Air Law Past Paper PDF

1\. To compute local time in the UAE form UTC a\. UTC - 3 hours b\. UTC - 4 hours c\. UTC + 4 hours 2\. Windshear warnings are only issued when: a\. The forecast indicates a possibility of cumulonimbus clouds b\. Windshear is reported by aircraft c\. Low level inversion is expected 3\. VFR f...

1\. To compute local time in the UAE form UTC a\. UTC - 3 hours b\. UTC - 4 hours c\. UTC + 4 hours 2\. Windshear warnings are only issued when: a\. The forecast indicates a possibility of cumulonimbus clouds b\. Windshear is reported by aircraft c\. Low level inversion is expected 3\. VFR flights operating in Class E airspace are required: a\. to send position reports every half hour of flight b\. to stay below 10 000 feet AMSL at all times c\. to carry on SSR transponder Mode "C" 4\. Class D airspace within UAE FIR: a\. Has a varying upper limit but always starts from the surface b\. Starts from the surface up to 1 500' AMSL c\. Has a varying lower limit above the ground but always ends at 5 500' AMSL 5\. The service provided for VFR flights in Class G airspace is: a\. Flight Information Service b\. ii)Traffic information as far as practicable c\. Both (a) and (b) are correct 6\. Unless otherwise requested by ATC, position reports may be omitted: a\. When receiving radar service b\. When departing a controlled airport c\. When operating as a controlled flight within the UAE FIR 7\. Whilst under radar control, aircraft experiencing a radio failure shall: a\. Select Mode A code 7600 b\. Maintain last assigned heading and level for a period of five minutes c\. Squawk ident then select mode A code 7700 AIR LAW TEST 8\. For the entire UAE FIR, the transition altitude and level are fixed at: a\. FL 150 and 13 000' respectively b\. 12 500' and FL 180 respectively c\. 13 000' and FL 150 respectively 9\. While the table of cruising levels applies to uncontrolled VFR flights, a\. VFR flights in controlled airspace may select any cruising level. b\. ATC will normally assign IFR cruising altitudes to controlled VFR flights c\. Controlled VFR flights must follow the table of cruising levels any time they operate below 3 000 feet above the surface 10\. In class E airspace , the pilot of a VFR flight planning to fly a track heading towards the southwest should select an altitude of: a\. 4 000 feet b\. 4 500 feet c\. 5 000 feet 11\. In order to reduce the possibility of being intercepted by the UAE air defence fighters in the absence of any ATC directions: a\. Squawk 7700 b\. Squawk 1200 c\. Squawk 2000 12\. The lower and upper limits of the UAE upper information region are: a\. 12 500 feet and FL 145 respectively b\. FL 145 and UNL respectively c\. Surface and UNL respectively 13\. Class G airspace lower and upper limits are: a\. Surface and 4 500 feet respectively b\. Surface and FL 145 respectively c\. 4 500 and FL 145 respectively 14\. Alternating flashing white and green lights within an airport area indicates: a\. That the airport is safe for landing b\. A civil airport c\. The location of the Helipad area on the airport AIR LAW TEST 15\. While en-route at night, you observed a single flashing white light on the ground. This could indicate: a\. A hazard b\. A military airport c\. A sea port 16\. On a sectional chart, the letters OMD1 indicate: a\. The first UAE aerodrome b\. A danger area c\. An Omni Directional Range Station 17\. The symbol OMR60 on aeronautical chart indicates: a\. An area requiring an ATC clearance to penetrate b\. An Omni Directional Range station c\. A danger area which is restricted to military use 18\. You can find information about an aerodrome such as type of fuel available, threshold elevation and slopes, details of taxiways, ATC frequencies and administrative data: a\. In the aerodrome section in the AIP b\. Within the sectional and approach charts c\. In the airport facility directory of the UAE 19\. In the event you experience an unlawful interference with your duties as a crew member of an aeroplane and experience what you believe to be hijacking, you should adjust your transponder code to: OR What is the squawk code to indicate hijack or unlawful interference? a\. 7500 b\. 7600 c\. 7700 20\. To indicate communication failure, which squawk code is used? a\. 7500 b\. 7600 c\. 7700 21\. What is the maximum permissible airspeed below 10 000 feet for a VFR flight in class C airspace? a\. Not applicable b\. 250 mph c\. 250 kt 22\. What is the maximum permissible airspeed below 10 000 feet for a VFR flight in class B airspace? a\. Not applicable b\. 250 mph c\. 250 kt 23\. Position reports in class E airspace to be made: a\. every half hour of flight b\. after the first 30 minutes then every hour c\. every hour at night only 24\. To calculate local time from UTC you should: a\. Subtract 3 hours b\. Subtract 4 hours c\. Add 4 hours 25\. Radio transponder code when entering UAE FIR without assigned code is: a\. 7700 b\. 1200 c\. 2000 26\. If the local time in UAE is 10:00. What will it be in UTC? a\. 14:00 b\. 18:00 c\. 06:00 27\. UAE Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is: a\. Advisory in nature b\. Regulatory in nature c\. Mandatory in nature 28 For unrestricted operation in MNPS airspace an aeroplane must be equipped with: a\. 2 Flight Management System (FMS) b\. 2 Long Range Navigation System (LNRS) c\. 2 Global Positioning System (GPS) 29\. For isolated aerodrome procedure, when no suitable alternate aerodrome is available, the amount of fuel at departure should be for additional a\. 