Answers to Exam 3 Review Guide PDF

Chapter 6 Review Guide: Bones and Skeletal Tissue NOTE: THESE PAGE & FIGURE REFERENCES MAY BE SLIGHTLY OFF! 8) Compact bone. C 9) Location of the epiphyseal line. B...

Chapter 6 Review Guide: Bones and Skeletal Tissue NOTE: THESE PAGE & FIGURE REFERENCES MAY BE SLIGHTLY OFF! 8) Compact bone. C 9) Location of the epiphyseal line. B 10) Area where yellow marrow is found. D 11) Area with articular cartilage. A A) Comminuted B) Spiral C) Greenstick 15) An incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts. Common in children. C 16) Bone fragments into many pieces. A 17) Common sports fracture resulting from a twisting force. B B) Canaliculi D) Osteoclasts A) Endosteum C) Osteoblasts E) Lamellae 18) The lining of the marrow cavity. A 19) Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix. D 20) Layers of bone matrix. E 21) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone. B 22) Cells that can build bony matrix. C 1 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. A) Chondrocytes C) Epiphyseal line E) Epiphyseal plate B) Appositional growth D) Diaphysis 23) The cells responsible for the early stages of endochondral ossification. A 24) The growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface. B 25) The area of long bones which lengthens as cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells. D 26) The appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth. C 27) Area where bone longitudinal growth takes place. E True/False Questions 1) Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones. T 2) Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone. F 4) The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels. F 5) Short, irregular, and flat bones have large marrow cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light. F 6) In newborn infants, the medullary cavity and all areas of spongy bone contain yellow bone marrow. F 7) The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk. T 8) The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones. T 9) Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is inorganic (mostly calcium phosphate salts called hydroxyapatites). T 10) All bones formed by intramembranous ossification are irregular bones. F 11) An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only. T 12) The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress. T 13) Bone tissue in the skeleton of a human fetus is completely formed at six months' gestation. F 2 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 14) Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions. T 15) Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes. T 16) Closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth. F Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress? Page Ref: 177-179 A) spongy bone B) irregular bone C) compact bone D) trabecular bone 2) Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________. Page Ref: 178 A) fat C) elastic tissue B) blood-forming cells D) Sharpey's fibers 4) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? Page Ref: 183 A) elastic connective tissue C) fibrocartilage B) dense fibrous connective tissue D) hyaline cartilage 5) What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause? A) inadequate calcification of bone B) decreased osteoclast activity C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage D) increased osteoclast activity Page Ref: 186 6) A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. Page Ref: 177 A) epiphysis C) diaphysis B) metaphysis D) articular cartilage 9) Factors in preventing (or delaying) osteoporosis include ________. A) drinking fluoridated water B) decreasing weight-bearing exercise C) increasing dietary vitamin C D) decreasing exposure to the sun Page Ref: 192 10) Ossification of the ends of long bones ________. A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation B) involves medullary cavity formation C) is produced by secondary ossification centers D) takes twice as long as diaphysis Page Ref: 185 11) Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood, as well as shaping the articular surfaces? A) lacunae C) epiphyseal plate B) Haversian system D) epiphyseal line Page Ref: 185 3 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 12) Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? Page Ref: 186 A) growth hormone C) parathyroid hormone B) calcium D) thyroid hormone 13) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? A) support C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) B) storage of minerals D) communication Page Ref: 176 14) What is the structural unit of compact bone? A) osseous matrix C) lamellar bone B) spongy bone D) the osteon Page Ref: 181 15) Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. A) cartilage and compact bone C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts B) marrow and osteons D) chondrocytes and osteocytes Page 178 16) The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ______. A) Volkmann's canals C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage D) struts of bone called spicules Page 178 17) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (Haversian canal) is the site of ________. A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae C) yellow marrow and spicules B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts D) blood vessels & nerve fibers P. 181 19) For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue. C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. D) A medullary cavity forms. Page Ref: 185; Fig. 6.9 20) The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________. A) closing of the epiphyseal plate B) long bones reaching adult length and width C) appositional growth D) concentric growth Page Ref: 186 21) Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? Page Ref: 187 A) osteoclast B) osteocyte C) osteoblast D) stem cell 22) Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? Page Ref: 186 A) calcitonin C) parathyroid hormone B) thyroxine D) estrogen 4 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 24) Wolff's law is concerned with ________. Page Ref: 188 A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it C) the function of bone being dependent on shape D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts 25) Cranial bones develop ________. A) from cartilage models C) from a tendon B) within fibrous membranes D) in osseous membranes P. 183 26) Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels? Page Ref: 187 A) pineal gland B) thyroid C) parathyroid D) spleen 29) Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth? Page Ref: 174 A) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones. B) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage. C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage. D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide & secrete matrix, allowing cartilage to grow from within. 