Animal Science Answers PDF

Animal Science Answers 1. What is the average cost of a day-old chick in broiler production? A. P20.00-25.00/chick B. P5.00-8.00/chick C. P13.00-18.00/chick D. P10.00-12.00/chick Answer: P13.00-18.00/chick (C) The cost of day-old chicks is a significant factor in broiler production. 2. What is the typical feed conversion ratio (FCR) for broilers? A. 3.0-3.5 kg B. 2.0-50.00/kg C. 1.5-2.5 kg D. 4.0-5.0 kg Answer: 2.0-50.00/kg (B) The feed conversion ratio measures the efficiency of converting feed into body weight. 3. Which of the following species contributes to most domestic swine breeds? A. Sus vittatus B. Sus scrofa C. Sus scrota D. Sus domesticus Answer: Sus scrofa (B) Sus scrofa is the primary ancestor of most domestic swine. 4. What is the average mortality rate for broilers in production? A. 5% B. 15% C. 1% D. 10% Answer: 5% (A) Mortality rates are a critical parameter influencing overall production efficiency. 5. How many batches of broilers are typically raised per year? A. 2-3 B. 4-5 C. 5-6 D. 6-7 Answer: 5-6 (C) The number of batches impacts the overall production cycle and profitability. 6. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the maintenance of blood pressure? A. Epinephrine B. Relaxin C. Insulin D. Norepinephrine Answer: Norepinephrine (D) Norepinephrine plays a crucial role in maintaining blood pressure levels. 7. What is the primary function of the pancreas in its exocrine role? A. Hormone regulation B. Blood glucose storage C. Production of digestive enzymes D. Secretion of insulin Answer: Production of digestive enzymes (C) The pancreas functions as an exocrine gland by secreting pancreatic juices that contain digestive enzymes. 8. Which structure of the heart is known as the cardiac pacemaker? A. Coronary artery B. Bundle of His C. Sino-atrial node D. Atrioventricular node Answer: Sino-atrial node (C) The sino-atrial node (SA node) is referred to as the cardiac pacemaker due to its role in initiating heartbeats. 9. What is the characteristic of arteries in the vascular system? A. They carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. B. They have valves to prevent backflow. C. They carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. D. They are thicker than veins but have no muscular tissue. Answer: They carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. (C) Arteries are primarily responsible for carrying oxygenated blood away from the heart. 10. What causes the 'lub' sound during the heart cycle? A. Closure of the aortic valve B. Contraction of the ventricles C. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves D. Spontaneous contraction of the atria Answer: Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves (C) 'Lub' is the sound produced by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves during ventricular systole. 11. Which hormone is produced by the female gonad to maintain pregnancy? A. Progesterone B. Estrogen C. Relaxin D. Insulin Answer: Progesterone (A) Progesterone is essential for maintaining pregnancy and is produced by the corpus luteum. 12. What is the main function of leukocytes in the blood? A. Transport carbon dioxide B. Defense against infection C. Clotting of blood D. Transport oxygen Answer: Defense against infection (B) Leukocytes (white blood cells) are responsible for the defense and protection of the body against foreign materials. 13. What is the role of thromboplastin released from platelets? A. Initiate white blood cell production B. Stimulate insulin production C. Facilitate clotting of blood D. Regulate blood pressure Answer: Facilitate clotting of blood (C) Thromboplastin is essential for the clotting process and is released by platelets at the site of an injury. 14. What role do granulocytes primarily serve in the immune response? A. Transporting oxygen B. Clotting blood C. Phagocytosis of infections D. Producing antibodies Answer: Phagocytosis of infections (C) Granulocytes, including neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils, mainly function by phagocytosing infections. 15. Where are lymphocytes primarily formed? A. Bone marrow B. Granulocyte tissues C. Lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus D. Blood plasma Answer: Lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus (C) Lymphocytes are mostly formed in the lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus. 16. What feature distinguishes erythrocytes from other blood cells? A. Involvement in blood clotting B. Biconcave shape and hemoglobin content C. Presence of a nucleus D. Ability to form antibodies Answer: Biconcave shape and hemoglobin content (B) Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are characterized by their biconcave shape and contain hemoglobin. 17. What is the main function of hemoglobin in erythrocytes? A. Fighting infections B. Forming blood clots C. Carrying oxygen to tissues D. Transporting carbon dioxide Answer: Carrying oxygen to tissues (C) Hemoglobin is responsible for carrying oxygen for distribution to different tissues. 18. What characteristic of lymph vessels prevents the backflow of their contents? A. Muscular walls B. Presence of valves C. Pressure regulation D. High-speed flow Answer: Presence of valves (B) Lymph vessels contain valves which prevent the backflow of their contents. 19. Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A. Remove carbon dioxide from the blood B. Assist in digestion C. Supply oxygen to the blood D. Draw fresh air into the lungs Answer: Assist in digestion (B) The respiratory system functions to supply oxygen and remove carbon dioxide, but does not assist in digestion. 20. What does the lymph primarily derive from? A. Granulocyte cells B. Interstitial fluid and blood plasma C. Bone marrow D. Oxygen molecules Answer: Interstitial fluid and blood plasma (B) The lymph is largely derived from interstitial fluid and has a similar composition to blood plasma. 21. What is the primary action taken by thrombocytes during the hemostatic process? A. Clot formation B. Production of lymph C. Infection phagocytosis D. Oxygen delivery Answer: Clot formation (A) Thrombocytes, or platelets, are primarily responsible for clotting blood during the hemostatic process. 22. Which structure is primarily involved in gas exchange in the respiratory system? A. Bronchi B. Trachea C. Diaphragm D. Alveoli Answer: Alveoli (D) The alveoli are the small air sacs responsible for the exchange of gases between the blood and lungs. 23. What is the unidirectional flow of lymph described as? A. Systemic drainage B. Lymphatic flow towards the heart C. Directional blood circulation D. Fluid dynamic flow Answer: Lymphatic flow towards the heart (B) The flow of lymph in the lymph vessels is unidirectional, moving from the tissues toward the heart. 24. What is the primary purpose of digestion in the body? A. To absorb all food particles unchanged B. To create new dietary substances C. To break down nutrients into absorbable molecules D. To supply energy directly from whole foods Answer: To break down nutrients into absorbable molecules (C) Digestion involves the breakdown of nutrients into very small molecules for absorption. 25. Which process is primarily responsible for the initial digestion of starches in the mouth? A. Salivary protease action B. Mechanical mastication only C. Salivary amylase action D. Bile secretion Answer: Salivary amylase action (C) Salivary amylase starts carbohydrate digestion by converting starch to maltose. 26. Which of the following describes the role of the tongue in digestion? A. Absorbs nutrients directly B. Increases saliva production C. Secretes digestive enzymes D. Grasps and manipulates food Answer: Grasps and manipulates food (D) The tongue's function includes grasping food, aiding in mastication. 27. What does the term 'prehension' refer to in the context of digestion? A. The absorption of nutrients B. The physical breakdown of food C. The process of taking food into the mouth D. The conversion of food into energy Answer: The process of taking food into the mouth (C) Prehension is the action of seizing food, which occurs in the mouth and buccal cavity. 28. Which accessory organ produces saliva containing mucin? A. Pancreas B. Salivary glands C. Liver D. Gallbladder Answer: Salivary glands (B) Salivary glands produce saliva that contains mucin to lubricate food for swallowing. 29. Where does the majority of nutrient absorption occur within the digestive system? A. Large intestine B. Rumen C. Mouth D. Small intestine Answer: Small intestine (D) The small intestine is primarily responsible for the absorption of nutrients. 30. What factors are involved in the digestion process? A. Mechanical forces, chemical action, and enzyme activity B. Chemical action only C. Enzyme activity only D. Absorption alone Answer: Mechanical forces, chemical action, and enzyme activity (A) Digestion involves a combination of mechanical forces, chemical action, and enzyme activity. 31. How are digestive enzymes described in biological terms? A. Minerals that aid in digestion B. Fatty acids required for energy C. Simple sugars D. Complex proteins that alter other substances Answer: Complex proteins that alter other substances (D) Digestive enzymes are complex proteins that act as organic catalysts in the digestive process. 32. Salivary amylase performs which specific function in digestion? A. Converts starches to maltose B. Breaks down fats into fatty acids C. Converts proteins to amino acids D. Absorbs water from food Answer: Converts starches to maltose (A) Salivary amylase initiates the digestion of carbohydrates by converting starch to maltose. 33. Which of the following statements about the digestive system is true? A. The large intestine is mainly for digestion B. Digestion only occurs in the stomach C. The mouth is involved in both digestion and absorption D. Chemical changes in nutrients occur throughout digestion Answer: Chemical changes in nutrients occur throughout digestion (D) Chemical changes in nutrients are integral to the overall digestion process. 34. What is the primary function of the ampulla in male reproduction? A. Production of testosterone B. Production of sperm and androgen C. Sperm transport to the urethra D. Storage of mature sperm Answer: Production of sperm and androgen (B) The ampulla functions in the production of sperm and the secretion of androgen, the male sex hormone. 35. Where is the ampulla located in mammals? A. Within the body cavity B. In the scrotum, outside the abdominal cavity C. Inside the prostate gland D. In the pelvic cavity near the bladder Answer: In the scrotum, outside the abdominal cavity (B) In mammals, the ampulla is located in the scrotum, outside the abdominal cavity. 