2 hours b\. 1 hour c\. 3 hours 30\. An operator shall not assign a pilot to act as commander of an aeroplane unless he conducts: a\. 3 takeoffs and landings within previous 90 days in that category, class and type of aircraft b\. 3 takeoffs and landings c\. 3 takeoffs and landings between the hrs of sunset and sunrise d\. 3 takeoffs and landings between the hours of sunrise and sunset 31\. On over water flights, for multiengine aeroplane, life-rafts and survival ELTs are required to be carried on board, when the aeroplane operates greater than: a\. 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles to an aerodrome b\. 120 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles to an aerodrome c\. 30 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles to an aerodrome d\. 30 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles to an aerodrome 32\. In the event of a critical power unit failure at any point during takeoff, the aeroplane shall be able to a\. 50 feet b\. 35 feet c\. 60 feet 33\. Choose the correct statement regarding landing, "In the event the commander decides to continue below DA/H or MDA/H of the CAT I or CAT II approaches": Ans: Visual can be maintained until landing 34\. A letter of Licence Validation in the UAE is valid for: a\. 60 days b\. 30 days c\. 90 days d\. 120 days 35\. Pilot shall not accept dangerous goods unless he received training in accordance to: a\. CAR PART VI b\. CAR PART III c\. CAR PART I 36\. What is the RVR limit for CAT I approach with full facilities and a DH of 200' a\. 75M b\. 550M c\. 125M 37\. The mass of an aeroplane at the start of takeoff shall not exceed the maximum takeoff mass mentioned in: a\. Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM) b\. AFM for ambient temperature and pressure altitude at the takeoff aerodrome c\. Performance data in the AFM 38\. Under what circumstances may a pilot carry out CAT II approach? a\. Company Authorisation b\. GCAA Authorisation c\. AOC Authorisation 39\. An operator shall not operate a non pressurized aeroplane at altitudes above 10000 ft. unless supplemental oxygen equipment supply for: a\. All passengers for entire flight time at pressure altitude above 10000 ft. b\. All flight deck crew for entire flight time at pressure altitude above 13000 ft. c\. 10% of passengers for entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude between 10000 ft and 13000 ft. 40\. Documents which must be carries on board each flight are listed in: a\. CAR PART IV b\. CAR PART III c\. CAR PART II 41\. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane other than in accordance with the: a\. Master MEL b\. Minimum Equipment List (MEL) c\. Manufacturer's MEL 42\. Medical validity for a 36 year old ATP licensed pilot: a\. 12 months Class II b\. 6 months Class I c\. 12 months Class I 43\. A pilot who deviated from any rule under the CAR's shall submit a written report to the GCAA: a\. immediately b\. within 24 hours c\. within 10 days 44\. An altitude altering system is required for operation of what type of aircraft? a\. All aircraft b\. \< 5700 kg aircraft c\. \> 5700 kg aircraft 45\. What is the published maximum indicated airspeed in class C airspace a\. 250 KTS below 10000 feet b\. 200 KTS below 10000 feet c\. 250 KTS above 10000 feet 46\. An air operator shall not utilize a second in command of an aeroplane unless the pilot has: a\. a valid licence and medical b\. a valid licence for the type of aircraft c\. completed licence requirements 47\. In the event of interception of an aircraft during day light hours and no radio contacts are available a\. Lowering and raising landing gear b\. Switching on and off all available lights c\. Rocking aircraft's wings 48\. Pressurized aircraft on flights over 25000 feet MSL must carry: a\. Oxygen dispensing unit which shall exceed the number of seats by at least 10% immediately available to each occupant and crew b\. Oxygen masks for flight crew members c\. Oxygen dispensing unit for flight and cabin crew members 49\. In the case of a pilot engaged in commercial operations, how long may a medical assessment be deferred? a\. 2 consecutive periods of 6 months each b\. 2 consecutive periods of 3 months each c\. Single period of 6 months 50\. The rules which govern the licensing of all pilots and other flight crew are to be found in: a\. CAR PART IV b\. CAR PART II c\. CAR PART III 51\. The minimum altitude at which an aeroplane may be operated over any congested area of a city in UAE? a\. Minimum height to enable land clear if engines fail b\. 500 ft over congested area c\. 1000 ft vertically and 2000 ft horizontally from any object 52\. In UAE FIR, IFR rules are applied at all times to aeroplane operating at or above: a\. FL 120 b\. FL 160 c\. FL 145 d\. FL 100 53\. UAE Pilot licence is valid for: a\. eight years b\. one year c\. life long d\. two years 54\. How many hand held fire extinguishers are required to be carried on an aircraft with 250 passengers? a\. four b\. one c\. five d\. two 55\. How many cabin crew members must be carried on a commercial flight with 163 passengers? a\. one for every 25 passengers b\. one for every 50 passengers c\. three d\. one for every 100 passengers 56\. What is the status of a licence, if the holder has an incapacitating injury or illness for 20 days or more? a\. licence suspended b\. licence revoked c\. licence instatement after medical board 57\. Which choice is most correct concerning mandatory drugs screening? a\. Drug screening is performed only for the initial assessments for all classes b\. Drug screening test is conducted by urine analysis c\. All of the above AIR LAW TEST 1\. Commercial pilot maximum flying time allowed a\. 