Aviation Law & CAR PPL PDF

Aviation Law / CAR 1. An aircraft entering another contracting state's airspace and proposing to land must: a. Conform to the C of A of the airspace of the state into which it is flying b. Be registered, airworthy and carry all the relative documents required including the C of A c. Carry the C of...

Aviation Law / CAR 1. An aircraft entering another contracting state's airspace and proposing to land must: a. Conform to the C of A of the airspace of the state into which it is flying b. Be registered, airworthy and carry all the relative documents required including the C of A c. Carry the C of A and the International Interception Table of Signals d. Ensure it carries an original copy of the flight plan only 2. Does each state have the right to search, without reasonable delay, the aircraft of other contracting states on landing and departure? a. Yes b. No c. Yes but this applies only to commercial aircraft d. Yes but this applies only to non-commercial aircraft 3. When an ICAO aircraft lands in another contracting state what items are temporarily exempt from customs duty? a. Aircraft spare parts and items of flight safety b. Only the fuel and oils remaining on board the aircraft c. Fuel, oil, spare parts and aircraft stores plus any regular equipment that is on board the aircraft d. Un-bonded goods under the strict supervision of customs 4. You are flying a UAE registered aircraft over Germany. Whose Rules of the Air must you obey? a. ICAO's b. UAE's c. JAA's d. Germany's 5. When can an ICAO aircraft make flights into the airspace of another contracting state without permission? a. if it is a non-scheduled flight b. !f it is a scheduled flight c. Never d. If it is not carrying passengers 6. When entering into another country's airspace, the licence of the Pilot-in- Command must have been issued by the authority of: a. The state of aircraft registration b. Any JAA member state c. The State of Airworthiness d. Any contracting ICAO state 7. Which rules of the air govern the entry and departure of international air traffic into and out of a foreign state? a. ICAO's b. The foreign state's c. International Rules and Regulations d. lATA's 8. A state must recognise as valid the C of A of another member state if the C o f A : a. Was issued in accordance with ICAO requirements and standards b. Was issued in accordance with international requirements and standards c. Is valid and current d. Was issued in accordance with the State of Registry 9. The C of R must be: a. Carried in the aircraft at a!! times and may be a copy of the original b. Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form issued c. Signed by the Pilot-in-Command d. Held in safe-keeping at the aerodrome of departure Page 1 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 10. All contracting states recognise that every state has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. Is this statement true? a. Yes b. No 11. Who has the responsibility to ensure that all aircraft entering a state's airspace obey that state's ruies and regulations? a. The state of aircraft registration b. The state issuing the C of A of the aircraft c. The state which regulates the airspace in which the aircraft is operating d. ICAO 12. An aircraft which has failed its C of A but nevertheless has written details of the reasons why it had so failed shall: a. Not take part in international navigation b. Be allowed to depart another contracting state's airspace but cannot enter it c. Be allowed to enter another contracting state's airspace but cannot depart until all the failures are rectified d. Not take part in international navigation except with the permission of the state, or states whose territory is entered 13. All UK registered aircraft are subject to the provisions of the ANO and the Rules of the Air Regulations: a. Only when inside UK territorial airspace b. Only when within the airspace of any ICAO contracting State c. Anywhere at any time d. Only if they carry a C of A issued by the UK CAA 14. What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as "The Chicago Convention?" a. The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation b. The Convention on International Civil Aviation c. The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation d. The Convention on International Civil Transportation 15. According to the Chicago Convention which of the following documents, amongst others, are required to be carried in the aircraft on an international flight? a. Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration {C of R) and crew passports b. Crew licences and log books, journey log book and, if applicable, Radio Station Licence c. Crew licences, journey log book and, if applicable, the cargo manifest and a detailed declaration of the cargo d. Passports for a!! crew and passengers, Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of R) 16. The U.K. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is subdivided into the following sections: a. GEN, AGA, ENR and AD b. AGA, ENR and AD c. GEN, AGA and ENR d. GEN, ENR and AD 17. Can a state search a visiting aircraft from another contracting state without permission? a. No b. Yes c. Only if a crime is reasonably suspected d. Only if it is reasonably suspected that the aircraft is carrying inadmissible passengers 18. What does ICAO Annex 2 concern itself with? a. Personnel Licensing b. Facilitation c. Rules of the Air d. Aerodromes 19. What ICAO Annex covers the Airworthiness of Aircraft? a. Annex 8 b. Annex 9 c. Annex 12 d. Annex 14 Page 2 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 20. What organisation will take over the responsibilities and role of the JAA? a. IATA b. ECAC c. EU d. EASA 21. The Chicago Convention recognises that: a. Every State has sovereignty over airspace above its territory up to FL660 b. Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory c. Every Contracting State has complete but not exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory d. Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territorial waters 22. Under the Chicago Convention, the Territory of a State consists of: a. Its total land area b. Its total land areas and up to 10 miles of its surrounding territoriai waters (if any) c. The land areas and its adjacent territorial waters d. Its total land areas and up to 25 miles of its surrounding territorial waters (if any) 23. All aircraft entering or departing from a State must obey the laws and regulations of: a. The State of Registry of the aircraft b. ICAO c. The State in question d. The State having jurisdiction over the Customs Laws 24. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false? a. True, provided they are in the same class b. False. The one that has the other on its left is required to give way c. True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow d. The Rules of the High Seas apply 25. An aircraft is not permitted to fly over a congested area below 1000 feet above the highest fixed obstacle within 600 metres of the aircraft, except in the following circumstances: a. When carrying out a practice forced landing b. When necessary to fix one's position on a cross-country flight c. When landing or taking off d. When carrying out a low flying exercise with a qualified flying instructor 26. What is the definition of Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)? a. Meteorological conditions in which all flights must take place in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) b. A set of rules which defines how aircraft are to be flown with reference to external, visual features c. Meteorological conditions in which only VFR flights may take place d. Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and cloud ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima 27. What is the basic presumption about VFR flight? a. That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR b. That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions c. That the flight will only take place in Class F or G airspace d. That the flight will not take place above FL180 28. In uncontrolled airspace, below FL 100, and above 3 000 feet AMSL or 1 000 feet above terrain, whichever is the higher, what are the VMC minima? a. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with an in-flight visibility of 5 km b. 1 000 feet vertical and 1 500 m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 5 km c. 1 000 feet vertical and 1 500 m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 8 km d. Clear of cloud and with an in-flight visibility of 8 kms. Page 3 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 29. An aircraft following a road, railway line, river, canal or other line feature should keep such a feature: a. On its left b. On its right c. Directly underneath it d. On its left during the day and on the right at night 30. With certain exceptions, an aircraft must not fly closer than _______ feetto any person, vessel, vehicle or structure unless it is landing or taking off in accordance with normal aviation practice. Select the correct minimum separation distance from the following options: a. 1 000 feet b. 500 feet c. 1 500 feet d. 1 000 m 31. When a pilot, for the purposes of practising instrument flight, is flying under simulated Instrument Meteorological Conditions such that his ability to see outside the cockpit is artificially restricted, which of the following regulations applies? a. An observer must also be present in the cockpit b. The exercise must be carried out at a licensed airfield c. An appropriately qualified safety pilot must be present in one of the control seats, if necessary, an additional observer may need to be carried to ensure that an adequate lookout is being kept d. The exercise must be carried out as part of a commercial or air transport pilot's licence flying training course at an approved Flying Training Organisation 32. Which SSR Code should be selected to indicate radio failure? a. 7700 + Mode C b. 7500 + Mode C c. 7000 d. 7600 + Mode C 33. The definition "flying machine" may refer to: a. Any aircraft of any category or classification b. Fixed wing aircraft only c. Gliders and power-driven aeroplanes or dirigibles d. Any heavier-than-air, power-driven aircraft 34. You are about to overtake an aircraft at night from a position behind and almost immediately astern of the other aircraft. Which of its navigation Sights will you see? a. A white and a red light