36. What is the primary role of the seminal vesicles? A. Production of testosterone B. Storage of sperm until ejaculation C. Secretion high in fructose for sperm transport D. Production of a viscous secretion for semen odor Answer: Secretion high in fructose for sperm transport (C) The seminal vesicles produce a secretion high in fructose, which acts as a vehicle for sperm transport. 37. How do the testes get an optimal environment for sperm production? A. By being surrounded by the prostate gland B. By being located inside the body cavity C. By being a few degrees cooler than body temperature D. By being protected from mechanical injury Answer: By being a few degrees cooler than body temperature (C) The scrotum provides the testes an environment that is a few degrees cooler than body temperature, crucial for sperm production. 38. What is the function of the epididymis in male reproduction? A. Transport of seminal fluid B. Production of sperm C. Secretion of androgens D. Maturation of spermatozoa Answer: Maturation of spermatozoa (D) The epididymis is the site for the maturation of spermatozoa before ejaculation. 39. Which gland surrounds the urethra and produces a secretion that stimulates sperm activity? A. Epididymis B. Cowper's gland C. Seminal vesicles D. Prostate gland Answer: Prostate gland (D) The prostate gland surrounds the urethra and produces a viscous secretion that stimulates sperm activity. 40. What is the function of the Cowper's gland? A. Maturation of sperm B. Production of testosterone C. Lubrication and secretion in preparation for ejaculation D. Secretion of seminal fluid Answer: Lubrication and secretion in preparation for ejaculation (C) The Cowper's gland provides lubrication and secretes fluids in preparation for ejaculation. 41. What does semen consist of? A. Sperm cells and secretions from accessory glands B. Only secretions from the prostate gland C. Sperm cells and urine D. Sperm cells only Answer: Sperm cells and secretions from accessory glands (A) Semen consists of sperm cells and the secretions of the accessory glands. 42. What is the role of the penis in male reproductive anatomy? A. To regulate the temperature of the testes B. To produce secretions for lubrication C. To store sperm until ejaculation D. To introduce spermatozoa to the vagina Answer: To introduce spermatozoa to the vagina (D) The penis functions to introduce spermatozoa to the vagina. 43. Which statement is true regarding the scrotum? A. It maintains a temperature exactly the same as the body. B. It is the primary site for sperm production. C. It is located internally within the abdominal cavity. D. It protects the testes and helps regulate their temperature. Answer: It protects the testes and helps regulate their temperature. (D) The scrotum protects the testes and offers a regulated temperature for optimal sperm production. 44. What protein content is recommended for the grower ration for pullets aged 6-14 weeks? A. 18% protein B. 10% protein C. 16% protein D. 12% protein Answer: 16% protein (C) The grower ration for pullets aged 6-14 weeks should contain 16% protein. 45. Which housing system is characterized by providing birds a shed and space to graze? A. Range system B. Complete confinement C. Semi-confinement D. Cage system Answer: Semi-confinement (C) The semi-confinement system allows birds to have both shelter and grazing area. 46. What is the primary issue with early sexual maturity in pullets? A. Increased feed efficiency B. Larger egg size C. Smaller pullets and egg size D. Higher egg production rates Answer: Smaller pullets and egg size (C) Early sexual maturity in pullets leads to smaller sizes and subsequently smaller eggs. 47. What is the percentage of feed waste when a feeding trough is completely full? A. 10% B. 3% C. 30% D. 50% Answer: 30% (C) Feed wastage is significantly high at 30% when the trough is completely full. 48. What is a characteristic of the complete confinement housing system for layers? A. Offers free-range grazing B. Utilizes natural weather conditions C. Requires less space D. Animal welfare concerns Answer: Requires less space (C) Complete confinement housing typically requires less space, making it a modern trend. 49. What term refers to a young male horse usually up to the age of three? A. Colt B. Gelding C. Filly D. Studhorse Answer: Colt (A) A colt is specifically defined as a young male horse until it reaches about three years of age. 50. Which of the following describes a mature female horse that has not produced any young during the breeding season? A. Filly B. Broodmare C. Yeld mare D. Mare Answer: Yeld mare (C) A yeld mare, or dry mare, refers to a mature female horse that has not produced any offspring during the breeding season. 51. What is the term used for a castrated male pig performed before the development of secondary sex characteristics? A. Capon B. Barrow C. Boar D. Gilt Answer: Barrow (B) A barrow is a male pig that has been castrated before the development of secondary sex characteristics. 52. Which of the following is a stallion that has only one testis or none in its scrotum? A. Studhorse B. Colt C. Ridgling D. Gelding Answer: Ridgling (C) A ridgling, or cryptorchid, is a male horse that has only one testis or none in the scrotum. 53. What term is used to identify a female horse that is specifically bred for breeding purposes? A. Capon B. Studhorse C. Mare D. Foal Answer: Mare (C) A mare is the term used for a mature female horse that may also be used for breeding purposes. 54. Which term describes a male goat that has been castrated before the development of secondary sex characteristics? A. Boar B. Capon C. Wether goat D. Steer Answer: Wether goat (C) A wether goat refers to a male goat that has been castrated before the secondary sex characteristics have developed. 55. What is a capon? A. A mature male duck B. A castrated male chicken C. A female chicken used for breeding D. A young male horse Answer: A castrated male chicken (B) A capon is a male chicken that has been castrated, and it is often raised for its tender meat. 56. What defines a filly in equine terminology? A. Mature male horse B. Mature female horse used for breeding C. Young female horse usually up to three years of age D. Young male horse under one year Answer: Young female horse usually up to three years of age (C) A filly refers specifically to a young female horse, typically classified as such until she is three years old. 57. Which term refers to the act of giving birth in cows? A. Lambing B. Calving C. Farrowing D. Kidding Answer: Calving (B) Calving is specifically the term used for giving birth in cows. 58. What is the primary function of external anatomy in farm animals? A. Regulation of body temperature B. Circulation of blood C. Protection and covering D. Coordination of internal organs Answer: Protection and covering (C) External anatomy includes structures like skin and feathers that protect the body. 59. Which of the following terms describes the ability to give birth to numerous offspring frequently? A. Conception B. Fecundity/Prolificacy C. Dam D. Parturition Answer: Fecundity/Prolificacy (B) Fecundity or prolificacy refers to the frequency of giving birth to offspring. 60. What does the thoracic cavity primarily contain? A. Stomach and intestines B. Skin and feathers C. Lungs and heart D. Pancreas and liver Answer: Lungs and heart (C) The thoracic cavity houses the lungs and heart, which are essential for circulation and respiration. 61. What does the term 'kidding' refer to in the context of farm animal reproduction? A. Giving birth in ewes B. Giving birth in goats C. Giving birth in sows D. Giving birth in cows Answer: Giving birth in goats (B) 'Kidding' specifically refers to the process of goats giving birth. 62. Which of the following statements about internal anatomy is true? A. Internal anatomy primarily focuses on external structures. B. Internal anatomy is solely concerned with skin and feathers. C. Internal anatomy includes organs that function together for survival. D. Internal anatomy does not involve organ systems. Answer: Internal anatomy includes organs that function together for survival. (C) Internal anatomy comprises organs and systems that work in coordination for survival and growth. 63. Which of these is NOT typically a function of external anatomy? A. Digestion via mouth and beak B. Aesthetic functions like combs and wattles C. Sensation through skin and nostrils D. Transportation of blood Answer: Transportation of blood (D) Transportation of blood is a function of the internal anatomy, not the external. 64. What is the term for the act of fertilization? A. Conception B. Calving C. Fecundity D. Parturition Answer: Conception (A) Conception is the term used to describe the act of fertilization. 65. Which of the following correctly matches the act of giving birth in mares? A. Kidding B. Farrowing C. Lambing D. Foaling Answer: Foaling (D) Foaling refers specifically to the act of giving birth in mares. 66. Which term identifies the female parent in the context of animal breeding? A. Sire B. Dam C. Progeny D. Offspring Answer: Dam (B) Dam is the term used to refer to the female parent in breeding. 67. What type of nerves are responsible for transmitting impulses from the effector organs to the spinal cord or brain? A. Visceral motor fibers B. Efferent neurons C. Interneurons D. Afferent neurons Answer: Afferent neurons (D) Afferent neurons transmit nerve impulses from the effector organs to the central nervous system. 68. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is involved in the 'fight or flight' response? A. Somatic division B. Cerebral division C. Sympathetic division D. Parasympathetic division Answer: Sympathetic division (C) The sympathetic division is also known as the 'fight or flight' division and helps cope with stress. 69. What is the role of interneurons in the nervous system? A. Supply motor functions to peripheral nerves B. Receive sensory information from the environment C. Conduct impulses within the central nervous system D. Transmit impulses from muscles to the brain Answer: Conduct impulses within the central nervous system (C) Interneurons conduct impulses from afferent neurons within the central nervous system. 70. Which type of neuron transmits nerve impulses away from the brain or spinal cord? A. Visceral neurons B. Sensory neurons C. Efferent neurons D. Afferent neurons Answer: Efferent neurons (C) Efferent neurons are responsible for transmitting nerve impulses away from the brain or spinal cord. 71. What is the primary function of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? A. Regulating digestion B. Promoting relaxation C. Maintaining homeostasis D. Preparing the body for stress Answer: Preparing the body for stress (D) The sympathetic division prepares the body to cope with stress, often characterized by the 'fight or flight' response. 