100 hrs within 28 days b\. 30 hrs within one week c\. 90 hrs per month / 300 hrs in a 3 month period 2\. Commercial pilot maximum continuous duty time allowed in any one period. a\. 12 hrs within 24 hrs b\. 14 hrs within 24 hrs c\. 12 hrs after 12 hrs of rest d\. 14 hrs after 12 hrs of rest 3\. Intercepted aircraft should adjust the Radio transponder code to: a\. 2000 b\. 7600 c\. 7700 d\. 7500 4\. Radio transponder code when entering UAE FIR without assigned code. a\. 2000 b\. 0000 c\. 7700 d\. 7500 5\. Transponder code if radio fails a\. 7600 b\. 7700 c\. 7500 d\. 2000 6\. Transponder code and flight action if radio fails a\. 7600 and continue same heading for 3 minutes b\. Continue with flight as planned c\. Advise ATC of radio failure and request course of action to be taken AIR LAW TEST : 7\. Minimum safe altitudes a\. 1000 ft over congested area b\. Minimum height to enable land clear if engine fails c\. 2000 ft vertically and 1000 ft horizontally from an object 8\. Minimum altitude anywhere d\. Minimum height to enable land clear if engines fail e\. 500 ft over congested area f\. 2000 ft vertically and 1000 ft horizontally from an object 9\. Position of intercepting aircraft when requesting to be followed a\. Ahead and to the left, waggling wings b\. Rapid departure to the left c\. Behind your aircraft d\. Below your aircraft 10\. Validity of Commercial Pilot medical (25 years of age) which was issued on 12 April 1992. a\. 31st April 1993 b\. 30th April 1993 c\. 31st October 1992 d\. One year from date of issue 11\. IFR & VFR flights in Class G airspace -- services available a\. flight information services b\. None for IFR c\. Flight information service for VFR and advisory service for IFR d\. full advisory service for IFR and none for VFR 12\. Oxygen requirements for non-presurrised aircraft. a\. 10000 ft for more than 30 minutes b\. Above 12000 ft c\. Above 8000 ft d\. Above 10000 ft AIR LAW TEST Where can one find information regarding flight crew licensing requirements? a\. CAR Part 2 b\. AIP c\. Pilots operating handbook d\. NOTAM 14\. Alcohol- How long must have elapsed since the last consumption of alcohol. a\. 4 hrs b\. 8 hrs c\. 12 hrs d\. 10 hrs 15\. ATIS provides a\. Non control information in busy areas b\. Departure information c\. Flight information d\. Weather information for inbound traffic 16\. Accident reports (written) required within how many days after the incident. a\. 10 days b\. 7 days c\. 3 days d\. 14 days 17\. Type ratings applicable for which types a\. Jets b\. Those requiring two pilots c\. Those determined by the GCAA d\. All of the above 18\. Crediting of co-pilots time towards a higher grade of license. a\. 50% of the flight time towards a higher grade of license b\. 100% of the flight time c\. 25% of the flight time towards a higher grade of license d\. 25 % of the flight time AIR LAW TEST : 19\. Position reporting in class E airspace- Frequency. a\. Every 30 mins. b\. Every hour c\. Every 30 minutes then every hour d\. After the first hour then every 30 minutes 20\. IFR fuel requirements for alternate aerodrome. a\. To complete an instrument approach and missed approach and fly for 45 minutes thereafter b\. No requirement c\. 45 minutes d. 21\. Visibility requirements for SVFR a\. 1500 meters ground visibility b\. 1500 meters flight visibility c\. 1500 meters ground and flight visibility d\. 3000 meters visibility 22\. Currency requirements for carrying passengers at night. a\. 3 takeoffs and landings within previous 90 days in that category, class and type of aircraft b\. 3 takeoffs and landings c\. 3 takeoffs and landings between the hrs of sunset and sunrise within the previous 90 days in category / type / class d\. 3 takeoffs and landings between the hours of sunrise and sunset within the previous 90 days 23\. Transition altitude a\. 12000 ft b\. 13000 ft c\. 10000 ft d\. 15000 ft AIR LAW TEST : 24\. Transition level a\. 14000 ft b\. FL 130 c\. 12000 ft d\. FL 150 25\. NDB holds timing -- When to set time? a\. Over the NDB b\. Abeam the NDB on the outbound leg c\. Abeam the NDB on the inbound leg d. 26\. Danger areas -- When can you fly in them? a\. Never b\. When the pilot has ensured the safety of the aircraft etc. c\. Always d. 27\. Prohibited areas -- When can you fly in them? a\. Never b\. Always c\. No problem, go ahead d. 28\. Restricted areas -- When can you fly in them? a\. Never b\. Anytime c\. Normally prohibited but sometimes permitted with ATC clearance d\. After checking NOTAMS 29\. Accident reports (written) within? a\. 10 days b\. 10 working days c\. 7 days d\. 24 hours AIR LAW TEST : 30\. Minimum equipment list for multi-engine aircraft. a\. GCAA Minimum Equipment List b\. Master MEL c\. Manufacturer's MEL 31\. Minimum Equipment for VFR a\. ELT b\. ELT and Radio c\. ELT, Radio, Navigation radio & transponder d\. Radio 32\. Maximum VFR flight level a\. FL 120 b\. FL 160 c\. FL 145 d\. FL 100 33\. Visibility minima at or above 10000 ft a\. 5k, 1500 mtrs horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud b\. 8k, 1500 mtrs horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud c\. 5km, clear of cloud 34\. Visibility minima class G below 900 Meters a\. 