b. A white light only c. It depends on which side you are overtaking the other aircraft d. Awhite and a green light 35. When flying in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules in uncontrolled airspace, responsibility for maintaining VMC and terrain clearance rests with: a. Any Air Traffic Control Unit with whom the pilot is in contact b. The Pilot-in-Command c. Any radar controller with whom the pilot is in contact d. Any Air Traffic Service Unit with whom the pilot is in contact 36. The definition of night, unless otherwise specified by a national aviation authority is: a. From the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight b. From the beginning to the end of civil twilight c. From the beginning of evening civil twilight to the end of morning civil twilight d. From the end of morning civil twilight to the beginning of evening civil twilight 37. If two aircraft are converging while taxiing on the apron, what is the priority rule? a. The aircraft which has the other aircraft on its right shall give way b. The aircraft which has the other aircraft on its left shall give way c. The aircraft which is farthest from a taxiway centre line shall give way d. The smaller of the two aircraft shall give way Page 4 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 38. The navigation lights of a flying machine or airship should cover the following arcs: green and red wingtip-lights ______ degrees each side from dead ahead and a white tail-light ______ degrees either side of dead astern. a. 220 140 b. 110 70 c. 100 90 d. 90 90 39. Which of a), b), c) and d) below, most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircraft are on final approach: a. The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order b. The lower performance aircraft has right of way c. The higher aircraft has the right of way d. The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the right of way 40. Which of a), b), c) and d) below, provides the most correct conclusion to the following statement? In order to minimise the risk of collision, the following rules apply when aircraft of different categories are converging: a. Powered aeroplanes must give way to airships, gliders and balloons b. Gliders must give way to powered aeroplanes and airships c. Airships must give way to powered aeroplanes, gliders and balloons d. Tug-aircraft with a glider on tow must give way to all other airspace users 41. Complete the following sentence correctly. Except with permission of the Authority: a. No aircraft shall fly within 500 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 500 people b. No aircraft shall fly within 500 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 1 000 people c. No aircraft shall fly within 1 000 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 500 people d. No aircraft shall fly within 1 000 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 1 000 people 42. While flying at night, as the pilot-in-command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, which maintain a constant relative bearing from you of 050 degrees. Is there a risk of collision? And who has right of way? a. Yes. You do b. Yes. The other aircraft does c. No. The other aircraft does d. No. You do 43. As you are taxiing back to the apron you encounter a tractor towing an aircraft. Your correct course of action is to: a. Stop b. Continue because you have right of way c. Turn right d. Give way to the tractor/aircraft combine; it has the right of way 44. You are IFR in VMC and experience a communication failure. Your correct actions are to: a. Adhere to your flight plan and continue to your destination b. Continue in VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report your arrival to the appropriate ATSU c. Land immediately d. Adhere to your last ATC clearance for 20 minutes and then revert to your filed flight plan continuing to your planned destination 45. You are intercepted by a fighter aircraft. On which frequency would you try and establish contact? a. The frequency with which you are in contact at the moment of interception b. 121.5 MHz c. 2182 MHz d. 500 KHz 46. Whilst maintaining a steady course, level and speed you see another aircraft in your 2 o'clock about 4 nautical miles away and at the same level as yourself. The danger of collision exists if the other aircraft a. appears to get bigger b. Remains in the same relative position c. Appears to be overtaking you, by moving towards your 12 o'clock d. Appears to be dropping behind you, moving towards your 4 o'clock Page 5 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 47. When are navigation lights required to be shown? a. When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome b. From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority c. Whenever the Pilot-in-Command thinks it is sensible to switch them on d. At night or when specified by the authority If 48. Two aircraft are approaching head on: a. Both aircraft must turn left b. A powered aircraft must give way to a glider by turning right c. Both aircraft should turn right regardless of aircraft type d. The larger aircraft should give way by turning right 49. If you were following a river which flows from east to west