S phase until a mitogenic signal is received. (confirmed graded) C. Rb is a transcription factor. D. When a mitogenic signal is received, Rb binds the transcription factor E2F and thus stimulates the cell to enter 3 phase. E. None of the other responses 36. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a cancer stem cell? A. The ability to replicates an unlimited number of times B. The ability to undergo asymmetric divisions C. The capacity of generating a progeny of differentiated cells that migrate and produce metastasis. (confirmed graded) D. Is generally more resistant to conventional therapies that transiently amplified cancer progenitor cells E. Is often able to colonize new organs and produce metastasis. 37. Which of the following features best characterize a malignant vs a benign tumour? A. May spread to other parts of the body to form metastases. (confirmed graded) B. Develops a blood supply C. Cells divide an unlimited number of times D. Grows without needing a growth signal. E. Grows capsulated 38. Which of the following sentences is not correct? A. Exosomes incorporate membrane components from the plasma and endosomal membranes, cytoplasmic proteins and RNA. B. Exosomes can fuse directly with the recipient cell plasmamembrane to release exosomal contents into the cytoplasm or can be internalized by recipient cell via micropinocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis or lipid raft mediated endocytosis. C. Mechanism of exosome internalization utilizeddepends on the ligands displayed on the exosome surface: the cell type from which the exosome are derived, and the recipient cell type. D. The diameter of exosomes is between 300 nm and 1 micron. ? E. Cancer cells produce more exosomes than normal cells. 39. Which of the cell types does NOT favor tumor progression? A. M1 macrophages (confirmed graded) B. M2 macrophages C. Myeloid-derived suppressor cells D. Tumor resident fibroblasts E. Regulatory t cells 40. Which of the following gene alterations is not targetable by current cancer therapy? a. HER2 amplification in breast and gastric cancer b. EGFR mutation in non-small cell lung cancer c. ALK rearrangement in non-small cell lung cancer d. KRAS mutation in colorectal cancer (confirmed graded) e. BCR/ABL fusion in chronic myelogenous leukaemia *41. Which of the following cancer types has a very high number of non-synonymous mutations? A. Medulloblastoma B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Melanoma?! D. Pediatric sarcomas E. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia *42. Which of the following is the most aggressive breast cancer type? A. Fibroadenoma B. A cancer with normal breast-like gene expression profiles C. Luminal A breast cancer D. DCIS E. Basal-like breast cancer?! 43. Which of the following statements referred to Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) engineered T cells is NOT correct? A. Effective CAR engineered T cells typically recognize native tumor cell- surface antigens B. CAR T cells employed in the earlier trials had signaling domains derived from a single molecule, CD3 chain and are referred to as first generation CARs. C. do not contain CD3 New generation chimeric antigen receptors chains, but only costimulatory molecules such as CD28 and 41BB. (confirmed graded) D. CAR construct typically uses an antibody single chain variable fragment to recognize a protein of interest expressed by cancer cells. E. New generation chimeric antigen receptors contain both the CD3 chain and costimulatory molecules such as CD28 and 41BB. *44. Which of the following statements referring to active tumor immunotherapy is NOT correct? A. Checkpoint inhibitors target CTLA4, CD28 or PD-1. B. Anti- CTLA4 are generally more toxic than anti-PD1 antibodies. C. Checkpoint inhibitors are more effective in squamous lung carcinomas than in non-squamous tumors from non smokers. ? D. Anti-PD-1 antibodies are generally more effective in tumors expressing PD- L1. E. CTLA-4 is upregulated after antigen-specific activation of a naïve or memory t cell in lymphatic tissue, while PD-1 is mainly expressed on antigen-experienced memory t cells in peripheral tissues cells. 45. Which of the following statement is NOT correct according to RECIST criteria? A. Complete response refers to disappearance of all target lesions for a period of at least one month. B. Partial response occurs when there is at least a 20% decrease in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions. (confirmed graded) C. Stable disease occurs when there is neither a sufficient shrinkage to qualify for partial response, nor sufficient increase to qualify for progressive disease. D. Progressive disease occurs when there is at least 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions. E. Absence of tumor size variation should be considered as stable disease. 46. TLRs are receptors for pathogen-associated motives. PAM-R are expressed: A. Only on the cell surface, to interact with extracellular pathogens B. On cell surface and intracellular membranes, to interact with extra- and intracellular pathogens.?! C. As secreted molecules, to allow macrophages scavenging extracellular pathogens. (not this) D. As secreted molecules, to activate the complement cascade E. As surface inhibitors of C3 spontaneous activation 47. Which of the following statement on Th cells is correct: A. Naïve t cells are differentiated into Th phenotypes independently from the TLRs activated on APCs B. Secretion of IL-12 by APCs promotes the differentiation of naïve Th cells towards Th17 C. Interaction with distinct TLRs on APCs results in the priming of T cells towards distinct phenotypes (confirmed graded) D. Activated Th cells fail to reach the target organ E. Stimulation via CpG or TLR9 promotes IL-17 secretion 48. Which of the following statement about the pathogenesis of autoimmune diseases is correct? A. Self-reactive Th cells are always involved, but are directly responsible of the damage only in organ-specific, cell-mediated diseases (confirmed graded) B. Self-reactive Th cells are involved only in organ specific, cell-mediated diseases C. The results reported show that only Th17 self reactive T cells are responsible for auto immune diseases D. Autoimmune diseases are always due to self-specific antibodies E. Th2 self reactive T cells are responsible for autoimmune