5km, clear of cloud b\. 5km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud c\. 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud 35\. Visibility minima below 10000 ft a\. 5km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud b\. 8km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud c\. 5km, 1000 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud AIR LAW TEST : 36\. Check for IFR flights (pre flight check) use of radio nav equipment. a\. Flight check against VOR to be within 4 deg b\. Ground check against VOR to be within 4 deg c\. Check against second radio nav equipment to be within 6 deg d\. Checked within the proceeding 30 days 37\. What does CAVOK mean? a\. 10000 ft horizontal and 10000 ft vertical b\. 10K horizontal and 10000 ft vertical c\. 5K horizontal and 5000 ft vertical d\. 10K horizontal and 5000 ft vertical 38\. Validity of UAE license a\. Issued for life b\. One year c\. Two years d\. Four years e\. Eight years 39\. Altimeter setting for takeoff and landing a\. QNE / QFE b\. QFE / QNE c\. QNH d\. QFE 40\. Meaning of QNH. a\. Standard conditions b\. 29.92 inches c\. 1013.2 millibars d\. Pressure at mean sea level 41\. We report \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ above the transition and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ below. a\. Height / Altitude b\. Altitude / Flight level c\. Flight level / Altitude d\. Elevation / Altitude AIR LAW TEST : 42\. For a type rated commercial pilot, OPC checks to be carried out a\. After 13 months b\. After 14 months c\. By a GCAA approved examiner d\. By flight instructor 43\. Medical validity for a commercial pilot over 40 whose Medical Certificate was issued on 25 April 06. a\. 31st October 2006 b\. 30th April 2007 c\. 25th October 2006 d\. 6 months 44\. How many hours should be added to convert UTC to UAE time? a\. Plus four b\. Minus four c\. Plus three d\. Plus five 45\. Wake vortex- What is the dangerous area for a light aircraft following a heavy aircraft? a\. Upwind b\. Downwind c\. Below and behind the heavy aircraft d\. Above 46\. Operation of civil aeroplane within Danger Areas in UAE airspace is a\. Never b\. Anytime c\. Normally prohibited but sometimes permitted with ATC clearance d\. After checking NOTAMS 47\. Operation of civil aeroplane within Prohibited Areas in UAE airspace is a\. Never b\. Anytime c\. Normally prohibited but sometimes permitted with ATC clearance d\. After checking NOTAMS 48\. What is the cabin altitude above which all flight crewmembers are required to use supplemental oxygen (O2) continuously? a\. 12000 ft b\. 13000 ft c\. 10000 ft d\. 15000 ft 47\. Airspace in which the flight of civil aircraft is not permitted at any time. a\. Danger Area b\. Restricted Airspace c\. Prohibited Airspace d\. Class G Airspace 48\. Requirement regarding commencement and continuation of precision instrument approaches if the RVR are less than applicable minima: Ans: Cannot continue beyond the outer marker. 49\. An Operator when operating abroad shall follow: a\. UAE CAR and other state regulations b\. ICAO Regulations c\. JARs 50\. With respect to minimum flight altitude for IFR operations, which statement is correct? a\. MOCA b\. MORA c\. KSS Formula 51\. What will be the action required when the limit values of cosmic radiation dose rate are exceeded? a\. Descend as soon as possible b\. Continue the flight c\. Inform ATC 52\. The lowest class of airspace in the UAE requiring an ATC clearance to operate IFR flights: a\. Class G b\. Class E c\. Class C 53 Information concerning notification of accidents and incidents involving aeroplane is provided in: a\. CAR Part II b\. CAR Part III c\. CAR Part IV 54\. The holder of pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than \_\_\_\_\_ flight time. a\. 50% b\. 75% c\. 100% EXPANSIONS: ICAO - International Civil Aviation Organisation SARP - Standards and Recommended Practices MPL - Multi-Crew Pilot Licence FSIX - Flight Safety Information Exchange AFCAC - African Civil Aviation Commission ECAC - European Civil Aviation Conference LACAC - Latin American Civil Aviation Commission AIR LAW TEST 1\. For which category is the licence issued? a\. aeroplane & helicopters b\. aircraft c\. single and multiengine land aeroplane 2\. Before you obtain your PPL of all the \"Solo\"\" flight time how much is credited as your pilotin command time? a\. 50% of your solo time b\. 100% of your solo time c\. none of your solo time 3\. What is the squawk code to indicate hijack/unlawful interference? a\. 7500 b\. 7600 c\. 7700 4\. What is the squawk code to indicate emergency? a\. 7500 b\. 7600 c\. 7700 5\. Radio frequency in an emergency or distress a\. 121.5 Mhz. b\. 121.5 Khz. c\. 21.3 Khz 6\. If you have communication failure and you see a steady green light from the air it means? a\. continue approach and clear to land b\. give way to other traffic c\. continue approach and look out for signal for landing clearance. 7\. If on ground you see a steady white light it means? a\. Nothing b\. Clear the active area stop the engines c\. Clear the active area and return to bay. AIR LAW TEST 8\. Which aircraft has the right of way? a\. The aircraft on your right. b\. The aircraft behind you c\. The aircraft above you 9\. Which side of the navigation light coloured red? a\. Port b\. Left c\. Both are correct 10\. To indicate communication failure which squawk code is used? a\. 7500 b\. 7600 c\. 