30) In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________. A) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis C) from the edges inward D) in a circular fashion Page Ref: 185 31) Spongy bones are made up of a framework (structural units) called ________. A) osteons C) trabeculae B) lamellar bone D) osseous lamellae P: 181 32) Osteogenesis is the process of ________. A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone B) bone destruction to liberate calcium C) bone formation D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage Page Ref: 183 33) Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity C) differentiation of osteoclasts D) calcification of the matrix Page Ref: 185 5 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 35) In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause? A) overproduction of thyroid hormone B) elevated levels of sex hormones C) too much vitamin D in the diet D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity Page Ref: 186 36) Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________. A) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D B) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D C) sodium, calcium, and vitamin E D) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride Page Ref: 187 Chapter 7 Review Guide: The Skeleton 1) Articulates with hip bones of the pelvis.D 2) Attach to ribs. B 3) Receive the most stress. C 4) Transverse foramina present. A 5) No canals or foramen present. E 6) Includes the atlas and the axis. A 7) Contains the joint that allows you to rotate your head "no." A Page Ref: 218; Fig. 7.16 6 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc.  15) Passageway for optic nerve. A 16) Encloses hypophysis. C 17) Forms parts of the middle cranial fossa, dorsal walls of the orbits, and external walls of the skull. B A) Sphenoid B) Lacrimal C) Temporal D) Maxillae 19) These very small bones are at the medial wall of each orbit. B 20) Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate. D 21) This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear. C 22) This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault. A 23) The bones that contain teeth. D 24) This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity. B, D 25) The sella turcica is a portion of this bone. A A) Axis C) Thoracic vertebrae E) Lumbar vertebrae B) Coccyx D) Atlas 29) These bones have the thickest body with short blunt spinous processes. E 30) The fused rudimentary tailbone. B 31) A circle of bone that articulates superiorly with the occipital condyles. D 32) These bones have articular facets for the ribs. C 33) Allows the head to nod "yes." D 34) Allows the head to shake "no." A 7 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. True/False Questions 2) All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable. T 3) The foramen magnum goes through the occipital bone. T 4) The mastoid sinuses are located at a position in the skull where they are usually free from infections. F 5) The vertebral column is held in place primarily by the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments. T 6) Ribs numbered 11 and 12 are true ribs because they have no anterior attachments. F 8) The layman's name for the scapula is the collarbone. F 9) A temporal bone protrusion riddled with sinuses is the styloid process. F 10) Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum. T 11) The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra. T 12) In women of childbearing age, the dimensions of the true pelvis can determine whether delivery is by the normal vaginal route or by C-section. T 14) In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius. T 15) The vomer forms part of the nasal septum. T 16) The cranial vault of the skull is also called the calvaria. T 17) The lacrimal bones contain openings that allow the tear ducts to pass. T 18) The largest and strongest bone of the face is the maxilla. F 19) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. T 20) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae. F 22) The dens articulates with the axis. F 23) The pituitary gland is housed in a saddlelike depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica. F 24) The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis. T 8 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. Multiple-Choice Questions 2) The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called ________. A) areolas C) sutures B) foramina D) fontanelles Page Ref: 244 3) What makes up the axial skeleton? Page Ref: 200 A) the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis C) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage B) arms, legs, hands, and feet D) shoulder and pelvic girdles 5) Which vertebra does not have a body? Page Ref: 221 A) last lumbar B) axis C) atlas D) last cervical 6) The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________. Page Ref: 202 A) coronal B) sagittal C) lambdoid D) squamosal 7) The pituitary gland is housed in the ________. A) vomer C) sella turcica of the sphenoid B) sinuses of the ethmoid D) foramen lacerum Page Ref: 209 8) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone B) is shaped like a plow C) is covered with mucosa D) has no specific function Page Ref: 215 9) The principle function of the anterior ligament of the vertebral column is to ________. A) hold the discs in place C) hold the spine erect B) prevent hyperextension of the spine D) protect the spinal cord Page Ref: 219 10) What is the major function of the intervertebral discs? A) absorb shock C) prevent injuries B) string the vertebrae together D) prevent hyperextension Page: 219 11) Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones? Page Ref: 215 A) zygomatic B) nasal conchae