diseases 49. The pathogenesis of systemic autoimmune diseases is due: A. To hypersensivity of the type I B. To hypersensivity of the type II C. To hypersensitivity of the type III D. To hypersensitivity of the type IV E. None of the above *50. HIV GAG encodes for: A. Gp41 B. Gp120 C. Gp160 D. A precursor of the proteins of the viral core? E. The reverse transcriptase 51. HLA-DRB1*03:01 is A. A serologic denomination for class I molecules B. A serologic denomination for class II molecules C. A genotypic denomination for class I molecule alpha chain D. A genotypic denomination for an allele of the alpha chain of DR E. A genotypic denomination for an allele of the beta chain of DR (confirmed graded) 52. The long term non-progressors are: A. Patients that develop AIDS within 10 years after infection by HIV B. Subjects that did not develop AIDS within 20 years after infection by HIV without any antiretroviral therapy!? C. Patients that did not develop AIDS within 20 years after infection by HIV, using antiretroviral therapy D. Patients that did not develop AIDS within 10 years after infection by HIV, using antiretroviral therapy E. All patients showing low levels of HIV viremia 2 years after infection 53. The condition of ‘long term non- progressors’ is often associated with: A. A genetic lack of CXCR4 B. The production of antibodies specific for gp120 C. Lack of CCR5, or production of blocking antibodies for gp120 (confirmed graded) D. Solely to HLA-DRB1*15:01 E. Solely to HLA-DRB1*03:01 54. Why HLA-DRB1 variants that show the ability to promiscuously present a larger breadth of peptides can be more efficient in controlling HIV viremia? A. Because a larger breadth of peptides presented reduces the chances of selecting variants of the HIV able to escape immune recognition B. Because of larger breadth of peptides presented can activate a larger repertoire of HIV-specific T helper cells C. The combination of A and B (confirmed graded) D. Because of large breadth of peptides presented will reduce the initial infectious load E. Because of large breadth of peptides presented is associated to lack of CXCR4 55. Which of the following is believed to be the mechanism underlying systemic symptoms in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus? A. Deposition of unconjugated DNA in tissues B. Deposition of circulating immune complexes (confirmed graded) C. Exacerbation of disease by injection with virus D. Production of antiviral antibodies cross reactive with tissue antigens E. A local inflammation driven by T helper cells 56. The B7 on APC provide a co-stimulatory signal to T-cells by ligating: A. Surface immunoglobulin B. MHC class II C. CD28? (confirmed graded) D. CD40 E. CD4 57. Peripheral tolerance mechanisms operate to tolerize 7 lymphocytes which have exited from thymus to potential self- reactivity. Recent discoveries have shown a major role for a certain subpopulation of lymphocytes with regulatory functions causing inhibition of responses against self. These lymphocytes are distinguished by their display of the following markers: A. TCR/ CD3 B. CD4/ CD25 (confirmed graded) C. CD8/ CD20 D. Fc epsilon receptor E. CXCR4 58. Which of the following is the mechanism of generating antibody diversity after antigenic stimulation? A. Random VDJ gene rearrangement(not this) B. Random combination of heavy and light chains C. Random junctional insertion of nucleotides D. Somatic hypermutation E. Isotype switching 59. Somatic recombination occurs: A. In the bone marrow stem cell B. In the progenitor cells as it is becoming a B cell (confirmed graded) C. In the mature B cell following antigen contact D. In the plasma cell after antigen contact E. In the plasma cell after antibody secretion 60. The level of pathogen-specific IgM antibodies can be of diagnostic significance because: A. IgM antibodies are more often protective against reinfection than other isotypes B. Viral infection often results in very high IgM responses C. IgM is easier to detect than other isotypes D. Relatively high levels of IgM often correlate with a recent first exposure to a pathogen (confirmed graded) E. IgM can cross the placenta and thus confirm an utero infection 1. Which of the following cell types is NOT found inside a tuberculous granuloma? a. Basophils (confirmed graded) b. Epithelioid Cells c. Actively proliferating fibroblasts d. Lymphocytes e. Macrophages 2. Which of the following pathologic conditions does NOT represent an example of a granulomatous inflammation? a. Leprosy b. Crohn’s disease c. Syphilis d. Tuberculosis e. Peptic ulcer (confirmed graded) 3. What are epithelioid cells? a. Activated T lymphocytes b. Actively proliferating fibroblasts c. A particular type of neutrophils d. Necrotic macrophages e. Macrophages activated during a granulomatous inflammation (confirmed graded) You order an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) in a chronically ill patient. The ESR is significantly elevated and is most likely associated with: A. Increased number of leukocytes B. Hageman factor activation C. increased serum acute phase reactants. (confirmed graded) D. The action of complement E. Accumulation of blood borne pyrogens Which is the main function of the alternatively activated (M2) macrophages? A. Production of NO and ROS B. upregulation of lysosomal enzymes C. Tissue repair and resolution of inflammation (confirmed graded) D. to kill ingested organisms E. to secrete cytokines of acute inflammation Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Langhans giant cells? A. Antigen-presenting cells in the skin B. have a peripheral ring of nuclei with central clearing C. are characteristically seen in tuberculosis D. are derived from macrophages E. are typical of chronic granulomas The pain experienced by this patient is predominantly the result of which of the following two chemical mediators? (Remember mediators of inflammation) A. complement c3b and igg B. histamine and serotonin C. interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor D. leukotriene E. prostaglandin and bradykinin (imp in inducing pain during inflammation) In which of the leukocyte recruitment steps towards the site of inflammation cd31 molecule is involved? A. Rolling B. Margination C. Adhesion D. Diapedesis E. chemotaxis. (If you remember all the pathways of leukocyte migration from blood vessels