7700 11\. Supplemental oxygen is required if the flight is conducted above 10,000 ft. cabin pressure for the duration of flight in a\. unpressurised aircrafts b\. pressurised aircrafts c\. both type of aircrafts 12\. When on ground you see a flashing green, it indicates a\. clear to start engine b\. clear to takeoff c\. clear to taxi 13\. As PPL Holder are you allowed to carry passengers for compensation / hire? a\. Yes b\. No c\. With special permission if the money goes to charity AIR LAW TEST 14\. During night flight you see a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead. The other aircraft is a\. Crossing from right to left b\. Crossing form left to right c\. Approaching head on 15\. During night flight you see a steady white light, a steady green light and a flashing red light. The other aircraft is a\. Will pass from right to left b\. Flying away from you and will cross left to right c\. Approaching head on 16\. UAE Aeronautical Information Publication is a\. Advisory b\. Regulatory c\. Mandatory 17\. Definition of night in the UAE a\. Hours of darkness b\. Hours between sunrise and sunset c\. Hours between sunset and sunrise as maybe prescribed by the appropriate authority 18\. Definition of VFR a\) Visual Flight Conditions b\) Visual Flight Rules c\) Visual Meteorological conditions 19\. Transition altitude in UAE FIR a\. 15,000 feet b\. 14,500 feet c\. 13,000 feet AIR LAW TEST 1\. Call sign A6-EFT, the correct abbreviation is a\. Alpha Foxtrot Tango b\. Echo Foxtrot Tango c\. Foxtrot Tango 21\. Using readability scale, readability 2 means a\. I heard you twice b\. Readable now and then c\. Readable but with difficulty 22\. The word "ROGER" means a\. Will comply b\. Message received and understood c\. That is correct 23\. Monitor means a\. Listen out on the frequency stated b\. Make a test transmission on the frequency stated c\. Change to the new frequency 24\. A blind transmission is a\. Transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station b\. Transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where twoway communications cannot be established but when it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission. c\. An all station call 25\. A pilot is required to read back a\. Altimeter setting, taxi instructions, traffic information b\. Altimeter setting, taxi instructions, takeoff clearance, weather information and any other information given by ATC. c\. altimeter settings, weather information, information regarding the proximity of other aircraft, taxi instructions AIR LAW TEST 26\. An altitude of 10 000 ft will be transmitted as a\. ten thousand feet b\. one zero thousand feet c\. ten zero zero feet 27\. You are a private pilot with a UAE license. Your date of birth is 1st April '52 and you took a class 2 medical on first day of April '91. When does your medical expire? a\. 1 st April '93 b\. 30th April '93 c\. 31st April '92 28\. In the event of interception of an aircraft the intercepting aircraft will position itself. d\. To the right and in front of the aircraft being intercepted e\. To the left and in front of the aircraft being intercepted f\. Immediately in front of the aircraft being intercepted 29\. After landing at a tower controlled airport when should pilot contact ground control? a\. Prior to turning off the runway b\. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area c\. When advised by tower to do so 30\. What line colours denote taxiways, manoeuvring area and runways? a\. White centrelines b\. Yellow and white lines c\. Green centreline for taxiways and manoeuvring area and white centreline for runways 31\. What light colours denotes taxiway center lines and perimeters? a\. Green centreline lights and white perimeter lights b\. White centreline lights and green perimeter lights c\. Green centreline lights and blue perimeter lights 32\. What are the fuel requirements for flight under VFR in an aeroplane in the UAE assuming normal cruising speed? a\. Sufficient for an alternate aerodrome b\. During day and night to the destination and to fly after that for 30 minutes c\. During day to the destination and to fly after that for at least 30 minutes or at night to fly at least 45 minutes. AIR LAW TEST 33\. VFR ceiling and visibility requirement in class C,D, E airspace below 10,000 feet are a\. 8 km, visibility, 1500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud b\. 5km, visibility 1500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud c\. 5km, visibility 1000m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud 34\. What rules may aircraft operate under in VFR flight between the hours of sunset and sunrise? a\. Night VFR b\. Special VFR c\. IFR 35\. No person may act as a pilot-in command of an aircraft unless in the preceding 12 months that person has a\. Completed 9 takeoff and landings in the category and class (and type if applicable) aircraft b\. Accomplished a pilot proficiency check given to him by any licensed pilot who holds a flight instructor rating c\. Accomplished a pilot proficiency check given to him/her by a licensed UAE pilot with a flight instructor rating. 36\. Unless otherwise notified when operating in the circuit pattern of an aerodrome the pilot shall make all turns to the a\. Right b\. Left c\. Right in helicopter, left in aeroplane 37\. An aeroplane and a helicopter are converging while approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing. a\. The aeroplane must yield the right of way regardless of his position b\. The helicopter must yield the right of way regardless of his position c\. Aircraft to the other's right has the right of way 38\. What is the maximum permissible speed below 10,000 ft. in UAE FIR? a\. 