C) vomer D) maxillae 12) Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region? Page Ref: 218 A) kyphosis B) scoliosis C) lordosis D) swayback 13) Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves? P. 218 A) to provide resilience and flexibility C) to improve cervical center of gravity B) to accommodate muscle attachment D) to accommodate weight 9 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 14) Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body? Page Ref: 222 A) the sacrum C) the lumbar region B) the cervical region D) the sacral promontory 17) What is the major function of the axial skeleton? A) give the body resilience B) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement C) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs D) provide a space for the major digestive organs Page Ref: 200 18) The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones? A) the radius and the ulna C) the scapula and the clavicle B) the humerus and the clavicle D) the humerus and the radius Page 231 21) Choose the statement that is most correct about orbits. A) The orbits are formed of both facial and cranial bones. B) The orbits contain only facial bones. C) The orbits contain only cranial bones. D) The orbits are made entirely of cartilage. Page Ref: 213 22) Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses? A) Paranasal sinuses open into the oral cavity. B) Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull. C) Paranasal sinuses contain passages acting as one-way valves. D) Paranasal sinuses are found in maxillary, ethmoid, and lacrimal bones. Page Ref: 215 24) Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy? Page Ref: 219 A) kyphosis B) hunchback C) scoliosis D) lordosis 25) How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae? A) The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae. B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs. C) There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12. D) The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum. Page Ref: 222 27) The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone? A) vomer C) sphenoid B) ethmoid D) maxilla Page Ref: 210 28) The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones? A) humerus-ulna C) femur-tibia B) humerus-radius D) femur-fibula Page Ref: 231 10 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 30) Which of the following bones is not weight bearing? A) femur C) fibula B) tibia D) talus Page Ref: 241 31) Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus? Page Ref: 41 A) calcaneus B) head C) med. maleolus D) lat. maleolus Additional Information for Exam 3 -Recognize that the primary goal of fracture treatment is not necessarily a perfect realignment of the bone (a perfect ‘reduction’) but rather restoration of function. -Extra ribs are not common, but when they occur, where are they most likely to be found and what problems may they cause? (slides 49-50 of Ch. 7 PP) Chapter 8 Review Guide: Joints 1) Periosteum. A 3) Joint cavity. B 2) Articular cartilage. C 4) Synovial membrane. E 5) Fibrous layer. D 11 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. True/False Questions 1) The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of joints. T 2) All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight. F 3) Hinge joints permit movement in two planes. F 4) Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood. T 5) The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability. T 6) The major role of ligaments at synovial joints is to help direct movement and restrict undesirable movement. T 7) The only movement allowed between the first two cervical vertebrae is flexion. F 8) Movement at the hip joint does not have as wide a range of motion as at the shoulder joint. T 9) A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. T 10) A movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned from posterior to anterior is supination. T 12) Cruciate ligaments are important ligaments that stabilize all ball-and-socket joints. F 13) Flexion of the ankle so that the superior aspect of the foot approaches the shin is called dorsiflexion. T 14) The gripping of the trochlea by the trochlear notch constitutes the "hinge" for the elbow joint. T 15) The ligamentum teres represents a very important stabilizing ligament for the hip joint. F 16) The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the presence or absence of a joint cavity. T 17) Synovial fluid contains phagocytic cells that protect the cavity from invasion by microbes or other debris. T 18) A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids. F 19) A ball-and-socket joint is a multiaxial joint. T 12 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 21) Dislocations in the TMJ almost always dislocate posteriorly with the mandibular condyles ending up in the infratemporal fossa. F 22) Symphyses are synarthrotic joints designed for strength with flexibility. F Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint. Page Ref: 251 A) syndesmosis B) suture C) synchondrosis D) gomphosis 2) The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________. Page Ref: 263-264 A) tend to run parallel to one another D) assist in defining the range of motion of B) are also called collateral ligaments the leg C) prevent hyperextension of the knee 3) Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________. A) attach tendons B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis) C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints D) form the synovial membrane Page Ref: 252 4) A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________. Page Ref: 251 A) suture B) syndesmosis C) symphysis D) gomphosis 5) On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue? P. 250 A) symphysis B) synchondrosis C) pivot D) syndesmosis 6) Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________. Page Ref: 253 A) menisci B) bursae C) ligaments D) tendons 7) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. Page Ref: 250 A) amphiarthroses B) synarthroses C) diarthroses D) synovial joints 8) ________ are cartilaginous joints. Page Ref: 251 A) Syndesmoses B) Sutures C) Synchondroses D) Gomphoses 9) The gliding motion of the wrist is accomplished because of the ________ joint. Page Ref: 260 A) hinge B) plane C) pivot D) condyloid 