72. What gap exists between two neurons for the transmission of nerve impulses? A. Dendrite B. Synapse C. Nucleus D. Axon Answer: Synapse (B) The synapse is the gap between two neurons where nerve impulses are transmitted. 73. Which fibers are primarily associated with smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands? A. Visceral motor fibers B. Somatic fibers C. Sensory fibers D. Motor fibers Answer: Visceral motor fibers (A) Visceral motor fibers supply smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. 74. In the nervous system, what are the main components that facilitate the relay of messages? A. Hormones and enzymes B. Glands and muscles C. Cells and tissues D. Neurons and synapses Answer: Neurons and synapses (B) The main components in the nervous system that facilitate message relay are neurons and synapses. 75. Which of the following best describes the afferent neurons? A. They relay messages from the central nervous system. B. They transmit sensory information to the central nervous system. C. They carry impulses towards the muscles. D. They are responsible for motor responses. Answer: They transmit sensory information to the central nervous system. (B) Afferent neurons transmit sensory information from the effector organs to the central nervous system. 76. What characteristic distinguishes visceral motor fibers from other types of fibers? A. They are located only in the brain. B. They supply smooth muscle and glands. C. They stimulate skeletal muscle. D. They transmit sensory signals. Answer: They supply smooth muscle and glands. (B) Visceral motor fibers are specifically involved in supplying smooth muscle and glands, unlike other fibers. 77. What is the best indication that a female animal is in estrus? A. Frequent urination B. The female stands still when mounted C. Reddening and swelling of the vulva D. Restlessness and lack of appetite Answer: The female stands still when mounted (B) The standing still of the female when mounted is considered the best indicator of estrus. 78. What is the primary purpose of mating or insemination during the estrous cycle? A. To promote increased estrogen production B. To initiate uterine contractions C. To ensure sperm viability D. To coincide with ovulation Answer: To coincide with ovulation (D) Mating or insemination must occur close to the expected ovulation time to increase conception chances. 79. During which stage of the estrous cycle does follicular development occur? A. Anestrus B. Metestrus C. Estrus D. Proestrus Answer: Proestrus (D) Proestrus is the stage where follicular development and increasing estrogen production occur. 80. Which of the following is a physiological sign associated with heat or estrus in animals? A. Increased aggression B. Salivary secretion C. Decreased mobility D. Mucus discharges from the vagina Answer: Mucus discharges from the vagina (D) Mucus discharges from the vagina are a common physiological sign of estrus. 81. What happens if insemination occurs too early in the estrous cycle? A. It reduces conceptions due to sperm viability loss B. It enhances sperm motility C. It maximizes conception rates D. It increases hormonal imbalance Answer: It reduces conceptions due to sperm viability loss (A) If insemination occurs too early, the chances of conception are reduced due to loss of sperm viability. 82. What is the typical lifespan of spermatozoa in the female reproductive tract for cattle and swine? A. 20-30 hours B. 2-3 weeks C. 1-5 hours D. 4-5 days Answer: 20-30 hours (A) Spermatozoa can typically survive 20-30 hours in the female reproductive tract of cattle and swine. 83. What best defines puberty in female animals? A. Sexual maturity and capacity to produce offspring B. The first signs of pregnancy C. The onset of anestrous periods D. The end of the estrous cycle Answer: Sexual maturity and capacity to produce offspring (A) Puberty indicates that a female has reached sexual maturity and is capable of producing offspring. 84. Which stage of the estrous cycle is characterized by sexual receptivity due to high levels of estrogen? A. Metestrus B. Estrus C. Proestrus D. Anestrus Answer: Estrus (B) Estrus is the stage marked by sexual receptivity due to elevated estrogen levels. 85. What is a common behavior exhibited by females in heat? A. Decreased vocalization B. Increased grazing activity C. Mounting other animals D. Lethargy Answer: Mounting other animals (C) Mounting other animals is a common behavior observed in females during estrus. 86. How long does the estrous cycle typically last in females? A. 28 days B. 21 days C. 14 days D. 7 days Answer: 21 days (B) The duration of the estrous cycle is generally about 21 days in many species. 87. What is the primary reason layers do not consistently lay one egg every day? A. Insufficient water availability B. Environmental temperature fluctuations C. Inconsistent feeding schedule D. Natural skipping of days in egg production Answer: Natural skipping of days in egg production (D) Layers are expected to skip some days in egg production due to their biological cycle. 88. What is the average daily water consumption for one hundred layers under normal conditions? A. 10 gallons B. 5 gallons C. 7 gallons D. 15 gallons Answer: 7 gallons (C) One hundred layers typically consume about 7 gallons of water in a normal day. 89. What is a necessary condition to implement a two-stage broiler operation? A. Using a single housing unit for all birds B. Maintaining separate brooder and grower houses C. Feeding all broilers the same diet D. Mixing different ages of chicks in one house Answer: Maintaining separate brooder and grower houses (B) Separate brooder and grower houses are essential to follow the principle of not mixing different ages of chicks. 90. In multiple stage broiler operations, how frequently can chick turnover occur? A. Only monthly for better management B. Daily, weekly, or monthly only C. Daily, every 2 days, weekly, bi-weekly, etc. D. Every three months for seasonal cycles Answer: Daily, every 2 days, weekly, bi-weekly, etc. (C) Chick turnover can occur at various intervals including daily, every 2 days, weekly, bi-weekly, etc. 91. Why is it desirable to manage water intake for layers properly, especially during high temperatures? A. To ensure uniformity in egg size B. To avoid overconsumption of feed C. To prevent dehydration and maintain egg production D. To reduce the feed cost per egg Answer: To prevent dehydration and maintain egg production (C) Proper water intake is essential to prevent dehydration, which can affect egg production, especially in higher temperatures. 92. What term describes the normal quiet respiration process? A. Apnea B. Eupnea C. Dyspnea D. Hyperpnea Answer: Eupnea (B) Eupnea is the term for normal, quiet respiration, while apnea refers to a cessation of breathing, and dyspnea indicates difficulty in breathing. 93. Which anatomical structure separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity? A. Mediastinum B. Diaphragm C. Heart D. Lungs Answer: Diaphragm (B) The diaphragm plays a crucial role in respiration by separating the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity. 94. What is the primary function of mastication? A. Breaking down food into smaller particles B. Mixing food with saliva C. Expelling carbon dioxide D. Absorption of nutrients Answer: Breaking down food into smaller particles (A) Mastication refers to the mechanical breakdown of feed, which helps prepare it for digestion. 95. What respiratory condition is characterized by rapid, shallow breathing? A. Polypnea B. Dyspnea C. Hyperpnea D. Eupnea Answer: Polypnea (A) Polypnea describes a condition of rapid and shallow breathing, while dyspnea indicates difficulty in breathing. 96. Which of the following species has only a dental pad instead of upper incisors? A. Pig B. Horse C. Sheep D. Cattle Answer: Cattle (D) Cattle and other ruminants possess a dental pad instead of a full set of upper incisors. 97. What process primarily occurs in ruminants during the re- chewing of feed particles? A. Mastication B. Digestion C. Inspiration D. Ruminating Answer: Ruminating (D) Ruminating is the term used for the re-chewing process that occurs in ruminants, primarily involving coarser feed particles. 98. Which of the following animals has the highest normal range of respiratory rate per minute? A. Carabao B. Pig C. Horse D. Sheep Answer: Sheep (D) Sheep have the highest normal respiratory rate range at 35-38 breaths per minute. 99. What role does saliva play during the feeding process? A. It prevents feed mixing. B. It aids in creating a feed bolus. C. It directly absorbs nutrients. D. It initiates digestion of proteins. Answer: It aids in creating a feed bolus. (B) Saliva helps lubricate the feed bolus and facilitates swallowing, which is crucial during the feeding process. 100. What is the recommended protein percentage for layer 1 feed consumed by mature laying hens? A. 15% B. 18% C. 20% D. 16% Answer: 18% (B) Mature laying hens consume layer 1 feed with a protein content of 18%. 101. At what age should chicks be transitioned to grower feeds with a protein level of 16%? A. Eighteen to forty-two weeks old B. Twelve to eighteen weeks old C. Day-old to six weeks old D. Six to twelve weeks old Answer: Six to twelve weeks old (D) Grower feeds with 16% protein are intended for chicks aged six to twelve weeks. 102. What is the typical daily feed consumption for mature laying hens? A. 90 to 140 grams B. 110 to 120 grams C. 50 to 60 grams D. 70 to 80 grams Answer: 90 to 140 grams (A) Mature laying hens will consume between 90 to 140 grams of feed daily. 103. What is the primary role of saliva in the initial stages of digestion? A. It acts as a lubricant for the esophagus. B. It begins the breakdown of proteins into amino acids. C. It helps in the formation of the bolus. D. It increases the temperature of food for better digestion. Answer: It helps in the formation of the bolus. (C) Saliva plays a key role in moistening food and facilitating the formation of the bolus for easier swallowing. 104. Which feed is typically given to pullets aged between twelve to eighteen weeks? A. Layer 2 feed B. Developer feeds C. Layer 1 feed D. Starter mash Answer: Developer feeds (B) Pullets aged twelve to eighteen weeks are fed developer feeds. 105. What is the maximum number of birds recommended per cage for good performance? A. 5-6 birds B. 2-3 birds C. 8-10 birds D. 3-4 birds Answer: 3-4 birds (D) Local conditions suggest that 3-4 birds per cage result in good performance. 