270 kts b\. 250 Mph. c\. 250 kts. AIR LAW TEST 39\. What document(s) must be in your personal possession while operating as pilot-incommand of an aircraft? a\. Certificate showing accomplishment of a check-out in the aircraft and a current PPL. b\. A pilot license with an endorsement showing accomplishment of PPL and a logbook showing recency of experience c\. An appropriate pilot license and an appropriate current medical certificate 40\. The final responsibility for compliance with the rules of the air is a\. The pilot manipulating the controls b\. The controlling authority of the airspace in use c\. Pilot-in-command 41\. The validity period of the UAE license is a\. Two years b\. One year c\. Four years d\. Eight years 42\. No person may act as a pilot-in-command of a UAE registered civil aircraft unless he has in his personal possession a\. U.S License b\. U.A.E License c\. British License 43\. A pilot who has reached 60 years age or over, shall not act as commercial pilot unless he has in his personal possession a current a\. Class I medical certificate within the preceding 6 months b\. Class I medical certificate within the preceding 12 months c\. Class II medical certificate 44\. You are a 25 year old commercial pilot and have taken your medical exam on the 30th April '89 when does your medical expire? a\. 31st April '91 b\. 30th April '90 c\. 31st August '89 AIR LAW TEST 45\. No person shall act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night unless within preceding 90 days he has completed. a\. 3 takeoffs and landing b\. 3 takeoffs and landings from sunset to sunrise in the same category, class and type if applicable c\. 3 takeoffs and landings from sunrise to sunset in same category class and type if applicable 46\. The privileges of a private pilot license aeroplane shall be to act as pilot-in-command or copilot carrying passengers a\. share the operating expenses of a flight with the passengers b\. engaged in revenue flight c\. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of flight 47\. Transition level in UAE FIR a\. FL 145 b\. FL 130 c\. FL 150 48\. Where can you find information regarding flight crew licensing requirement? a\. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) b\. Section II Civil Aviation Regulation c\. Pilot Operating Handbook 49\. Position report in class E airspace a\. Half hour of all flight b\. First 30 minutes then every hour c\. Every hour at night only 50\. Flight visibility for VFR in class E airspace at or above 10 000 ft. a\. 8km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical b\. 8 miles, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical c\. 5km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical 51\. Entering UAE airspace without clearance, likely to be intercepted by fighter. How would it indicate that you are to follow: a\. rapid departure to the left b\. ahead and to the left, rocking wings c\. below your aircraft AIR LAW TEST 52\. Flight visibility minimal in class G airspace VFR below 900 meters a\. 8km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical b\. 5 km., clear of clouds and in sight of ground or water c\. 5km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical 53\. To calculate local time from UTC a\. minus 3 hours b\. add 4 hours c\. add 3 hours 54\. Radio transponder code for interception a\. 1200 b\. 2000 c\. 7700 55\. Radio transponder code when entering UAE FIR without assigned code a\. 7600 b\. 1200 c\. 2000 56\. What is the cloud coverage if meteorological conditions state scattered (SCT)? a\. 4/8 sky cover b\. 2/8 sky cover c\. 8/8 sky cover 57\. Altimeter setting for takeoff and landing a\. QNH for takeoff and QFE for landing b\. QFE for takeoff and QNE for landing c\. QNH for takeoff and landing 58\. Meaning of QNH a\. Standard conditions b\. 29.92 inches/1013.2 millibars c\. pressure at mean sea level/mean sea level set in altimeter subscale AIR LAW TEST 59\. Checks for IFR flights (Pre-flight check) use of radio navigation equipment a\. flight check against VOR to be within 4 degrees b\. check against second radio equipment to be within 6 degrees c\. checked within preceding 30 days 60\. No person may act as pilot-in-command of a multi-engine aircraft carrying passengers unless he has experience of a\. 10 hours b\. 50 hours c\. completed a proficiency check with a rated pilot 61\. IFR fuel requirements for alternate aerodrome a\. to complete an instrument approach and missed approach procedure and fly 45 minutes there after b\. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed there after c\. no requirements 62\. Pilot-in-command cannot enter a\. danger area b\. prohibited area c\. restricted area 63\. Maximum VFR flight level a\. flight level 150 b\. flight level 145 c\. flight level 180 d\. 12500 ft 64\. Minimum equipment required for operations under VFR a\. ELT b\. ELT and VHF communication (two-way) c\. ELT, radio communication and navigation and SSR transponder 65\. Flight time as a member of a one-or-two pilot crew if that crew members total time in all commercial flying should not exceed a\. 100 hours in any period of 30 consecutive days or 1,000 hours in any calendar years b\. 