to the inflamed tissue, this is the last step, just before the leukocyte leaves the blood vessel and goes into the tissue and cd31 is an adhesion molecule that is expressed on endothelial cells and leukocytes and this helps them to go through endothelial cells and pass into the tissue.) A patient’s white blood cell count indicates a shift to the left. This indicates that: A. main blood circulatory pathway is through the left side of the heart B. there is an absolute increase in the number of eosinophils C. There is an increased number of immature neutrophils due to a bacterial infection. D. white blood cell count is greater than their red blood cell count E. there is an absolute increase in the number of lymphocytes Among the following, which is the main mediator inducing vasodilation during acute inflammation? a. Leukotriene B4 b. IL-6 c. Histamine (confirmed graded) d. Thromboxane A2 e. IL-1 Pain associated with acute inflammation is thought to be caused by a. Pressure effects of exudate fluid b. Histamine c. Serotonin d. Kinins e. All of the above (confirmed graded) Bradykinin is the strongest mediator for pain and it’s directly correlated to pain, but all that happens locally causes pain. Even if histamine doesn’t cause pain directly, it causes Of the following events that are part of the acute inflammatory response, which would occur THIRD in correct sequence? a. Vascular dilation b. Local hemoconcentration and slowing of blood (confirmed graded) c. Margination of WBC’s d. Emigration of WBC’s e. Increased vascular permeability the first step is vasodilation, then increased vascular permeability and third the slowing of blood; for the record, he meant the third event among the listed ones. The features, monocytes, giant cells, fibroblasts and lymphocytes, are characteristics of a. Acute inflammation b. Granulation tissue c. Wound healing d. Chronic inflammation (confirmed graded) e. Suppuration the answer is chronic inflammation because, although fibroblast can be found at the beginning of the scarring (which gives rise to the granulation tissue), in granulation tissue there are no giant cells nor lymphocytes. Moreover, lymphocytes are typical of chronic inflammation, we don’t find them in acute inflammation. Which of the following inflammation commonly is characterized by collections of dead and dying polymorphs, dead and dying bacteria, and necrosis of tissue, all of which form a turbid or thick in the tissue? a. Catarrhal inflammation b. Phlegmonous inflammation c. Cellulitis d. Abscess formation (confirmed graded) e. Granulation’s inflammation A patient presents to your clinic displaying a one- week-old wound strongly erythematous and painful to touch. Upon culture, numerous pathologic Staphylococcus aureus organisms grow. The most important system for the killing of bacteria processed by the patients PMNs (assuming they are normal) is which of following a. Oxygen dependent, myeloperoxide independent system b. Oxygen dependent, myeloperoxidase dependent system (confirmed graded) c. Oxygen independent, myeloperoxidase independent system d. Oxygen independent, myeloperoxidase dependent system e. AK-47 system oxygen dependant, myeloperoxidase independent is used only in case of mutations of myeloperoxidase; Instead oxygen independent refers to lysosomal component, so for all the intracellular materials The laboratory analysis conducted on a child with chronic nasal drainage reveals an elevated number of eosinophils on a white blood cell differential. Based on this finding, which is most likely the cause of the nasal drainage a. Bacterial infection b. Chronic inflammation c. Allergies (confirmed graded) d. Viral infection e. Parasitic infection in theory it could be also parasitic infestation, but a child with CHRONIC nasal drainage suffers from allergies, as far as we have only these evidences. Which one of these molecules is able to cause vasoconstriction? a. PGD2 b. Leukotriene B4 c. Prostacyclin d. Thromboxane A2 (confirmed graded) e. Lipoxin A4 Which of the following findings is an invariably histologic feature of granulomatous inflammation? a. Caseous necrosis b. Multinucleated giant cells c. Positive acid-fast staining of causative organism d. Surrounding cuff of lymphocytes e. Epithelioid cells (confirmed graded) it can’t be caseous necrosis because it’s present only in case of very big granulomatous inflammation (due to an improper diffusion of oxygen), instead epithelioid cells are always present. The point is that we don’t have always necrosis in granuloma, because if it’s a small one or a recently formed one, it doesn’t have it. The answer can’t be neither D, B or C because we may find them, but not necessarily. For example, lymphocytes are present only if we have simultaneously the activation of the immune cells, otherwise we don’t find them. In which of the leukocyte recruitment steps towards the site of inflammation CD31 molecule is involved? a. Rolling b. Margination c. Adhesion d. Diapedesis (confirmed graded) e. chemotaxis a patient shows up to your office showing you a two-weeks old wound which appears as a bulging lesion and quite warm to touch. You suspect an abscess has formed, especially because when you lance it, foul-smelling purulent debris is excluded. You take some of the debris, smear it out on a slide, and stain it. You expect to see mostly which of the following a. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages b. Proliferation of fibroblasts ad small blood vessels c. PMNs and necrotic debris (confirmed graded) d. Collections of histiocytes and giant cells e. All of the above A child with ill-fitting shoes developed a vesicle(small blister) that burst, releasing clear watery fluid. The school nurse would document this drainage as: a. Purulent b. Fibrinous c. Hemorrhagic d. Serous (confirmed graded) e. abscess Which is the main function of the alternatively activated (M2) macrophages? a. Production of NO and ROS b. Upregulation of lysomal enzymes c. Tissue repair and resolution of inflammation (confirmed graded) d. To kill ingested organisms e. To secrete cytokines of acute inflammation Upon lancing a skin abscess, you accidentally create an incision too large to be closed with Band- Aids so you decide to suture it. You know that suturing the wound will allow it to heal by primary intention. If you do not suture the wound