106. Which digestive process occurs primarily in the small and large intestine? A. Storage of undigested food. B. Absorption of nutrients. C. Mechanical breakdown of food particles. D. Production of digestive enzymes. Answer: Absorption of nutrients. (B) The small and large intestine are mainly responsible for nutrient absorption, allowing vital nutrients to enter the bloodstream. 107. What is the primary purpose of collecting eggs in wire baskets? A. Prevent breakage B. Ensure good air circulation C. Enhance nutrition D. Facilitate cleaning Answer: Ensure good air circulation (B) Collecting eggs in wire baskets is important for providing good air circulation. 108. What characteristic defines enzymes in the context of digestion? A. They act as catalysts without being consumed. B. They are simple sugars that aid in digestion. C. They function only in acidic environments. D. They undergo permanent changes during the reaction. Answer: They act as catalysts without being consumed. (A) Enzymes are complex proteins that serve as catalysts, initiating chemical reactions without being consumed in the process. 109. Which accessory organ contributes to the initial digestion of carbohydrates? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Salivary glands D. Gallbladder Answer: Salivary glands (C) Salivary glands produce saliva that contains salivary amylase, which initiates the digestion of carbohydrates. 110. What is the typical time frame for egg laying to peak during the day? A. 6:00 a.m. to 8:00 a.m. B. 3:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. C. 10:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. D. 7:00 a.m. to 9:00 a.m. Answer: 10:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. (C) The majority of hens lay their eggs between 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. 111. What is a characteristic of the all-in-all out system in broiler operation? A. Continuous cycle of introduction and removal of birds B. Simultaneous introduction and removal of all birds C. Permanent housing for all birds D. Staggered rotation of bird batches Answer: Simultaneous introduction and removal of all birds (B) The all-in-all out system involves removing and introducing all birds at once. 112. What process does the term 'prehension' refer to in digestion? A. The selection and intake of food. B. The enzymatic breakdown of proteins. C. The absorption of nutrients in the intestine. D. The mechanical breakdown of food. Answer: The selection and intake of food. (A) 'Prehension' describes the action of grasping and taking in food, which is essential for the initial stage of digestion. 113. Which component of saliva helps in regulating pH? A. Amylase B. Water C. Mucin D. Bicarbonate salts Answer: Bicarbonate salts (D) Bicarbonate salts in saliva play a crucial role in buffering and regulating the pH levels necessary for effective digestion. 114. Which of the following statements about laying hens' feed composition is accurate? A. It usually includes a protein level between 15% to 18%. B. The dietary needs do not change with age. C. It should contain a minimum of 20% protein. D. The composition varies significantly from breeder ration. Answer: It usually includes a protein level between 15% to 18%. (A) Layer ration generally contains a protein level between 15% and 18%. 115. What is the primary function of the teeth during digestion? A. To absorb nutrients from the food. B. To assist in the fermentation of food. C. To moisten and lubricate food. D. To grind and break down food into smaller pieces. Answer: To grind and break down food into smaller pieces. (D) Teeth are essential for the process of mastication, which involves grinding and breaking food down into smaller particles for easier digestion. 116. How often should the flock replacement program typically be conducted? A. Annually B. Every three months C. Every six months D. Every month Answer: Every three months (B) Flock replacement programs can vary but are often set up every three months. 117. What does salivary amylase specifically convert during digestion? A. Proteins to amino acids. B. Fats to fatty acids. C. Cellulose to glucose. D. Starch to maltose. Answer: Starch to maltose. (D) Salivary amylase is responsible for initiating the digestion of carbohydrates by converting starch into maltose. 118. Which of the following is NOT a function of the mouth and buccal cavity? A. Enzymatic breakdown of lipids. B. Insalivation for easier swallowing. C. Formation of the bolus. D. Mastication of food. Answer: Enzymatic breakdown of lipids. (A) While the mouth and buccal cavity are involved in various functions, they do not contribute significantly to the enzymatic breakdown of lipids. 119. Where does the majority of nutrient absorption take place during digestion? A. Small intestine B. Mouth C. Stomach D. Rumen Answer: Small intestine (A) The small intestine is the primary site for nutrient absorption, allowing digested materials to enter the circulatory system. 120. What is the primary function of the pharynx in relation to the digestive system? A. It absorbs nutrients into the bloodstream. B. It produces digestive enzymes. C. It stores ingested feed. D. It acts as a common passage for air and feed. Answer: It acts as a common passage for air and feed. (D) The pharynx serves as a common passage for both air and feed, allowing them to enter the correct pathways. 121. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down protein into peptides in the stomach? A. Amylase B. Pepsin C. Chymotrypsin D. Urease Answer: Pepsin (B) Pepsin is the main enzyme in the stomach that breaks down protein into polypeptides. 122. Which section of the small intestine receives secretions from the pancreas and liver? A. Ileum B. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. Cecum Answer: Duodenum (B) The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine and is crucial for receiving secretions that aid in digestion. 123. What is a key role of the pancreas in digestion? A. Secretion of hormones B. Production of digestive enzymes C. Storage of chyme D. Absorption of nutrients Answer: Production of digestive enzymes (B) The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that are secreted into the duodenum for breaking down macronutrients. 124. Which type of enzyme breaks down starches into simpler carbohydrates? A. Amylase B. Chymotrypsin C. Carboxypeptidase D. Proteases Answer: Amylase (A) Amylase is the enzyme responsible for hydrolyzing starch into sugars during digestion. 125. What is the primary function of the small intestine? A. Production of bile B. Absorption of nutrients C. Mechanical breakdown of feed D. Storage of food Answer: Absorption of nutrients (B) The small intestine is primarily involved in nutrient absorption after food has been digested. 126. Which function is NOT part of the stomach's activities? A. Absorption of amino acids B. Mechanical breakdown of food C. Storage of ingested feed D. Production of HCL and enzymes Answer: Absorption of amino acids (A) The stomach primarily functions in storage, mechanical breakdown, and secretion, but not nutrient absorption. 127. What role does microbial fermentation play in digestion? A. Converting starch into glucose B. Turning cellulose into volatile fatty acids C. Digestion of protein into amino acids D. Hydrolysis of triglycerides Answer: Turning cellulose into volatile fatty acids (B) Microbial fermentation is essential for breaking down cellulose into volatile fatty acids, especially in certain digestive systems. 128. Which part of the digestive tract follows the esophagus? A. Colon B. Duodenum C. Stomach D. Ileum Answer: Stomach (C) The stomach follows the esophagus and is crucial for further digesting food after it has been swallowed. 129. Which enzyme does NOT specifically target protein during digestion? A. Trypsin B. Pepsin C. Chymotrypsin D. Amylase Answer: Amylase (D) Amylase primarily targets carbohydrates, while the other enzymes listed focus on breaking down proteins. 130. What is a characteristic feature of Meishan pigs? A. Average size compared to other breeds B. Wrinkled face and skin C. High backfat density D. Fast growth rate Answer: Wrinkled face and skin (B) Meishan pigs are notably recognized for their distinctive wrinkled face and skin. 131. Why may Chinese Taihu pigs be viewed negatively in some contexts? A. Difficult to slaughter due to thick backfat B. Low resistance to diseases C. High feed conversion efficiency D. Difficulty in breeding Answer: Difficult to slaughter due to thick backfat (A) Chinese Taihu pigs may be criticized for the challenges associated with dressing and slaughtering due to their thick backfat. 132. Which of the following breeds is considered one of the most prolific in the world? A. Berkshire B. Meishan C. Funjiang D. Erhualian Answer: Meishan (B) Among pig breeds, Meishan pigs are recognized for their high productivity and prolificacy. 133. In a farrow-to-finish operation, what does the producer begin with? A. Feeder pigs B. Market-ready pigs C. Pregnant gilt/sow D. Weaned piglets Answer: Pregnant gilt/sow (C) A farrow-to-finish operation starts with a pregnant gilt or sow, establishing the foundation for breeding. 134. What is a notable disadvantage of the Taihu breed's characteristics? A. High growth speed B. Low market price C. Difficulty in disease resistance D. Poor meat taste Answer: Difficulty in disease resistance (C) Taihu pigs are often slower growing, but they are also known for their resistance to certain diseases, which can be a benefit. 135. Which nutrient is primarily considered a source of energy for poultry? A. Vitamins B. Fats C. Minerals D. Proteins Answer: Fats (B) Fats are a concentrated source of energy and are vital in poultry diets. 136. What management practice is essential for the care of growing finishing pigs? A. Sow maintenance B. Health management C. Feed resource management D. Boar management Answer: Health management (B) Health management is critical to ensure the well-being and productivity of growing finishing pigs. 137. Which of the following is a crucial component of brooding management in poultry production? A. Nutrient composition B. Breed identification C. Temperature control D. Genetic selection Answer: Temperature control (C) Temperature control is vital during the brooding phase to ensure chick survival and growth. 138. Which class of livestock is primarily managed for milk production? A. Sheep B. Cattle C. Swine D. Goats Answer: Cattle (B) Cattle are the primary livestock managed for milk production in dairy systems. 139. What is an important aspect of the G x E interaction in genetics? A. Environmental adaptation B. Disease resistance C. Animal comfort D. Nutrient availability Answer: Environmental adaptation (A) The G x E interaction describes how genetics and the environment interact to affect animal performance. 