300 hours in any period of 90 consecutive days c\. all the above are correct AIR LAW TEST 66\. Commercial pilot maximum flying time allowed in 24 consecutive hours a\. 8 hours for a flight crew consisting one pilot b\. 10 hours for a flight crew consisting two pilots c\. all the above are correct 67\. No flight crew member may accept any assignment in excess of a\. 14 hours maximum duty time in any 24 consecutive hour period b\. 12 hours maximum duty time in any 24 consecutive hour period c\. 14 hours maximum duty time in any 48 hours consecutive hour period 68\. The rest requirements of any flight crew member engaged in commercial flying should be a\. 24 consecutive hour period of duty with in each 7 day period b\. 48 consecutive hour period of duty with in each 6 day period c\. none of the above 69\. On multi-engine aircraft with propellers both turning clockwise, one engine failing is more critical than the other. Why? a\. Forces one wing leading to a higher stall speed for that wing b\. Corkscrew vortex c\. The thrust produced by the descending propeller on the right engine has an arm farther away from centreline of fuselage (P-factor) 70\. Transponder code and flight action if radio fails. a\. 7600 and continue same heading for 3 minutes b\. 7600 and continue with flight as planned c\. advise ATC of radio failure and request course of action to be taken. 71\. IFR and VFR flight in class G airspace-service available a\. flight information services b\. flight information service for VFR advisory service for IFR c\. full advisory service for IFR and none for VFR 72\. Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning a\. weather information for inbound traffic b\. departure information c\. non-control information broadcast in heavy traffic area AIR LAW TEST 73\. If an aircraft is involved in an accident, which results in substantial damage to the aircraft notification to GCAA should be done. d\. immediately e\. within 24 hours f\. within 10 days 74\. Aircraft accident report (written) required within how n\\many days after accident? a\. 10 days b\. 7 days c\. 3 days 75\. If an aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time GCAA takes custody a\. not to be moved under any circumstances b\. Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage c\. Yes, but only if moved by GCAA officials or local enforcement officer 76\. Type ratings applicable for which types? a\. all type of helicopters b\. those requiring two pilots c\. both A and B are correct 77\. Visibility requirements for SVFR a\. 1500m ground visibility b\. 3000m flight visibility c\. 1500m ground and flight visibility 78\. Special flight authorization for foreign aircraft operating in the UAE a\. do not require any flight authorization b\. can operate a foreign aircraft if the pilot is appropriately rated c\. a specific flight authorization has to be issued for that operation by the GCAA to operate in UAE FIR only 79\. NDB holds timing -- when to set time? a\. over the NDB b\. a beam the NDB on the out bound leg c\. a beam the NDB on the in bound leg AIR LAW TEST 80\. Danger area -- when can you fly in them? a\. never b\. at pilot's discretion and safety of the aircraft is ensured c\. after checking NOTAMS 81\. Restricted area -- when can you fly in them? a\. anytime b\. aircraft to operate in accordance with a clearance issued by ATC c\. never 82\. A person may takeoff a multi-engine civil aircraft with an operable instruments or equipment installed only if a\. minimum equipment list not required if aircraft in airworthy condition b\. a GCAA approved minimum equipment list exists for that aircraft c\. if approved by aircraft mechanic to fly 83\. What does CAVOK means? a\. 10km. horizontal and 10,000 feet vertical b\. 5km. horizontal and 5,000 feet vertical c\. 10km. horizontal and 5,000 feet vertical 84\. We report \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ above the transition and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ below. a\. altitude/flight level b\. flight level/altitude c\. elevation/altitude 85\. For a type rated commercial pilot, PPC check to be carried out a\. after 13 months b\. by a flight instructor c\. by a GCAA inspector or designated check pilot with GCAA approval 86\. Wake Vortex - what is the dangerous area for a light aircraft following a heavy? a\. up wind b\. down wind c\. below and behind heavy aircraft AIR LAW TEST 87\. Useful period on consciousness without oxygen following pressurization failure at 20,000, 25,000 and 30,000 feet. a\. 5 minutes, 2 minutes and 45 seconds b\. 10 minutes, 3 minutes and 1 ½ minutes c\. 6 minutes, 4 minutes and 2 minutes 88\. Minimum airfield lighting requirements for night operations? a\. runway edge light and displaced threshold lights or (REIL) b\. runway edge light and centerline lights c\. runway edge light and approach lights with VASI 89\. VOR Holds timing - when to set time? a\. over the VOR b\. a beam the VOR beacon on the out bound leg. c\. a beam the VOR beacon on the in bound leg. 90\. Do you require an ATC clearance to enter - danger area? a\. yes b\. a pilot can enter at his own discretion c\. yes, only when danger area is active. 