while maintaining a track of 270° True, which side of the river must you fly? a. To the North of the river, because you must fly to the right of the line feature b. To the South of the river, because you should fly to the left of the line feature c. Directly overhead the river d. Either side of the river as long as you keep a good look out for other aircraft 50. You see a red light of another aircraft on your right and it remains on a constant relative bearing. What must you do? a. Continue to maintain heading and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft b. Take avoiding action; you are probably on a collision course c. Continue to maintain heading, altitude and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft d. Immediately descend 51. You see a red and green light of another aircraft straight ahead of you. What must you do? a. Immediately turn left b. Immediately turn right c. Immediately descend d. Immediately climb 52. During the course of a night flight, you notice that a navigation light has failed; the correct action to be followed is: a. Make a "PAN" call on the frequency in use and proceed on planned route to destination b. Land as soon as practically possible unless permission to continue to your destination is given by the appropriate ATCU c. Sf the anti-collision light is working, switch off the navigation Sights and continue to destination d. Land at the nearest suitable airfield 53. You see a red light of another aircraft on your left. What must you do? a. Continue to maintain heading and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft; the aircraft is heading in an opposite direction to you b. Take avoiding action c. Continue to maintain heading, altitude and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft d. Immediately descend 54. In level flight at night, from your aircraft, you see an anti-collision beacon and a red navigation light. The lights are at the same altitude as yourself and are steady at 2 o' clock and closing. This indicates that there is: a. An airship which should give way to you b. A flying machine which should give way to you c. A flying machine to which you should give way d. No threat 55. An aircraft is considered to be overtaking another when the faster aircraft is approaching from behind within: a. 10° of the extended centreline of the aircraft b. 20° of the extended centreline of the aircraft c. 70° of the extended centreline of the aircraft d. 80° of the extended centreline of the aircraft Page 6 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 56. During a flight, by day, a pilot notices that an anti-collision light is inoperative. Which of the following actions is correct? a. He should land as soon as safe to do so unless authorised by ATC to continue the flight b. He may continue flight by day provided that the light is repaired at the earliest practical opportunity c. He must land as soon as possible and get the light repaired d. Provided the aircraft is flown VFR only, the problem may be ignored 57. What is a Common Mark? a. The markings of an aircraft that has not received a C of A b. The markings of an aircraft owned by an international agency c. The markings of an aircraft owned by two or three different operators d. The markings of an aircraft that is shared by two owners 58. Which of the following would be an illegal registration marking? a. MINE b. PPP c. TTT d. YOU 59. From which organisation does the Nationality Mark originate? a. The Chicago Convention b. The State of Manufacture c. The International Telecommunication Union d. The State of Design 60. An aircraft's markings on its wings must be at least: a. 30 cms high b. 30 inches high c. 50 inches high d. 50 cms high 61. Where must an aircraft's identification plate be located? a. Inside the pilot's access door by the handle b. In a prominent location close to the middle of the instrument panel c. In a prominent location anywhere on the outside of the fuselage d. In a prominent location near the main entrance 62. Which State is responsible for issuing the registration mark of an aircraft? a. The State of Manufacture b. The State of Design c. The State of Registration d. The State of the Operator 63. The identity plate must be made of: a. Any metal b. Any material c. No particular material is specified d. Fire-proof metal 64. Is the State of Registration responsible for the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft? a. No b. Yes at all times c. Only in the case of aircraft over 5 700 kgs d. Only when required to do so by ICAO 65. Where is the validity of a C of A specified? a. In the national AIP b. In the Aircraft Flight Manual c. In the Certificate of Registration (C of R) d. In the C of A itself Page 7 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 66. When an ICAO Contracting State issues an aircraft with a C of A, do other Contracting States have to recognise the C of A as valid? a. Only if the aircraft is flying outside ICAO airspace b. No c. Yes d. Only if it is flying within the airspace of the State of Registry 67. Information on aircraft placards is for: a. Flight crew only b. Ground crew only c. Flight crew, ground crew and the general public d. Both flight and ground crew 68. Safety and