and leave it open, it would heal by secondary intention. Features shared by both primary and secondary intention healing include which of the following a. Angiogenesis or neovascularization of new blood vessels b. Migration and proliferation of fibrosis c. Deposition of extracellular matrix(ECM) d. Remodeling or maturation and organization of the fibrous tissue e. All of the above (confirmed graded) primary and secondary intention healings are basically the same, the only differences are the time and the intensity. A patients developing a scar following a hand lesion due to firework explosion ask you whether his skin will eventually be strong enough to not give him any problem in the future. You tell him the following except: a. Keep the wound clean because infection is the number one cause of delayed healing b. Eat well and take your vitamins in order not to delay healing c. At the end of one week wound strength is about 10% of the strength of wounded skin d. Wound strength rapidly increases over 4-5 weeks following damage. e. Because scars are made of collagen, the wound will regain the original if not more tensile strength (confirmed graded) A Patient’s white blood cell count indicated a shift to the left. This indicates that: a. Main blood circulatory pathway is through the left side of the heart b. There is an absolute increase in the number of eosinophils c. There is an increased number of immature neutrophils due to a bacterial infection (confirmed graded) d. White blood cell count is greater than their red blood cell count e. There is an absolute increase in the number of lymphocytes this is called Arneth count which of the following cell types would be most characteristic of the inflammatory response accompanying a leaking silicone breast implant: a. eosinophil b. giant cell (confirmed graded) c. mast cell d. neutrophil e. plasma cell the answer is giant cells because they are too big to be digested, so we have the formation of a granuloma; after they implant for a long time, they’ll still be in there, so we will have a chronic granulomatous inflammation. One of your patients has used an eraser to rub out his girlfriend’s name tattooed on his arm, and rubbed it so hard that flecks of rubber from the eraser penetrated and became embedded into the underlying dermis. You would expect to see a granulomatous-type inflammatory reaction. True statement regarding granulomatous inflammation include all of the following except: a. It is considered a chronic inflammatory process b. It is characterized histologically by aggregates of histocytes and giant cells c. It is dependent on humoral mediated immunity (confirmed graded) d. It most often occurs in response to ingestible organism or particles e. It progresses to repair if there is not damage to stromal framework Which of the following is defective in chronic granulomatous disease? a. Neutrophil production in the bone marrow b. Neutrophil chemotaxis c. Opsonization d. Intracellular killing of micro-organisms (confirmed graded) e. Phagocytic function of macrophages They are defective in phagocytic oxidase which is responsible for intracellular killing of micro- organisms; they can ingest, but not digest. It can’t be E because phagocytic is more strictly related to ingestion. What is the process of identifying specific diseases through evaluation of signs and symptoms? a. Pathogenesis b. Diagnosis (confirmed graded) c. Prognosis d. Assessment e. Etiology A lactating breast is characterized by: a. Hypertrophy of epithelial and connective tissue b. Increased protein synthesis c. Hyperplasia of gland tissue d. Increased fat tissue e. Decreased connective tissue Dysplasia is characterized by: a. increased N/C ratio b. basophilia c. cell heterogeneity d. all of the previous answers e. none of the previous During cell injury endonuclease activation is triggered by a. Cytosolic calcium increase b. Activation of Na/K ATPase c. DNA damage d. Cyclic AMP signalling e. Activation of phosphates Which cell type produces large amounts of ROS: a. Lymphocytes b. Endothelial cells c. Phagocytes (confirmed graded) d. Dendritic cells e. NK cells Autophagy: a. Is deregulated in aging cells b. Is part of the process of protein synthesis c. Is necessary for the differentiation process d. Is increased in tumor cells e. Is a peculiarity of hepatocytes Which of the following is believed to be a key cause of immortalization of cancer cells in many tumors? a. Complete loss of telomeres b. Inactivation of the telomerase enzyme c. Shortening of telomeres d. Aberrant activation of the telomerase enzymes e. None of the above Which of the following best defines an oncogene? A. An oncogene codes for a cell cycle control protein B. An oncogene codes for a truncated form of a protein that forms part of a signal transduction pathway C. An oncogene codes for a protein that promotes apoptosis D. An oncogene often codes for a protein with phosphatase activity E. An oncogene is often a mutated proto-oncogene that gives cells growth or survival advantage Which of the following types of protein could be coded by a tumor-suppressor gene? A. A protein that forms part of a growth factor signaling pathway B. A protein that codes for a RNA repair enzyme C. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis D. A protein that favors the Epithelial to Mesenchymal transition E. A protein that controls progression through the cell cycle Which property of p53 enables it to prevent the development of cancer? A. P53 is a transcription factor that causes production of proteins that stimulate the cell cycle B. P53 prevents the replication of cells with damaged DNA(confirmed grade) C. P53 prevents cells from triggering apoptosis D. P53 stimulates synthesis of DNA repair enzymes that replace telomere sequence lost during cell division E. P53 prevents the activation of transcription factor MDM2 Which of the following statements about the Rb tumor suppressor protein is correct? A. Rb is activated when phosphorylated by Cdk B. Rb binds E2F and inhibits its transcriptional activity, thus preventing the cell from entering S phase C. Rb is transcription factor that directly binds DNA and induces transcription of cell cycle inhibitory genes D. When a mitogenic signal is received, Rb binds the transcription factorE2F and thus stimulates the cell to enter S phase E. None of the other response Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a cancer stem cell? A. The ability of directly producing differentiated cells through symmetric divisions B. The ability to undergo symmetric and asymmetric divisions C. The ability to replicate an unlimited number of times D. Is generally more resistant to conventional therapies than transiently amplified cancer progenitor cells E. Is often able to colonize new organs and produces metastasis A 56-year-old man has had increasing dyspnea for 6 years. He has no cough or fever. He has chronic exposure to inhalation of silica dust for many years in his job. A chest x-ray shows increased intestinal markings and parenchymal 1 to 3 cm solid nodules. His pulmonary problems are most likely to be mediated through which of the following inflammatory processes a. Foreign body giant cell formation b. Macrophage elaboration of cytokines! c. Mast cell histamine release d. Neutrophilic infiltrates producing leukotrienes e. Plasma cell synthesis of immunoglobulins An episode of marked chest pain lasting 4 hours brings a 51-year-old man to the emergency room. He is found to have an elevated serum creatine kinase. An angiogram reveals a complete blockage of the left circumflex artery 2 cm from its origin. Which of the following substances would you most expect to be elaborated around the region of tissue damage in the next 3 days as an initial response to promote healing? a. Complement component C3b b. Histamine c. Immunoglobulin G d. Leukotriene B4 e. Vascular endothelial growth factor! A 94 year old woman has developed a fever and cough over the past 2 days. Staphylococcus aureus is cultured from her sputum. She receives a course of antibiotic therapy. Two weeks later she no longer has a productive cough, but she still has fever. A chest radiograph reveals a 3 cm rounded density in the right lower lobe whose liquefied contents form a central air fluid level. There are no surrounding infiltrates. Which of the following is the best description for this outcome of her pneumonia? a. Abscess formation!(confirmed graded) b. Bronchogenic carcinoma c. Chronic inflammation d. Granulomatous reaction e. Hypertrophic scar which of the following is not a systemic effect of acute inflammation a. increased acute-phase proteins b. increase blood pressure! c. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Fever e. Leukocytosis A small sliver of wood becomes embedded in the finger of a 25-year-old man. He does NOT remove it, and over the next 3 months, the area around the silver becomes red, swollen and tender. Neutrophils migrate into the injured tissue. Expression of which of the following substances on endothelial cells is most instrumental in promoting this inflammatory reaction a. E-selectin! b. Hagman factor c. Interferon-gamma d. Lysozyme e. Prostacyclin Platelet-derived growth is best known for: a. Activating fibroblasts in wound healing! (confirmed graded) b. Activating the complement cascade c. Aiding the maturation of granulomas d. Causing epithelium to heal over breaks e. Producing homeostasis in minor injuries Which of the following is NOT a malignant tumor a. Fibrosarcoma b. Seminoma c. Osteoma! (confirmed graded) d. Wilms Tumor e. Melanoma Which of the following sentences is CORRECT? a. The major number of sporadic breast cancers are Luminal A, followed byHER2-enriched, Luminal B and Basal-like tumors b. The majority of malignant breast tumors in BRCA2-mutated patients are Luminal B c. The majority of malignant breast tumors in BRCA1-mutated patients are Basal-like d. High KI-67 expression is a good prognostic factor in breast cancer e. Luminal A tumors are more aggressive than Luminal B tumors *Which of the following statement concerning the adenomatous polyposis coli(APC)is incorrect? a. APC is a tumor suppressor gene b. APC encodes a tumor suppressor protein that acts as an antagonist of Wnt signaling pathway c. Germinal mutation of causes the Lynch syndrome, an autosomal formant genetic condition that is associated with a high risk of colon cancer as well as other cancers d. The product of APC gene participates to a destruction complex that includes Axin, protein phosphatase 2A(PP2A), glycogen synthase kinase 3 (GSK3) and casein kinase 1 alpha(CK1alpha) e. Disease-associated mutations tend to be clustered in a small region of the APC gene and result in a truncated-protein product Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cancer stem cells? a. The ability to replicate an unlimited number of times b. The ability to undergo asymmetric divisions c. The inability to undergo symmetric divisions! (confirmed graded) d. Is generally more resistant to conventional therapies than transiently amplified cancer progenitor cells e. Is often able to colonize new organs and produce metastasis Which of the following features BEST characterizes a malignant rather than a benign tumour? a. Undergoes metastasis! (confirmed graded) b. Develops a blood supply c. Cells divide an unlimited number of times d. Grows without needing a growth signal e. Grows capsulated *Which of the following sentences is NOT correct a. Exosomes incorporate membrane components from the plasma and endosomal membranes, cytoplasmic proteins and RNA(not this) b. Exosomes can fuse directly with the recipient cell plasma membrane to release exosomes contents into the cytoplasm or can be internalized by recipient cells via micropinocytosis, receptor-mediated exosome, or lipid raft- mediated endocytosis, each of which results in exosome being taken up into endosomes c. Mechanisms of exosome internalization utilized depend on the ligands displayed on the ligands displayed on the exosomes surface, the cell type from which the exosomes are derived, and the recipient cell type d. Exosomes have usually the same size as microvescicles? e. Cancer cells produce more exosomes than normal cells Which of the following cell types does NOT favor tumor progression? a. M1 macrophages! (confirmed graded) b. M2 macrophages c. Myeloid-derived suppressor cells d. Tumor-resident fibroblasts e. Regulatory T cells Which of the following gene alterations is NOT directly targetable by current cancer therapy a. HER2 amplification in breast and gastric cancer b. RGFR mutation in non-small cell lung cancer c. ALK rearrangement in non-small cell lung cancer cancer d. P53 mutation in colorectal cancer? e. BCR/ABL fusion in chronic myelogenous leukaemia Which of the following cancer types has a high number of non-synonymous mutations? a. Medulloblastoma b. Acute myeloid leukaemia c. Squamous lung cancer? d. Pediatric sarcomas e. Chronic lymphocyte leukaemia Autophagy is: a. The process to degrade unwanted cell components! (confirmed graded) b. Part of the process of protein synthesis c. Necessary for the differentiation process d. All the previous e. None of the previous The DNA Damage Response (DDR) allows cells: a. To initiate apoptosis b. To repair DNA damage? c. To become carcinogenic d. To become senescent e. None of the previous Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in phase I biotransformations: a. Alcohol dehydrogenase b. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase c. CYP450 d. UDP glucuronyl-transferase? (confirmed graded) e. All of the previous answer Asbestosis is a lung fibrosis due to: a. Carbon particles b. Silica fibers c. Tissue scarring d. Asbestos fibers! (confirmed graded) e. All of the previous answer Hemosiderosis is a condition reflecting: a. Lipid deposition b. Iron accumulation! (confirmed graded) c. Copper storage d. Old blood cell deposit e. Accumulation of iron binding proteins *Which of the following changes does not occur in epithelial dysplasia? a. Increased cellular cohesion? b. Increased normal and abnormal mitosis c. Enlarged nucleoli d. Increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio e. Basal cell hyperplasia Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a condition associated to: a. Fasting b. Obesity? c. Anorexia d. Childhood e. Hypoxia Apoptosis is NOT triggered by: a. TNF alpha b. CD95 c. FAS d. Perforin e. IGF-1! (confirmed graded) Bcl-2 family proteins are: a. Pro-apoptotic b. Anti-apoptotic c. PTP pore regulators d. All of the previous! (confirmed graded) e. None of the previous P53 protein function is regulated by a. Mdm2? b. DNA-K c. Phosphorylation reaction d. All of the previous? e. None of the previous *ANOIKIS is a programmed cell death due to: a. Lack of nutrients? b. Presence of toxic agents c. Loss of cell-matrix interaction! d. All the previous e. None of the previous In anaerobic conditions, cells produce energy by: a. Gluconeogenesis b. Glycolysis! c. Proteolysis d. Lipolysis e. Lipoprotein synthesis Following a mild hypoxia injury, a cell generally appears a. Necrotic b. Swollen! (confirmed graded) c. Shrinked d. Degenerated e. Steatotic During cell injury activation of endonuclease is a consequence of: a. Cytosolic calcium increases! b. Activation of Na/K ATPase c. Cytosolic calcium decrease d. Cyclic AMP signalling e. Activation of phosphatases *Which of the following statements is incorrect? (please confirm) a. Upon phosphorylation, pRB binds E2F and prevents the entrance into the S phase b. The D-type cyclins and their partner cyclin-dependent kinase subunit(Cdk4 and Cdk6) form complexes that phosphorylate pRB c. Retinoblastoma is a pediatric retinal tumor initiated by biallelic inactivation of the retinoblastoma gene d. Retinoblastoma protein(Rb) is a tumor suppressor and critical cell cycle regulator that targets the E2F family of transcription factors e. The retinoblastoma protein is phosphorylated in a cell cycle- dependent manner Which of the following is believed to be a key cause of immortalization of cancer cells in many tumors? a. Complete loss of telomeres b. Inactivation of telomerase enzyme c. Reactivation of the telomerase enzyme! (confirmed graded) d. Shortening of telomerase e. None of the above previous Which of the following statements about the differentiation stages of cancer cells is CORRECT? a. Anaplasia characterizes low-grade tumors b. Cancer cell differentiation usually correlates directly with tumor aggressiveness c. Cancer grading usually correlates directly with tumor aggressiveness! (confirmed graded) d. All of the above response e. None of the previous responses Which of the following statements about the grading and staging of the tumor is NOT correct a. The objective of a grading is to provide information about the probable growth rate b. The systems used to grade tumors vary with each type of cancer c. The TNM classification of each single tumor types will not change in the future! (confirmed graded) d. The objective of a grading system is to provide information about the tumor tendency to spread e. Grading plays a role in treatment decisions Which of the following terms correctly describes hyperplasia a. Tissue regeneration b. Muscle cell, including heart tissue, undergo hyperplasia to meet increased demand c. The enlargement of the skeletal muscle cells d. The proliferation of ductal cells in the breast during pregnancy! (confirmed graded) e. Tissue repair in response to injury Which of the following statements about malignant cancer is NOT CORRECT? a. Irregular, unorganized cell shape and arrangement b. Reduced glycolysis! (confirmed graded) c. Large nuclei d. Increased mitosis e. Malignant cancers produce matrix metalloproteinases that digest the extracellular matrix Which of the following is NOT a major angiogenic factor? a. PDGF b. VEGF c. Interferon-gamma! d. FGF2 e. Angiopoietin 2 *After ingestion of ethanol a. It is mainly absorbed at gastric level b. It is only excreted through the lungs c. The maximal amount of it that will be metabolized by the liver of young adult is 12g/day d. It will be distributed mainly to those tissues with very low degree of vascularization e. About 90% of it will be metabolized in the liver?! Which of the lymphomas is NOT related to germinal center B cells? a. Follicular lymphoma b. Hodgkin's lymphoma c. Lymphoblastic lymphoma? d. Burkitt lymphoma e. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma *Which of the following tumours is more frequent in patients with germline p53 mutations? a. Leukaemia b. Gastric cancer c. Colorectal cancer d. Sarcoma? e. Ovary cancer Which of the following among FAB subtypes corresponds to Acute myelomonocytic Leukemia a. M2 b. M3 c. M4! (confirmed graded) d. M5 e. M6 Which of the following conditions does NOT promote angiogenesis? a. The presence of myeloid-derived suppressor cells b. Hypoxia c. The presence of TIE-2 expressing monocytes d. The presence of M1 macrophages! (confirmed graded) e. The presence of cancer-associated macrophages Which factor(s) has/have been identified as being critical to the efficacy of anti-PD-1/PD-L1 based therapy? a. Tumor mutational burden and microsatellite instability b. Gut microbiota and tumor metabolism c. Tumor immune phenotype d. A and B e. A,B and C! (confirmed graded) The Apoptosome is composed by: a. Caspase 8 and caspase 9 b. Adaptor protein and caspase-8 c. Cytochrome c and Apaf-1! d. PTP and Apaf-1 e. Apaf and caspase-3 *Monocytes, giant cells, fibroblasts and lymphocytes, are characteristics of: a. Acute inflammation b. Granulation tissue(not the answer apparently) c. Wound healing d. Chronic inflammation? e. Suppuration A 36-year old woman has been taking acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) for arthritis for the past 4 months. Her joint pain is reduced via this therapy. This pain reduction is most likely to by the result of diminishing which of the following chemical mediators a. Bradykinin b. Hageman factor c. Interleukin-1 d. Leukotriene B4 e. Prostaglandin?! In which of leukocyte recruitment towards the site of inflammation CD31 molecule is involved? a. Rolling b. Migration c. Adhesion d. Diapedesis!? e. chemotaxis which of the following is a direct consequence of macrophage activation: a. a decrease in macrophage cell size b. aggregation of macrophages into the center of an abscess c. release of Hageman factor to activate the kinin system d. release of tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1! (confirmed graded) e. Secretion of gamma interferon to activate T-lymphocytes *In an acute inflammation, neutrophils are the first line of cellular deletions. Unfortunately, these can also cause damage to tissue. Which of the following used by neutrophils is(are) directly or indirectly responsible for this damage? 1. Degranulation 2. release of DAMPs by NETosis 3. Oxidative burst and release of radicals upon phagocytosis 4. Massive release of proinflammatory cytokine TGFbeta a. Only mechanisms 1, 2 and 3 b. Only mechanisms 1 and 3 c. Only mechanism 3 is correct d. Only mechanisms 1 and 2 e. All mechanisms can lead to tissue damage? *Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. Cyclin B prepares cells for DNA replication in S phase!? b. Cyclin A activates DNA replication in S phase c. Cyclins were originally named because their concentration varies in a cyclical fashion during the cell cycle d. Fluctuation in cyclin gene expression and destruction by the ubiquitin mediated proteasome pathway induce oscillations in Cdk activity to drive the cell cycle e. Cyclic D triggers cells to move G0 to G1 and from G1 into S phase *Which of the following tumor types has a relatively low number of mutations? f. Thyroid cancer? a. NSCLC b. Gastric cancer c. Melanoma d. Bladder cancer *Which of the following features is NOT present in pyroptosis a. Chromatin condensation b. Degradation of gasdermin D c. Formation of pores 10-20 nM in size? d. Maturation and release of pro-inflammatory cytokines e. Maturation of effector caspases 3 and 7 Inflammasomes are involved in the following activities except: a. Caspase-1 activation b. IL-1beta maturation c. IL-18 maturation d. Pyroptosis e. TLR activation?! Negative acute phase proteins include all the following except: a. Albumin b. Alpha-fetoprotein c. Haptoglobin d. Thyroxine binding globulin e. Transferrin Which of the following cells type is a typical component of inflammatory infiltrate caused by worms? a. Eosinophils?! b. Lymphocytes c. Macrophages d. Neutrophils e. Plasma cells An 8 year old boy cuts his hand on a piece of glass. 2 days later there is an open sore surrounded by swelling. His forearm is tender with red streaks extending towards the axilla. Which is the most likely diagnosis? a. Abscess b. Inflammatory lymphadenopathy c. Lymphadenitis d. Lymphangitis?! e. Reactive lymphadenopathy A patient is being treated for tuberculosis. Caseating pulmonary granulomas were seen on microscopic examination of a lung biopsy. What is the usual outcome of a pulmonary granuloma after treatment? a. Complete resolution b. Metastasis of the lesion c. Progression to chronic inflammation d. Replacement by macrophages e. Scarring and calcification! *Which of the following statement is incorrect? a. Metaplasia is the reversible transformation of a terminally differentiated tissue into an undifferentiated one? b. Intestinal metaplasia is believed to be a precancerous lesion that may lead to gastric cancer c. Metaplasia is reversible transformation of a terminally differentiated tissue into another d. An helicobacter pylori infection may be a cause of intestinal metaplasia e. There are three stages of Barrett’s esophagus, which range from intestinal metaplasia without dysplasia to high-grade dysplasia? *Which of the following cancer types has a very high number of non-synonymous mutations? a. Medulloblastoma b. Acute myeloid leukemia c. Melanoma? d. Pediatric sarcomas e. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia *In pyroptosis which molecular event allow to activate an inflammatory response: a. Activation of NFkB pathway b. Caspase-9 activation c. ROS formation d. Activation of death receptors e. Maturations of pro-ILs?! *Intrinsic ROS are produced by: a. Oxidative phosphorylation b. All the previous ? c. Coenzyme Q reduction d. Fenton reaction in the presence of iron e. None of the previous *Which of the following changes does not occur in epithelial dysplasia a. Increased cellular cohesion! b. Increased normal and abnormal mitosis c. Enlarged nucleoli d. Increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio e. Basal cell hyperplasia Which of the following does NOT contribute to fluid exudation from the intravascular compartment during acute inflammation? a. Arteriolar dilation b. Endothelial cell contraction c. Histamine release d. Increase capillary colloid osmotic pressure! e. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) has its greatest effect in diminishing the acute inflammatory process of: a. Anticoagulation by Hageman factor inhibition b. Fever resulting from interleukin-1 release c. Neutrophil chemotaxis by leukotriene B4 d. Pain resulting from bradykinin generation e. Prostaglandin-mediated vasodilation! Leukocytic emigration during an inflammatory response occurs primarily from: a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Veins e. Venules!? A patient is being treated for tuberculosis caseating pulmonary granulomas were seen in microscopic examination of a lung biopsy. What is the usual outcome of a pulmonary granuloma after treatment? a. Complete resolution b. Metastasis of the lesion c. Progression to chronic inflammation d. Replacement by macrophages e. Scarring and calcification! Which of the following tumours was responsible for the highest rates of death around 1930: a. Lung cancer b. Breast cancer c. Gastric cancer? d. Colorectal cancer e. Prostate cancer Which of the following genes is NOT mutated in colorectal cancer: a. KRAS b. Rb! c. P53 d. APC e. BRAF *In which type of inflammation epithelioid cells fuse to form multinucleated giant cells? a. Serous inflammation b. Granulomatous inflammation? c. Purulent inflammation d. Ulceration inflammation e. Fibrinous inflammation Features shared by both primary and secondary intention healing include which of the following a. Angiogenesis or neovascularization of new blood vessels b. Migration and proliferation of fibrosis c. Deposition of extracellular matrix(ECM) d. Remodeling or maturation and organization of the fibrous tissue e. All of the above A suppurative exudate contains necrotic debris in addition to neutrophils. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this necrosis? a. Activation of reactive oxygen species b. Extracellular calcium c. Il-1production by macrophages d. Release of bacterial toxins?! e. Release of hydrolases from neutrophils *Which of the following stimuli can trigger acute inflammatory processes? i. Infections? ii. Trauma? iii. Ischemia? iv. Foreign bodies? 1. All stimuli (1-4) trigger acute inflammatory processes? 2. Only the stimuli1, 2 and 4 trigger acute inflammatory processes 3. Only the stimuli 1 to3 trigger acute inflammatory processes 4. Only stimulus 1 triggers acute inflammatory processes 5. Only the stimuli 1 and 2 trigger acute inflammatory processes *The lipid mediators produced from arachidonic acid of membrane phospholipids, stimulate vascular and cellular reactions in acute inflammation. Which of them are more potent, than histamine, in increasing vascular permeability and causing bronchospasm? a. Prostaglandins b. Lipoxins(LXA and LXB -inhibition of inflammation) c. Thromboxanes(causes vasoconstriction, promotes platelets aggregation) d. Prostacyclins (causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation) e. Leukotrienes? (bronchospasm increased, vascular permeability increased) *Which among the following cancer types accounts for the lower number of deaths among the big killers in the USA and Europe? a. Melanoma? b. Lung and bronchus c. Breast cancer d. Colon & Rectum e. Pancreatic cancer *Tissue repair may be altered by a variety of influences, frequently reducing the quality or adequacy of the reparative process. Which of the following sentences is CORRECT? a. Excessive production of clots can cause keloids in the skin b. The concentration of a wound by myofibroblasts may impair the recovering of normal architecture c. Administration of glucocorticoids with anti-inflammatory effects my promote tissue repair d. Inadequate vascularization during healing can cause ulceration? e. Excessive production of collagen can increase local pressure and may cause wounds to pull apart Which of the following breast cancer has the worst prognosis? a. Fibroadenoma b. A cancer with normal breast-like gene expression profiles c. Luminal A breast cancer d. DCIS e. Basal-like breast cancer! (confirmed graded) Which of the following statements referring to active tumor immunotherapy is not correct: a. Checkpoint inhibition target 41BB and CD28?! b. Anti-CTLA4 are generally more toxic than anti-PD1 antibodies c. Checkpoint inhibitions are more effective in squamous lung carcinomas than in non-squamous tumors from non-smokers (not this) d. Anti-PD-1 antibodies are generally more effective in tumor expressing PD-L1 e. CTLA-4 is upregulated after antigen-specific activation of naïve or memory T cell in lymphatic tissue, while PD-1 Is mainly expressed on antigen- experienced memory T cells in peripheral tissue cells Which of the following statement is not correct according to RECIST criteria: a. Complete response refers to disappearance of all target lesions for a period of at least one month b. Partial response occurs when there is at least a 30% decrease I the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions c. Stable disease occurs when there neither a sufficient shrinkage to qualify for partial response, not sufficient increase to qualify for progressive disease d. Progressive disease occurs when there is at least a 30% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions.! (confirmed graded) e. Absence of tumor size variation should be considered as stable disease Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Langhans giant cells a. Are derived from macrophages b. Are typical of chronic granulomas c. Have a peripheral ring of nuclei with central clearing d. Are characteristically seen in tuberculosis e. Are the antigen-presenting cells in the skin The familial cancer: a. The age of onset is higher than in sporadic cancer b. The age of onset is lower than in sporadic cancer! (confirmed graded) c. Familial forms of cancer are very common d. The predisposition to cancer is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait e. The predisposition is a multifactorial trait *The Philadelphia chromosome (indicate the FALSE item):* a. The ABL oncogene is under the control of the BCR gene promoter b. It is a marker chromosome hallmark of chronic myeloid leukemia c. Originates from a balanced translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 (not this) d. The formation of fusion protein between BCR and ABL occurs e. The translocation occurs as a somatic event From the review test jan 2020 Question 1 Which of the following statements referred to Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) engineered T cells is not correct? Question 2 Which of the following is believed to be a key cause of immortalization of cancer cells in many tumours? aberrant activation of the telomerase enzyme Question 3 Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to develop in subjects with Li Fraumeni syndrome?

Biopath 1 Complete Questions PDF

Document Details

Tags

Related

Summary

Full Transcript

Upgrade to continue