140. Which factor is crucial for the herd management of beef cattle? A. Forage availability B. Housing facility adequacy C. Dairy cattle reproduction D. Poultry breeds Answer: Housing facility adequacy (B) Adequate housing facilities are essential for effective cattle management and overall herd health. 141. Which nutrient category includes calcium and phosphorus in poultry diets? A. Minerals B. Vitamins C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins Answer: Minerals (A) Minerals like calcium and phosphorus are necessary for bone development and health in poultry. 142. Which management practice is essential for successful goat production? A. Health management B. Genetic modification C. Milk processing D. Broiler management Answer: Health management (A) Health management is crucial for goat production to prevent disease and maintain productivity. 143. What term describes a group of pigs born in one farrowing? A. Litter B. Gilt C. Shote D. Sow Answer: Litter (A) A 'litter' refers specifically to the group of young pigs that are born at the same time. 144. Which of the following best defines a 'stg' in pigs? A. Young pig of either sex weighing approximately 60 kg B. Male pig castrated after sexual maturity C. Young female pig under one year of age D. Mature female pig that has given birth Answer: Male pig castrated after sexual maturity (B) A 'stag' is specifically a male pig that has been castrated after reaching sexual maturity. 145. Which term refers to a young duck in the down stage? A. Drake B. Duckling C. Poult D. Cockerel Answer: Duckling (B) A 'duckling' is the correct term for a young duck that has not yet developed adult feathers. 146. What is a 'pullet' in poultry terminology? A. Mature male fowl B. Young male fowl less than one year old C. Young female fowl less than one year old D. Mature female fowl Answer: Young female fowl less than one year old (C) A 'pullet' is defined as a young female fowl that is under one year of age. 147. What does 'suckling' refer to in terms of young pigs? A. Group of pigs born in one farrowing B. Mature female pig C. Young pigs from birth up to weaning D. Young pigs separated from the sow Answer: Young pigs from birth up to weaning (C) 'Suckling' specifically refers to young pigs that have not yet been weaned from their mother's milk. 148. What characteristic defines a 'gilt' in swine production? A. Young male pig over one year old B. Young female pig under one year old that has given birth C. Young female pig under one year of age, usually not given birth D. Mature female pig that has given birth Answer: Young female pig under one year of age, usually not given birth (C) A 'gilt' is a term for a young female pig under one year of age that has not yet given birth. 149. Which term describes a male goat of any age? A. Billy goat or buck B. Doe C. Ram D. Kid Answer: Billy goat or buck (A) A 'billy goat' or 'buck' is the term used for a male goat, regardless of age. 150. What is referred to by the term 'fleece' in sheep context? A. Mature male sheep for breeding purposes B. Wool covering the sheep C. Wool and skin of sheep D. Young sheep of either sex under one year old Answer: Wool covering the sheep (B) The term 'fleece' specifically refers to the wool covering of a sheep. 151. Which of the following definitions correctly describes a 'lamb'? A. Wool covering a sheep B. Female goat of any age C. Male sheep for breeding purposes D. Young sheep of either sex below one year of age Answer: Young sheep of either sex below one year of age (D) A 'lamb' is defined as a young sheep, regardless of sex, that is less than one year old. 152. What does 'pelt' refer to in reference to sheep? A. Young sheep below one year of age B. Mature female goat C. Skin and wool of sheep D. Wool covering of the sheep Answer: Skin and wool of sheep (C) 'Pelt' specifically refers to the combination of wool and skin of sheep. 153. What hormone is produced by the adrenal medulla and increases heart rate during emergencies? A. Norepinephrine B. Estrogen C. Epinephrine D. Cortisol Answer: Epinephrine (C) Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a key hormone in the fight-or-flight response that increases heart rate. 154. Which function is associated with insulin produced by the beta cells of the pancreas? A. Regulates blood pressure B. Stimulates the breakdown of fat C. Increases blood glucose levels D. Stimulates entry of glucose into cells Answer: Stimulates entry of glucose into cells (D) Insulin primarily acts to lower blood glucose levels by facilitating its uptake into the body's cells. 155. What is the normal average pulse rate for a horse? A. 54 beats per minute B. 38 beats per minute C. 78 beats per minute D. 200 beats per minute Answer: 38 beats per minute (B) The average pulse rate for a horse is typically around 38 beats per minute. 156. Which blood vessels are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood back to the heart? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Veins C. Arteries D. Pulmonary veins Answer: Pulmonary veins (D) Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. 157. What is vaporization primarily used for in animals? A. To absorb essential nutrients from food B. To support the development of the fetus C. To regulate body temperature through heat loss D. To facilitate respiration in animal tissues Answer: To regulate body temperature through heat loss (C) Vaporization is a key process for animals to lose heat and maintain a stable body temperature. 158. Which structure of the heart prevents backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria during contraction? A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. A-V valve Answer: A-V valve (D) The A-V valve (atrioventricular valve) prevents backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular systole. 159. Which sign is an indication of approaching parturition? A. Enlargement and edema of the vulva B. Change in skin color C. Enhanced digestion D. Increased heart rate Answer: Enlargement and edema of the vulva (A) Enlargement and edema of the vulva are clear signs that parturition is nearing. 160. What is a primary function of lymph nodes in the lymphatic system? A. Production of red blood cells B. Filtration of blood C. Storage of fat D. Production of lymphocytes Answer: Production of lymphocytes (D) Lymph nodes are crucial for producing lymphocytes and filtering foreign materials from the lymphatic fluid. 161. Which part of the mammalian heart initiates contraction and acts as the pacemaker? A. Bundle of His B. Sino-atrial node C. Left ventricle D. Atrioventricular node Answer: Sino-atrial node (B) The sino-atrial node (SA node) is known as the pacemaker of the heart, setting the rhythm for heartbeats. 162. What does thermal neutrality refer to? A. A state of enhanced metabolic activity without external temperature influence B. A condition where environmental heat loss equals minimal heat production C. An environmental temperature that supports enhanced heat production D. A state where body temperature is significantly high Answer: A condition where environmental heat loss equals minimal heat production (B) Thermal neutrality is when the heat loss is balanced by the minimum heat produced by the body. 163. What process occurs in the digestive system to replace worn- out or injured tissues? A. Excretion B. Assimilation C. Metabolism D. Nutrition Answer: Nutrition (D) Nutrition encompasses the processes by which organisms assimilate food for various physiological needs. 164. What is the primary role of thrombin released during blood clotting? A. Transform fibrinogen into fibrin B. Ceases all blood flow C. Vasodilate blood vessels D. Stimulate leukocyte production Answer: Transform fibrinogen into fibrin (A) Thrombin plays a critical role in the coagulation process by converting fibrinogen into fibrin, essential for clot formation. 165. What does the term 'systole' refer to in the cardiac cycle? A. Electrical conduction in the heart B. Active heart contraction phase C. Blood flow to lungs D. Heart relaxation phase Answer: Active heart contraction phase (B) 'Systole' describes the phase of heart contraction when the ventricles pump blood out of the heart. 166. What indicates the readiness of the mammary gland to produce milk? A. Presence of milk in the mammary gland B. Functional respiratory surfaces C. Decreased body temperature D. Weight gain in the fetus Answer: Presence of milk in the mammary gland (A) The presence of milk in the mammary gland shows that it is prepared for milk secretion post-parturition. 167. Which type of blood cell is primarily involved in oxygen transport? A. Leukocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Platelets D. Lymphocytes Answer: Erythrocytes (B) Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues. 168. What is a consequence of mammary activity in farm species? A. Increase in metabolic waste production B. Obvious enlargement of the mammary gland C. Reduction in digestive efficiency D. Loss of body heat Answer: Obvious enlargement of the mammary gland (B) Mammary activity in farm species is characterized by the significant enlargement of the mammary glands. 169. What is one of the primary functions of the changes in pelvic ligaments before parturition? A. To prepare the reproductive tract for birth B. To strengthen metabolic processes C. To support respiratory function in the mother D. To enhance fetal nutrient absorption Answer: To prepare the reproductive tract for birth (A) Changes in pelvic ligaments are important for preparing the reproductive tract for the birthing process. 170. Which of the following is NOT a sign of increasing parturition activity? A. Enlargement of the pelvic ligament B. Edema of the vulva C. Presence of milk in the mammary gland D. Thickening of the heart muscle Answer: Thickening of the heart muscle (D) Thickening of the heart muscle is unrelated to the signs exhibited during parturition. 171. What is a significant change that occurs postpartum in mammals? A. Decreased respiratory rate B. Increased body fat accumulation C. Reduction in mammary gland size D. Onset of milk secretion from the mammary gland Answer: Onset of milk secretion from the mammary gland (D) Following parturition, milk secretion begins as the mammary glands are now functional. 172. What indicates a strong readiness for lactation in an animal post-parturition? A. Stable metabolic rate B. Decreased blood circulation C. High levels of physical activity D. Presence of colostrum in the udder Answer: Presence of colostrum in the udder (D) The presence of colostrum in the udder is a strong sign of readiness for lactation after giving birth. 