survival equipment must be: a. Kept under the passenger seats b. Inspected every week c. Easily identifiable d. Not be kept near aircraft emergency exits 69. In which document would you normally find the oil pressure limitations for your aircraft? a. Operation Manual b. Aircraft Placard c. The Flight Manual or Pilot's Operating Handbook d. The Technical Log 70. Which ICAO Annex concerns itself with Airworthiness? a. Annex 8 b. Annex 9 c. Annex6 d. Annex 7 71. What is the validity of the C of A? a. 1 year b. According to the Rules and Regulations of the State of Registry c. According to the Rules and Regulations of ICAO d. 6 months 72. Which of the following is included in the C of A? a. Empty weight C of G position b. Aircraft Category c. The Maximum Take-Off Mass d. The name and address of the owner 73. You are a private pilot but hold neither an instrument rating nor an IMC rating. How would you enter a CTR which is Class A airspace? a. Complete a flight plan prior to departure b. Request a SVFR clearance to enter the Zone c. Call 10 minutes prior to CTR penetration d. You can enter the CTR as long as the conditions are VMC 74. In which class of airspace are both IFR and VFR flights permitted, all flights are provided with ATC, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information concerning VFR flights while VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights? a. Class B b. Class C c. Class D d. Class E Page 8 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 75. What is the Indicated Airspeed limit in Ciass C Airspace for VFR traffic? a. 120 kts TAS below 10 000 feet b. There is no specified speed limit c. 250 kts IAS below FL 100 d. 120 kts 76. What airspace/s are considered "Controlled Airspace"? a. A only b. A, B, C and D only c. A, B, C, D and E only d. A, B, C, D, E and F only 77. What are the 3 types of Air Traffic Services? a. Air Traffic Control Service (ATCS), Flight Information Service (FIS) and the Alerting Service b. ATCS, FIS and Radar c. ATCS, Advisory Service and Alerting Service d. Alerting Service, Advisory Service and Radar 78. What is the definition of 'Alerting Service'? a. A service provided by the air traffic services which provides search and rescue facilities b. A service provided by the air traffic services in order to disseminate information about any aircraft in need of assistance c. A service provided by the air traffic services in order to notify appropriate organizations about aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organizations, as required d. A unit of the air traffic services established to coordinate search and rescue operations 79. An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of Unlawful Interference (hi-jack). What phase of the Alerting Service should be declared? a. Emergency Phase b. Uncertainty Phase c. Alert Phase d. Distress Phase 80. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing, and communications have not been re-established. What phase of the Alerting Service should be declared? a. Emergency Phase b. Alert Phase c. Uncertainty Phase d. Distress Phase 81. Which organisation is responsible for the coordination of Search and Rescue efforts within a State? a. Flight Information Centre b. Air Traffic Control Centre c. Approach Control Centre d. Rescue Coordination Centre 82. To which of the following is the Alerting Service available? a. All aircraft in Class F airspace b. Any aircraft known to the air traffic services c. All aircraft in Class G airspace d. To all aircraft more than 15 minutes late at the destination airfield 83. No communication has been received from an aircraft within 30 minutes after the time a communication should have been received. What phase of the Alerting Service must be declared? a. Emergency Phase b. Uncertainty Phase c. Alert Phase d. Distress Phase Page 9 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 84. What is the standard width of an airway? a. 10 nautical miles b. 5 nautical miles c. 8 nautical miles d. 3 nautical miles 85. What is the boundary separating the Flight Information Region from the Upper Information Region? a. The national aviation authority of the State concerned sets the boundary b. FL250 c. 3000 feet d. FL100 86. What is the difference between a Control Zone (CTR) and a Control Area (CTA)? a. A CTR extends from a Flight Level (FL) to a FL whereas a CTA extends from an altitude to an altitude b. A CTA extends from a FL to a FL whereas a CTR extends from an altitude to an altitude c. A CTR extends from a FL to a FL whereas a CTA extends from the ground or water to an altitude d. A CTR extends from the ground or water to an altitude or FL whereas a CTA extends from an altitude or FL to a higher altitude or FL 87. What meteorological conditions must prevail in order for a flight to take place in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules? a. At least IMC b. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface c. 5 km in-flight visibility, with 1500 metres horizontal and 1000 feet vertical separation from cloud d. VMC appropriate to the Class of Airspace in which the aircraft is flying and appropriate to its vertical position 88. What minimum level of air traffic service is provided in a Flight Information Region? a. A Flight Information Service and an Alerting Service b. ATC and Flight Information Service c. ATC and Advisory Service d. Advisory and Alerting Services 89. Where is a TMA most likely to be found? a. At the confluence of airways or controlled routes and in the vicinity of one or more major airports b. In the vicinity of an International Airport c. When special routes are required for arrivals and departures d. In the vicinity of Controlled Aerodromes 90. Which class of airspace provides IFR flights with an Air Traffic Advisory Service and all flights with a Flight Information Service, if requested? a. B b. D c. G d. F 91. What may be the lowest point of the CTA according to ICAO regulations? a. From any specified height above the ground or water b. From a specified height above ground or water being not less than 700 feet c. At least 1000 feet amsl d. There is no such regulation 92. You are about to enter an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) of an airfield at which you have received prior permission to land, immediately upon entering the ATZ you must report your; a. Height and magnetic heading b. Height and position c. Altitude and magnetic heading d. Flight Rules and magnetic heading Page 10 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 93. What is the lowest level of a CTA permitted by international agreement? a. Not lower than 700 feet above the surface of the ground or water b. Not lower than 1000 feet above the surface of the ground or water c. Not lower than 1500 feet above the surface of the ground or water d. Not lower than 500 feet above the surface of the ground or water 94. What is the Class Airspace in which both VFR and IFR traffic is controlled and in which IFR and SVFR flights are separated from each other and receive information regarding VFR traffic, and in which VFR traffic receives information regarding all other traffic? a. A b. E c. C d. D 95. What action may a Pilot-in-Command elect to take if he judges that an ATC clearance does not suit his circumstances? a. He should say nothing to the air traffic controller and proceed in the manner he judges to be most suitable to his circumstances b. He may request an amended clearance c. He must accept the ATC clearance without question d. He must inform the air traffic controller of his intentions and then proceed as he judges to be most suitable to his circumstances 96. What are the lateral dimensions of a Control Zone? a. 10 nautical miles in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the aerodrome or, where more than one aerodrome is covered, 10 nautical miles from the centre of the combined aerodromes in the direction from which approaches are made b. 5 nautical miles in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the aerodrome or, where more than one aerodrome is covered, 10 nautical miles from the centre of the combined aerodromes in the direction from which approaches are made c. 5 kilometres in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the aerodrome or, where more than one aerodrome is covered, 5 kilometres from the centre of the combined aerodromes in the direction from which approaches are made d. 5 nautical miles in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the aerodrome or, where more than one aerodrome is covered, 5 nautical miles from the centre of the combined aerodromes in the direction from which approaches are made 97. A service provided by an Air Traffic Control Unit for all controlled flights arriving at or departing from an aerodrome is called: a. An Area Control Service b. An Approach Control Service c. A Flight Information Service d. An Alerting Service 98. If the actual or forecast conditions give the visibility and cloud base as less than specified minimum weather conditions and the distance from cloud is seen also to be less than specified minima, the prevailing weather conditions are referred to as: a. VMC b. IMC c. VFR d. IFR 99. During a Controlled Flight, your actual TAS is 120 kts however your flight planned TAS is 115 kts. Must you inform ATSU? a. Only if requested by ATC b. Yes c. No d. Only if you are outside CAS 100. Is the PIC of an aircraft obliged to accept an ATC clearance? a. Yes Page 11 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR b. c. d. No Only if it is an IFR clearance Only is it is to be a controlled flight 101. By when must you submit a Flight Plan prior to departure if you wish to be provided with an ATC service? a. 30 minutes b. It depends whether you intend to fly VFR or IFR c. It depends on whether you will be flying in Controlled Air Space (CAS) or outside CAS d. 60 minutes 102. What event closes a flight plan? a. Landing at the destination aerodrome b. Arriving overhead the destination aerodrome c. The receipt of an Arrival Report d. Being on short finals 103. You have flight planned to arrive over a Reporting Point at 1400Z. However, due to an unexpected tailwind, you realize that you will arrive at 1355Z. Do you have to inform the relevant ATCU? a. Yes b. No c. Only if you are outside Controlled Air Space d. Only if you are conducting the flight under Special VFR 104. Do you have to submit a Flight Plan if you are crossing the London/Brest FIR