91\. Requirement for an Aural Speed Warning Device a\. not required in any type of aircraft b\. required in transport category aeroplane c\. required in all aircrafts 92\. Requirement of an Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) a\. not required b\. required in all civil aircraft in the UAE c\. not required in training area 93\. When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance when requested? a\. within 48 hours b\. immediately c\. within 7 days AIR LAW TEST 94\. Under what conditions, if any may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? a\. under no condition b\. only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or an emergency c\. only if the person does not have access to the cockpit pilots compartment 95\. Pre-flight action, as required for all flight away from the vicinity of an airport shall include a\. the designation of an alternate airport b\. a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use c\. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned 96\. In addition to other pre-flight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to a\. review traffic control light signal procedures b\. check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) c\. determine runway lengths at airports at intended use and the aircrafts take off and landing distance data 97\. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their seat belts and shoulder harness fastened? a\. seatbelts during takeoff and landing, shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing b\. seatbelts during takeoff and landing, shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while enroute. c\. seatbelts during takeoff and landing, and while enroute; shoulder harness during takeoff and landing. 98\. With respect to passenger, what obligation, if any does a pilot in command have concerning the use of seatbelts? a\. the pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep seatbelts fastened for the entire flight. b\. the pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of seatbelts and notify them to fasten the seatbelts during takeoff and landing. c\. the pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers use of seatbelts 99\. What action, if any is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority. a\. take a special action since you are pilot in command b\. file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if required. c\. file a report to the GCAA administrator as soon as possible AIR LAW TEST 100\. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane. a\. enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. b\. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed c\. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. 101\. No person may operate an aircraft In acrobatic flight when a\. flight visibility is less that 5 miles b\. over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement c\. less than 2,500 feet AGL 102\. What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight? a\. 1,000 feet AGL b\. 1,500 feet AGL c\. 2,000 feet AGL 103\. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than a\. 3 km b\. 8 km c\. 5 km 104\. A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certified and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding a\. 60 days b\. 90 days c\. 120 days 105\. With certain exceptions, seatbelts are required to be secured about passengers during a\. takeoff and landing b\. all flight conditions c\. flight in turbulent air 106\. With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute a\. when a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers b\. when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 deg. or more c\. when intentionally banking in excess or 30 deg. AIR LAW TEST 107\. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the a\. pilot in command b\. owner or operator c\. mechanic who performs the work 108\. Which incident requires an immediate notification to the GCAA Flight Operations department? a\. a force landing due to engine failure b\. landing gear damage, due to a hard landing. c\. flight control system malfunction or failure 109\. Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the GCAA flight operations department. a\. an in-flight generator/alternator failure b\. an in-flight fire. c\. an in flight loss of VOR receiver capability 110\. Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to GCAA? a\. an overdue aircraft that is to be involved in an accident b\. an in-flight radio communications failure c\. an in-flight generator or alternator failure 111\. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file accident report within how many days? a\. 5 days b\. 7 days c\. 10 days 112\. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to GCAA a\. within 7 days b\. within 24 days c\. when requested AIR LAW TEST 113\. Requirements for co-pilot under IFR a\. a co-pilot should have proper authorization from GCAA which comprises of an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft category on his license b\. does not require an instrument rating if pilot in command has instrument rating c\. co-pilot should have completed 6 hours of instrument flying and 6 approaches in last 6 months in category, class and type of aircraft. 114\. Which document a foreign pilot, who act as a pilot of a UAE registered aircraft, required to have in his possession? a\. Foreign Licence b\. UAE Pilot Licence c\. Licence Validation 115\. An active crew member found by the GCAA to be under the influence of psychoactive drugs or alcohol shall undego: a\. Medical check b\. Drug screening c\. Blood test 116\. No person may act as a flight crew member of an aeroplane without: a\. Recency b\. Licence c\. Medical Certificate