173. What is one of the primary functions of the reticulum in ruminants? A. To aid in the regurgitation of feed B. To initiate the digestion of carbohydrates C. To regulate the passage of feed to the abomasum D. To store nutrients for later use Answer: To aid in the regurgitation of feed (A) The reticulum plays a crucial role in the regurgitation of feed, allowing ruminants to chew the cud. 174. Which process is NOT part of the digestive pathway in ruminants? A. Reinsalivation B. Fermentation C. Absorption in the stomach D. Regurgitation Answer: Absorption in the stomach (C) The absorption of nutrients occurs primarily in the small intestine, not in the stomach. 175. What role does the omasum serve in the ruminant digestive system? A. To store excess feed before digestion B. To initiate microbial fermentation C. To grind feed into finer particles D. To produce essential amino acids Answer: To grind feed into finer particles (C) The omasum's primary function is to grind and reduce feed into finer particles before entering the abomasum. 176. What is a characteristic feature of the abomasum in ruminants? A. It regulates the passage of feed to the reticulum B. It is a site for microbial fermentation C. It contributes to the formation of the bolus D. It is the last of the four stomach compartments Answer: It is the last of the four stomach compartments (D) The abomasum is known as the true stomach of ruminants and is the final compartment in their digestive system. 177. Which nutrient can ruminants convert that is typically indigestible by monogastrics? A. Saturated fats B. Simple sugars C. Fibrous feeds D. Vitamins Answer: Fibrous feeds (C) Ruminants are capable of utilizing fibrous feeds, which are normally indigestible to humans and other monogastrics. 178. What is a male goat that has been castrated before developing secondary sex characteristics called? A. Steer B. Wether goat C. Studhorse D. Gelding Answer: Wether goat (B) A wether goat is specifically a male goat castrated before the development of secondary sex characteristics. 179. Which term describes a young horse of either sex that is less than one year old? A. Mare B. Foal C. Colt D. Filly Answer: Foal (B) A foal is defined as a young horse of either sex that is less than one year old. 180. What is the name for a mature male horse? A. Gelding B. Stallion C. Ridgling D. Broodmare Answer: Stallion (B) A stallion is a mature male horse, distinct from a gelding or ridgling. 181. Which term refers to a young female horse up to the age of three? A. Broodmare B. Mare C. Foal D. Filly Answer: Filly (D) A filly is specifically a young female horse usually up to three years old. 182. What is a male sheep that has been castrated while young called? A. Ram B. Ewe C. Wether sheep D. Shearling Answer: Wether sheep (C) A wether sheep is a male sheep that has been castrated while young, distinguishing it from rams and ewes. 183. Which term is used for a young male horse usually up to the age of three? A. Stallion B. Foal C. Colt D. Gelding Answer: Colt (C) A colt is the term for a young male horse typically up to three years of age. 184. What does the term 'capon' refer to in poultry? A. A breeding rooster B. A caponized male chicken C. A male duck D. A young female chicken Answer: A caponized male chicken (B) A capon is a male chicken that has been caponized, leading to specific physical characteristics. 185. Which term describes a female horse used specifically for breeding purposes? A. Broodmare B. Filly C. Mare D. Yeld mare Answer: Broodmare (A) A broodmare refers to a female horse specifically used for breeding purposes. 186. What term describes the inability to produce normal young? A. Impotency B. Fertility C. Sterility D. Gestation Answer: Sterility (C) Sterility refers to the inability of an animal to produce normal offspring. 187. Which of the following best defines puberty in animals? A. The time from conception to birth B. The onset of sexual maturity C. The ability to produce fertilizable ova D. The failure to copulate Answer: The onset of sexual maturity (B) Puberty marks the stage of sexual maturity, indicated by the first heat or ovulation. 188. What does the term 'weaning' refer to in animal husbandry? A. The process of separating young animals from their dam B. The ability to feed on solid food C. The period of pregnancy D. The introduction of males to a breeding program Answer: The process of separating young animals from their dam (A) Weaning is the process in which young animals are separated from their mother for independent feeding. 189. What major biological process is described by gestation? A. The immune response to disease B. The development of skills in young animals C. The ability to adapt to environmental changes D. The time from conception to birth Answer: The time from conception to birth (D) Gestation refers specifically to the period of pregnancy from conception until birth. 190. Which term refers to the male parent of an animal? A. Dam B. Weanling C. Offspring D. Sire Answer: Sire (D) The term 'sire' is used to refer to the male parent in animal breeding. 191. What is defined as the maintenance of a stable internal environment in an organism? A. Homeostasis B. Physiology C. Fertility D. Impotency Answer: Homeostasis (A) Homeostasis is the process through which biological systems maintain a stable internal environment. 192. What is the primary factor that defines transmitting ability in animals? A. The nutritional value of the animal's diet B. The physical strength of the sire C. The ability to pass on genetic traits to offspring D. The age of the animal at breeding Answer: The ability to pass on genetic traits to offspring (C) Transmitting ability is the capacity of an animal to convey either advantageous or disadvantageous traits to its progeny. 193. Which term describes the condition of failure to copulate in animals? A. Puberty B. Fertility C. Impotency D. Sterility Answer: Impotency (C) Impotency refers to the failure of an animal to copulate successfully. 194. What exactly does a weanling refer to? A. A young animal that has been separated from its dam B. A pregnant female animal C. An animal before reaching sexual maturity D. The newly born offspring Answer: A young animal that has been separated from its dam (A) A weanling is defined as a young animal that has been separated from its mother. 195. Which of the following describes the study of the function of living matter? A. Anatomy B. Homeostasis C. Biology D. Physiology Answer: Physiology (D) Physiology refers to the study of how the parts of an organism function, including response to environmental stimuli. 196. What is the primary role of enzymes in digestion? A. To mechanically break down food into smaller particles B. To cause changes in other substances without being altered themselves C. To promote bacterial growth in the digestive tract D. To absorb nutrients directly in the bloodstream Answer: To cause changes in other substances without being altered themselves (B) Enzymes are complex proteins that act as organic catalysts, facilitating changes in other substances during digestion. 197. Which of the following best describes the function of saliva in the digestion process? A. It absorbs minerals from food particles B. It lubricates food for easier swallowing and initiates starch digestion C. It acts as a storage medium for food before digestion D. It provides enzymes to digest proteins quickly Answer: It lubricates food for easier swallowing and initiates starch digestion (B) Saliva aids in lubricating food and begins the digestion of carbohydrates through the action of salivary amylase. 198. Where in the digestive system does the majority of nutrient absorption take place? A. The mouth B. The esophagus C. The small intestine D. The large intestine Answer: The small intestine (C) The small intestine is the primary site for nutrient absorption, where digested food is absorbed into the bloodstream. 199. What process occurs when feed particles are broken down into suitable products for absorption? A. Absorption B. Excretion C. Insalivation D. Digestion Answer: Digestion (D) Digestion involves both mechanical and chemical processes to prepare food for absorption. 200. Which statement accurately describes the function of the tongue in digestion? A. It buffers the pH of food in the stomach B. It absorbs nutrients from the food C. It secretes digestive enzymes to break down fats D. It helps in the mastication and movement of food within the mouth Answer: It helps in the mastication and movement of food within the mouth (D) The tongue plays a crucial role in grasping and moving food during mastication and swallowing. 201. What is the main function of salivary amylase in the digestive system? A. To emulsify fats for easier digestion B. To neutralize stomach acid C. To digest proteins in the stomach D. To initiate carbohydrate digestion by converting starch to maltose Answer: To initiate carbohydrate digestion by converting starch to maltose (D) Salivary amylase begins the breakdown of starches into simpler sugars in the mouth. 202. How does the mechanical breakdown of feed occur during digestion? A. Through the action of enzymes only B. Using only bacterial digestion C. By chemical changes alone D. Via mechanical forces such as chewing and grinding Answer: Via mechanical forces such as chewing and grinding (D) Mechanical breakdown involves physical processes such as chewing and grinding, along with chemical actions. 203. What role do accessory organs play in the digestive process? A. They produce enzymes and substances that aid in digestion B. They solely store food until digestion is complete C. They eliminate waste products from the body D. They absorb all nutrients from digested food Answer: They produce enzymes and substances that aid in digestion (A) Accessory organs such as salivary glands produce saliva, which contains enzymes and substances essential for digestion. 204. What is prehension in the context of digestion? A. The absorption of nutrients in the intestines B. The elimination of waste products from the digestive system C. The act of taking in food or grasping it D. The process of enzymatic breakdown of nutrients Answer: The act of taking in food or grasping it (C) Prehension refers to the initial action of grasping and taking in food, which is an essential step in the digestion process. 205. Which digestive process primarily involves the action of bacteria and protozoa? A. Absorption B. Bolus formation C. Chemical digestion D. Mechanical breakdown Answer: Chemical digestion (C) Chemical digestion occurs with the help of enzymes, bacteria, and protozoa to break down nutrients into smaller molecules. 