boundary under VFR? a. Yes b. No 105. You are entering an advisory route (ADR) under !FR. Do you have to submit a Flight Plan? a. Yes b. No c. Only if that part of the ADR is Controlled Air Space d. Only if that part of the ADR is an ATS route 106. You have to cross an Airway. How soon prior to penetration must you file an in-flight Flight Plan? a. At least 5 minutes b. At least 10 minutes c. At least 15 minutes d. There is no set time limit 107. Your take-off is delayed for an uncontrolled flight. At what point must you resubmit your Flight Plan? a. 30 minutes in excess of Estimated Off-Blocks Time (EOBT) b. 45 minutes in excess of EOBT c. 60 minutes in excess of EOBT d. 90 minutes in excess of EOBT 108. Must you enter your wake turbulence category in a Flight Plan? a. Only if the aircraft is in the Heavy category b. No c. Only if the aircraft is in the Medium or Heavy categories d. Yes 109. Do you have to send an in-flight Flight Plan to unexpectedly enter a CTR under SVFR? a. Only if you are a Controlled Flight b. Only if you are an Uncontrolled Flight c. No d. Yes Page 12 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 110. You are a Controlled VFR Flight landing at a private strip in a valley in Scotland. Your estimated landing time is exactly that which you entered in the Flight Plan prior to departure. As you descend you call ATC to inform them you are landing but receive no answer. What would be the correct course of action? a. No further action is necessary as your ETA is accurate b. Wait until your next take-off and, when airborne, inform ATC of the circumstances c. Assume your radio has failed and have it tested as soon as possible after landing d. Either climb and re-establish communications with ATC or telephone ATC as soon as possible (and within 30 minutes) after landing passing them your Arrival Report 111. What is one of the primary functions of an Air Traffic Clearance? a. To agree to allow a flight to proceed b. To ensure separation of aircraft c. To acknowledge that the information of the flight details have been logged by ATC d. To acknowledge that ATC is now responsible for the flight 112. How is an abbreviated Flight Plan normally submitted? a. By e-mail or fax b. Over the radio or by telephone c. By filling out only specific parts of the Flight Plan form d. in person 113. Contracting States are responsible for providing an Aeronautical Information Service for the operational requirements of: a. Flight Crew only b. Operational staff only c. Those involved in Flight Operations (including flight crew), flight planning, flight simulators and the ATSU responsible for pre-flight Information d. All flight crew, ATC and Operations staff 114. What are the names of the 3 parts of an AIP? a. AGA, AD and GEN b. ENR, AGA and GEN c. ENR, AD and AGA d. GEN, ENR and AD 115. What kind of information is contained in a NOTAM? a. Information of permanent changes only b. Temporary and short-termed information only c. Temporary changes of long duration which are made at short Notice d. Information of permanent changes, temporary and short-term information and temporary changes of long duration which are made at short notice 116. What information is contained in a Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB)? a. NOTAMS and local operational information relevant to a particular aerodrome b. Information of major changes {e.g. the introduction of a new airway) c. Details of Danger, Restricted and Prohibited Areas within the UK d. Information of general interest to pilots (e.g. information with regards to low level turbulence or altimeter errors) 117. How is information of a purely explanatory or advisory nature published? a. In a NOTAM b. In an Aeronautical Information Circular c. In an AIRAC d. in an Pre-Flight Information Bulletin Page 13 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 118. A light aircraft is entering a runway from an intermediate point, following a heavy aircraft which is taking-off. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation which must be applied? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes 119. ICAO divides separation into three types. These are: a. Lateral, Longitudinal and Vertical b. Vertical, Longitudinal and Composite c. Vertical, Lateral and Composite d. Vertical, Horizontal and Composite 120. What is the normal minimum longitudinal radar separation between two aircraft following the same track? a. 5 nautical miles b. 5 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 10 nautical miles 121. Which of the following statements is true? a. Procedural (non-radar) wake turbulence separation is measured in distance b. Radar wake turbulence separation is measured in time c. Radar separation is normally closer than procedural separation d. Procedural separation is normally closer than radar separation 122. What is the normal minimum longitudinal non-radar separation between two aircraft following the same track? a. 15 nautical miles b. 15 minutes c. 10 nautical miles d. 10 minutes 123. What is the minimum lateral separation between two aircraft using the same VOR? a. 15° at 15 nautical miles b. 30° at 15 nautical miles c. 45° at 15 nautical miles d. 30° at 20 nautical miles 124. In which of the following circumstances is wake turbulence separation applied? a. When operating below 700 feet, on finals b. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1 000 feet above the leading aircraft c. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1 000 feet below the leading aircraft d. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 500 feet below the leading aircraft 125. What is the Maximum Take-Off Mass of a medium category aircraft in terms of its Wake Turbulence Category? a. Between 136 000 kgs and 7 000 kgs inclusive b. Below 136 000 kgs and above 7 000 kgs c. Below 130 000 kgs and above 7 000 kgs d. Below 136 000 kgs and above 8 000 kgs 126. If the pilot of a following aircraft is concerned about the separation he has been given by ATC, what action should be taken? a. None. ATC are solely responsible for separation between aircraft and have their own safety factors built in to separation minima b. The pilot should inform ATC about his concern and receive clearance to increase the separation between the two aircraft c. The pilot must increase the separation between the two aircraft. There is no need to inform ATC since the pilot ultimately is responsible for the safety of the aircraft d. The pilot must decrease the separation between the two aircraft. There is no need to inform ATC since the pilot ultimately is responsible for the safety of the aircraft Page 14 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 127. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft from the same point on the runway? a. 5 minutes b. 5 nautical miles c. 2 minutes d. 2 nautical miles 128. What colour are the markings on runways? a. Yellow b. Green c. Yellow or white d. White 129. What is the colour of the markings on taxiways? a. Yellow b. Green c. Yellow or white d. White 130. What is the definition of a "damp" runway? a. The surface is soaked but there is no standing water b. The runway has a shiny appearance due to the moisture c. The surface shows a change of colour due to the moisture d. The runway is affected by moisture but it is safe for landing operations 131. A hand-held signalling lamp is to be held in Control Towers. What colours must it be capable of signalling? a. White or red only b. White, red or green c. Green or red only d. White, red, green or blue 132. An aerodrome has no Signals Area. What does this imply? a. It has no significance. Aerodromes may or may not have a Signals Area and the choice as to whether to have one or not is that of the owner of the Aerodrome b. Except in an emergency no non-radio aircraft will be accepted c. The aerodrome can only be used by day d. Only IFR traffic is accepted 133. What is the basic marking for a displaced threshold? a. A yellow chevron marking at the end of the runway b. Two white arrows at the end of the runway c. A white transverse stripe d. A single white arrow at the end of the runway 134. Which holding position is closest to the runway? a. Pattern 'A' b. Pattern 'B’ c. Pattern ‘C' d. Can be any of the above depending on the length of the runway 135. What colours indicate mandatory markings and signs? a. Yellow lettering on a black background b. Black lettering on a yellow background c. Red lettering on a white background d. White lettering on a red background Page 15 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 136. An Aerodrome Beacon flashes in what colour(s)? a. Green b. White c. Red d. White or green and white 137. What colour are threshold lights? a. Red b. Green c. Green threshold lights and red end lights d. Red and green 138. What colour are taxiway side lights? a. Red b. Green c. White d. Blue 139. What colour are taxiway centreline lights? a. Yellow b. Green c. Red d. Blue 140. How is a Location Sign depicted? a. Yellow lettering on a black background b. Black lettering on a yellow background c. Red lettering on a white background d. White lettering on a red background 141. How is a closed runway indicated? a. White cross b. Yellow cross c. With the use of barriers d. The word "CLOSED" in white 142. How is a non-load bearing surface to the side of a taxiway depicted? a. A white side stripe b. Yellow side stripes c. A yellow or white side stripe d. A yellow and white side stripe 143. What is the Response Time for Fire and Rescue? a. Not exceeding 1 minute b. Not exceeding 2 minutes c. Not exceeding 3 minutes d. Not exceeding 5 minutes 144. An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency will display what colour flashing light? a. White b. Green c. Yellow d. Blue 145. An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency has priority over: a. All vehicles b. All aircraft only c. All surface movements d. It has no special priority Page 16 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR 146. All aerodromes must have: a. At least 2 windsocks b. At least 1 windsock c. At least 1 windsock and a Landing T d. At least 2 windsocks and a Landing T 147. Runway approach lights are: a. White and can be adjusted for brightness b. White and cannot be adjusted for brightness c. Red and can be adjusted d. Red and cannot be adjusted 148. Runway side lights are: a. Green b. White c. Blue d. Red Page 17 of 18 Questionnaire Aviation Law / CAR Page 18 of 18 Questionnaire