10) The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________. Page Ref: 263-264 A) cruciate ligaments C) anterior ligaments B) patellar ligaments D) tibial collateral ligaments 11) Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________. Page Ref: 258 A) flexion B) extension C) hyperextension D) circumduction 13 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 12) In the classification of joints, which of the following is true? A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses. B) All synovial joints are freely movable. C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable. D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present. Page Ref: 249-250 13) Synarthrotic joints ________. A) are found at the junction of the epiphysis and diaphysis of growing bone B) are cartilaginous joints C) permit essentially no movement D) have large joint cavities Page Ref: 250 14) Fibrous joints are classified as ________. Page 250 A) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular D) sutures, syndesmoses, & gomphoses 15) In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________. A) hyaline cartilage C) fibrocartilage B) synovial membranes D) tendon sheaths Page Ref: 251 17) Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility B) interphalangeal joints C) joints that permit angular movements D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones Page Ref: 251 18) What are menisci? A) cavities lined with cartilage C) semilunar cartilage pads B) small sacs containing synovial fluid D) tendon sheaths Page Ref: 253 19) Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements? A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints. B) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs. C) Gliding movements are multiaxial. D) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head. Page Ref: 256 20) What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called? Ref. Page 258 A) abduction B) adduction C) inversion D) dorsiflexion 21) The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________. Page Ref: 258 A) hands B) feet C) arms D) hands & feet 22) The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint. Ref: 255; A) nonaxial B) uniaxial C) biaxial D) multiaxial 14 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 24) Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. A) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement C) common in all people who are overweight D) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint Page Ref: 266 25) Which ligament holds the radius to the ulna at the proximal end? A) anular C) radial collateral B) ulnar collateral D) iliofemoral Page Ref: 266 26) Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped? A) the patellar ligament C) the lateral patellar retinacula B) the medial patellar retinacula D) the extracapsular ligament Page Ref: 263 27) Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result? A) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament B) suprapatellar C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate D) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate Page Ref: 264 28) Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis? A) bursitis C) osteoarthritis B) tendonitis D) rheumatoid arthritis Page Ref: 270 29) What can cause gouty arthritis? A) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints B) a disorder in the body's immune system resulting in destruction of joints C) a thickening of the synovial membrane and a decrease in fluid production D) a bacterial infection in the bursae Page Ref: 271 30) Pointing the toes is an example of ________. A) circumduction C) pronation B) plantar flexion D) protraction Page Ref: 258 31) Which of the following is a true statement? A) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process. B) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula. C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint. D) The anular ligament surrounds the head of the radius. Page Ref: 266 32) Multiaxial joints of the body include ________. Page Ref: 253; Tbl. 8.2 A) the knee and elbow C) the hip and shoulder B) the ankle and wrist D) intercarpal and intertarsal joints 15 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc. 33) Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? Page Ref: 260 A) suture B) synchondrosis C) symphysis D) hinge joint 34) Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________. A) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella B) fibular and tibial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial rotation C) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together D) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly Page Ref: 263-264 35) Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints? A) Joints develop in parallel with bones. B) By the end of the fourth week, fetal synovial joints resemble adult joints. C) All fibrous joints are in the adult form by the time of birth. D) Joints develop independent of bone growth. Page Ref: 272 36) An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is ________. Page Ref: 250 A) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends B) the radius and ulna along its length C) between the vertebrae D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity 38) Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Name the two bones of the hand that articulate to form a saddle joint. A) The scaphoid of the index finger and the triquetrum of the middle finger. B) The trapezium of the ring finger and the capitate of the fourth finger. C) The scaphoid of the middle finger and lunate of the index finger. D) The trapezium of the carpal bone and the thumb's metacarpal. Page Ref: 259/261 39) Tendon sheaths ________. Page Ref: 253 A) act as friction-reducing structures B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue C) form channels for tendons D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle 40) Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint? Page Ref: 252 A) joint cavity C) articular cartilage B) tendon sheath D) articular capsule 41) Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact? Page Ref: 255 A) structure & shape of the articulating bone C) strength & tension of ligaments B) arrangement and tension of the muscles D) number of bones in the joint 16 Copyright © Pearson Education, Inc.