206. What is the main role of epinephrine in the body? A. Increases heart rate B. Regulates insulin secretion C. Stimulates digestion D. Promotes blood vessel dilation Answer: Increases heart rate (A) Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, acts as an emergency hormone that increases heart rate and prepares the body for a fight-or-flight response. 207. Which hormone is produced by the ovaries to enhance female receptivity during estrus? A. Progesterone B. Relaxin C. Insulin D. Estrogen Answer: Estrogen (D) Estrogen is produced by the ovaries and plays a crucial role in enhancing female receptivity during estrus. 208. What is the primary function of the Islets of Langerhans within the pancreas? A. Digests proteins B. Regulates blood glucose levels C. Absorbs nutrients D. Produces digestive enzymes Answer: Regulates blood glucose levels (B) The Islets of Langerhans contain alpha and beta cells that produce hormones, including insulin, which regulates blood glucose levels. 209. During which part of the heart cycle is diastole observed? A. When blood is pumped from the ventricles B. When the atria contract C. When the aorta is filled with blood D. When the heart muscles relax Answer: When the heart muscles relax (D) Diastole refers to the relaxation phase of the heart cycle when the heart muscle relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood. 210. Which type of blood vessel carries oxygenated blood away from the heart? A. Artery B. Capillary C. Venule D. Vein Answer: Artery (A) Arteries are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood away from the heart to the tissues. 211. What is the primary role of leukocytes in the blood? A. Transports nutrients B. Aid in blood clotting C. Transport oxygen D. Defend against infection Answer: Defend against infection (D) Leukocytes, or white blood cells, are crucial for the immune system and play a significant role in defending against infections. 212. Where does the sino-atrial node (SA node) reside in the heart? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Septum Answer: Right atrium (A) The sino-atrial node, known as the cardiac pacemaker, is located in the right atrium and is responsible for initiating the heart's rhythmic contractions. 213. What is the primary function of blood plasma? A. Transports oxygen to tissues B. Provides structural support C. Regulates blood pressure D. Carries nutrients and hormones Answer: Carries nutrients and hormones (D) Blood plasma is the liquid component of blood that transports nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. 214. What occurs in the body as a result of excess insulin production? A. Increased heart rate B. Hypoglycemia C. Kidney failure D. Hyperglycemia Answer: Hypoglycemia (B) Excess insulin production can lead to hypoglycemia, a condition characterized by abnormally low blood glucose levels. 215. Which lymphatic structure is primarily responsible for filtering lymph before it enters the bloodstream? A. Spleen B. Lymph node C. Thymus gland D. Lymph vessel Answer: Lymph node (B) Lymph nodes are strategically located throughout the body and are responsible for filtering lymph and facilitating immune responses. 216. What is the term used for a young female horse usually up to the age of three? A. Foal B. Filly C. Colt D. Mare Answer: Filly (B) A filly is specifically defined as a young female horse, differentiating it from terms used for male horses. 217. Which term describes a mature male horse? A. Stallion B. Gelding C. Colt D. Foal Answer: Stallion (A) A stallion is a mature male horse, while the other options refer to younger horses or castrated males. 218. What defines a gelding in equine terminology? A. Female horse used for breeding B. Castrated male horse C. Young male horse D. Mature male horse Answer: Castrated male horse (B) A gelding is specifically a horse that has been castrated while still young, distinguishing it from other types. 219. Which of the following terms refers to a male goat castrated before the secondary sex characteristics develop? A. Steer B. Barrow C. Wether goat D. Boar Answer: Wether goat (C) A wether goat is a male goat that has been castrated early, setting it apart from other livestock terms. 220. What is the term for a female horse that has not produced any young during the breeding season? A. Yeld mare B. Studhorse C. Mare D. Broodmare Answer: Yeld mare (A) A yeld mare refers specifically to a female horse that has failed to reproduce in a given breeding season. 221. Which term is used for a young horse of either gender that is less than one year old? A. Gelding B. Filly C. Colt D. Foal Answer: Foal (D) A foal is defined as a young horse under one year of age, which applies to both males and females. 222. What does the term 'boar' refer to in livestock terminology? A. Young pig B. Mature female pig C. Mature male pig D. Castrated male pig Answer: Mature male pig (C) A boar is a mature male pig, distinguishing it from others based on age and sex. 223. What is a 'capon' in poultry terminology? A. Male chicken before maturity B. Breeding rooster C. Castrated male chicken D. Young female duck Answer: Castrated male chicken (C) A capon is specifically a male chicken that has been castrated, known for its distinctive traits. 224. What is a significant disadvantage of the Berkshire breed according to its characteristics? A. High litter size at birth and at weaning. B. Weak hind legs that develop faster than ham muscles. C. Thick backfat and a late maturity rate. D. Susceptibility to stress and slow growth. Answer: Susceptibility to stress and slow growth. (D) The Berkshire breed is known for its susceptibility to stress and slow growth. 225. What unique physical characteristic is associated with the Hampshire breed? A. Dark color with a white belt around the body. B. Overdeveloped muscle on the hind legs. C. A pointed head with a broad forehead. D. A long, sleek body structure. Answer: Dark color with a white belt around the body. (A) The Hampshire breed is recognized for its white belt around the shoulder and body. 226. What are the identifying color patterns of the Poland China breed? A. Completely white with black spots. B. Black with two white points on the ears. C. Black with six white points on the feet and head. D. White with dark stripes along the back. Answer: Black with six white points on the feet and head. (C) The Poland China breed is characterized by its black color with six white points. 227. Which of the following reflects a common concern regarding the performance of Hampshire pigs? A. High weaning weights despite low litter size. B. Excellent feed efficiency and growth rates. C. Outstanding mothering ability in breeding. D. Subpar litter size at birth and weaning. Answer: Subpar litter size at birth and weaning. (D) Hampshire pigs are noted for their low litter size both at birth and at weaning. 228. In terms of reproductive performance, what is a noted disadvantage of the Berkshire breed? A. Small litter size resulting in fewer young. B. Poor mothering ability resulting in high mortality rates. C. Weak structure of the hind legs affecting mobility. D. Late maturity leading to prolonged production times. Answer: Small litter size resulting in fewer young. (A) The Berkshire breed is noted for having a small litter size at birth and weaning. 229. What is the primary function of enzymes in the digestive system? A. To absorb nutrients directly into the bloodstream B. To perform chemical changes without changing themselves C. To mechanically break down food particles D. To physically grind food into smaller pieces Answer: To perform chemical changes without changing themselves (B) Enzymes function as organic catalysts that cause changes in other substances without undergoing any alteration themselves. 230. Which component of saliva is primarily responsible for initiating carbohydrate digestion? A. Bicarbonate salts B. Water C. Salivary amylase D. Mucin Answer: Salivary amylase (C) Salivary amylase is the enzyme that begins the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth. 231. Which of the following processes is NOT involved in digestion? A. Mechanical forces B. Enzyme activity C. Respiratory function D. Chemical action Answer: Respiratory function (C) Respiratory function is not involved in the digestion process; digestion primarily involves mechanical forces, chemical action, and enzyme activity. 232. Where does the majority of nutrient absorption occur within the digestive system? A. Large intestine B. Stomach C. Mouth D. Small intestine Answer: Small intestine (D) The small intestine is the primary site for nutrient absorption in the digestive system. 233. What specific role does the tongue serve in the digestive process? A. Transporting nutrients to the intestine B. Regulating saliva production C. Breaking down proteins D. Grasping and manipulating food Answer: Grasping and manipulating food (D) The tongue plays a crucial role in grasping food and aiding in its manipulation during chewing. 234. What occurs during the process of mastication? A. Absorption of nutrients from food B. Enzymatic digestion in the stomach C. Chemical breakdown of food D. Mechanical breakdown of food particles Answer: Mechanical breakdown of food particles (D) Mastication refers to the mechanical breakdown of food particles in preparation for further digestion. 235. Which accessory organ is involved in the production of saliva? A. Liver B. Gallbladder C. Salivary glands D. Pancreas Answer: Salivary glands (C) Salivary glands are responsible for producing saliva, which aids in the digestion process. 236. What is the role of bicarbonate salts found in saliva? A. To provide energy to muscles B. To break down proteins C. To absorb nutrients in the stomach D. To neutralize acid and regulate pH Answer: To neutralize acid and regulate pH (D) Bicarbonate salts help to buffer and neutralize acidity in the digestive tract. 237. During digestion, which of the following statements about the rumen is accurate? A. It aids in the mechanical breakdown of food. B. It is involved in the initial digestion of carbohydrates. C. It allows nutrient absorption directly into the bloodstream. D. It is primarily responsible for enzyme secretion. Answer: It aids in the mechanical breakdown of food. (A) The rumen plays a significant role in the mechanical breakdown of food particles, especially in ruminants. 238. What is meant by the term 'prehension' in the context of digestion? A. The act of grasping food B. The absorption of nutrients C. The process of chewing food D. The secretion of digestive juices Answer: The act of grasping food (A) Prehension refers to the act of grasping food, an essential first step in the digestive process. 239. What is the minimum feeder space required for day-old chicks? A. 1 cm B. 2.5 cm C. 2 cm D. 4.5 cm Answer: 2.5 cm (B) Day-old chicks require a minimum of 2.5 cm of linear feeder space. 240. Which factor affects the length of the brooding period based on environmental conditions? A. Rate of feathering B. Weather/climatic conditions C. Genetic variations D. Nutrition of the chicks Answer: Weather/climatic conditions (B) Weather and climatic conditions significantly influence the duration of the brooding period. 241. What is the minimum recommended waterer space for chicks aged 2-6 weeks? A. 0.5 cm B. 1.0 cm C. 3.0 cm D. 2.0 cm Answer: 1.0 cm (B) Chicks aged 2-6 weeks require at least 1.0 cm of waterer space per chick. 242. Which of the following describes a characteristic of the complete confinement housing system? A. Birds have restricted feed access. B. Birds are allowed to freely roam and forage. C. Birds have ample outdoor space. D. Birds are raised in a shed with no outdoor access. Answer: Birds are raised in a shed with no outdoor access. (D) The complete confinement housing system keeps birds in a shed with no access to outdoor areas. 243. At what age do pullets begin to show signs of sexual maturity, such as the increase in the comb size and color? A. 16 weeks B. 12 weeks C. 5 weeks D. 18 weeks Answer: 16 weeks (A) Pullets typically start showing sexual maturity changes around 16 weeks of age. 244. What should be the maximum filling limit for feeding troughs to prevent wastage? A. 1/2 full B. 1/4 full C. 3/4 full D. 1/3 full Answer: 1/3 full (D) Feeding troughs should not be filled more than 1/3 full to prevent feed wastage. 245. Which system of rearing poultry is primarily practiced by native chicken growers? A. Organic system B. Confinement system C. Range system D. Free-range system Answer: Range system (C) The range system is commonly practiced by native chicken growers due to its land area requirements. 246. Which phase of brooding has the shortest duration due to fast feathering breeds? A. 2 weeks B. 6-10 weeks C. 2-6 weeks D. Day old Answer: 6-10 weeks (B) Fast feathering breeds result in a shorter brooding period, particularly noted during the 6-10 weeks phase. 247. In which system are birds provided less space and primarily housed indoors? A. Full organic system B. Free-range system C. Open pasture system D. Complete confinement system Answer: Complete confinement system (D) The complete confinement system limits outdoor access for birds and provides restricted space. 248. What is the recommended protein content for the grower ration for pullets aged between 14 to 20 weeks? A. 18% B. 16% C. 14% D. 12% Answer: 14% (C) The grower ration for pullets aged 14 to 20 weeks should contain 14% protein. 249. Which behavior indicates that pullets are becoming sociable and friendly as they mature? A. Consistent pecking at feed B. Cackling and seeking nests C. Avoidance of human contact D. Increased aggression towards other birds Answer: Cackling and seeking nests (B) Cackling and seeking nests are behaviors indicating that pullets are becoming friendly as they mature. 250. Which housing method is described as requiring more land area but is commonly practiced by native chicken growers? A. Complete confinement B. Battery cages C. Range system D. Semi-confinement Answer: Range system (C) The range system is noted for needing more land and is often used by native chicken growers. 251. What is the consequence of providing birds with a high protein feed content too early? A. Smaller eggs B. Reduced egg production C. Larger pullets D. Lower feed efficiency Answer: Smaller eggs (A) A diet high in protein that induces early sexual maturity can lead to the production of smaller eggs. 252. What percentage of feed wastage occurs when a feeding trough is only one-third full? A. 3% B. 1% C. 30% D. 10% Answer: 1% (B) When the feeding trough is one-third full, only 1% of feed is wasted. 253. Which type of flooring is commonly associated with a brooder house for young chicks? A. Solid wood floor B. Coarse gravel floor C. Slatted floor D. Concrete floor Answer: Slatted floor (C) Brooder houses for chicks aged 4 to 6 weeks typically utilize a slatted or litter floor. 254. Which of the following represents a conventional method of feeding that can lead to significant feed wastage? A. Wet mash feeding B. Free-range feeding C. Pelleted feed D. Mash ration Answer: Mash ration (D) Using a mash ration in conventional feeding methods can lead to more feed wastage. 255. In which age range should birds be fed a grower ration to ensure they receive appropriate nutrition? A. 6-14 weeks B. 14-20 weeks C. 26-30 weeks D. 20-26 weeks Answer: 6-14 weeks (A) The grower ration is recommended for birds aged 6 to 14 weeks. 256. Which type of housing system is characterized by a modern approach to raising chickens in a completely confined space? A. Litter floor B. Range system C. Cages D. Semi-confinement Answer: Cages (C) Cages represent the modern trend of complete confinement in poultry housing. 257. What is one of the potential benefits of a semi-confinement housing system? A. Improves egg size B. Provides outdoor grazing area C. Requires less land D. Ensures higher productivity Answer: Provides outdoor grazing area (B) The semi-confinement system allows birds to access an outdoor grazing area while still having shelter. 258. What is the drawback of the complete confinement housing method for layers? A. Increased feed efficiency B. Heightened risk of disease C. Inability to control health D. Increased egg production Answer: Heightened risk of disease (B) Complete confinement increases the risk of disease due to the close quarters without outdoor access. 259. Which breed of pig is known for its wrinkled face and high prolificacy? A. Meishan B. Erhualian C. Berkshire D. Taihu Answer: Meishan (A) Meishan pigs are recognized for their distinctive features and are one of the most prolific pig breeds globally. 260. What characteristic of Taihu pigs is often considered a drawback in terms of processing? A. Thin backfat B. Rapid growth rate C. Difficulty in dressing/cleaning during slaughtering D. High feed conversion efficiency Answer: Difficulty in dressing/cleaning during slaughtering (C) Taihu pigs are associated with challenges in processing due to their thick backfat. 261. In a farrow to finish operation, what does the producer typically start with? A. Pregnant gilt/sow to produce breeding stocks B. Finished pigs ready for processing C. Feeders that are ready for market D. Weaned piglets from market suppliers Answer: Pregnant gilt/sow to produce breeding stocks (A) Producers in a farrow to finish operation begin with a pregnant gilt or sow to generate the necessary breeding stocks. 262. Which of the following statements about Meishan pigs is true? A. They are primarily raised for their lean meat. B. They are resistant to some diseases and have a distinctive appearance. C. They grow rapidly and require less feed. D. They are known for having a short lifespan. Answer: They are resistant to some diseases and have a distinctive appearance. (B) Meishan pigs are known for their wrinkled appearance and are also recognized for their resilience against certain diseases. 263. What type of operation typically involves starting with feeder/weaners? A. Growing-finishing enterprise B. Farrow to finish operation C. Sow-to-wean operation D. Breeding stock production Answer: Growing-finishing enterprise (A) In a growing-finishing enterprise, the focus is on starting with feeder/weaners to raise them to market weight. 264. Which external anatomical structure is primarily involved in protection? A. Ears B. Muzzle C. Skin D. Horns Answer: Skin (C) External anatomy includes structures such as skin and horns that serve protective functions. 265. What term describes the ability of a female animal to give birth to offspring frequently? A. Parturition B. Dam C. Conception D. Fecundity Answer: Fecundity (D) Fecundity is specifically related to the frequency of giving birth to offspring. 266. Which of the following terms refers to the act of giving birth in sows? A. Foaling B. Farrowing C. Lambing D. Calving Answer: Farrowing (B) Farrowing is the specific term used for the birthing process in sows. 267. In which cavity are the lungs and heart located? A. Thoracic cavity B. Abdominal cavity C. Pelvic cavity D. Cranial cavity Answer: Thoracic cavity (A) The thoracic cavity houses vital organs like the lungs and heart. 268. Which internal anatomical part is primarily responsible for digestion? A. Stomach B. Liver C. Heart D. Pancreas Answer: Stomach (A) The stomach is a critical organ in the digestive process, facilitating food breakdown. 269. Which term is used for a female parent animal? A. Dam B. Sow C. Ewe D. Fecundity Answer: Dam (A) The term 'dam' specifically refers to the female parent in animal biology. 270. Which of these functions is NOT associated with external anatomy? A. Sensation B. Digestion C. Reproduction D. Protection Answer: Reproduction (C) Reproduction is primarily related to internal anatomy and organ systems, not external anatomy. 271. Which of the following best defines conception? A. The act of fertilization B. The act of giving birth C. The role of the female parent D. The ability to produce several offspring Answer: The act of fertilization (A) Conception specifically refers to the process of fertilization, leading to pregnancy. 272. Which component of the nervous system is responsible for processing information? A. Somatic Nervous System B. Central Nervous System C. Peripheral Nervous System D. Cerebral Cortex Answer: Central Nervous System (B) The Central Nervous System is the main processing unit of the body, which includes the brain and spinal cord. 273. Which type of hormone is insulin classified as? A. Glycoprotein B. Amine C. Steroid D. Polypeptide Answer: Polypeptide (D) Insulin is a polypeptide hormone that helps control glucose levels in the blood. 274. Which hormone is generated from the adrenal gland in response to stress? A. Catecholamines B. Thyroxine C. Insulin D. Corticosteroids Answer: Catecholamines (A) Catecholamines, such as adrenaline and noradrenaline, are secreted in response to stress. 275. What is the primary role of glycoprotein hormones like FSH and LH? A. Control glucose levels B. Balance electrolyte levels C. Aid in sexual development D. Regulate carbohydrate metabolism Answer: Aid in sexual development (C) Glycoprotein hormones such as FSH and LH are important for sexual development and reproductive functions. 276. What type of hormones are derived from cholesterol? A. Polypeptides B. Corticosteroids C. Catecholamines D. Amines Answer: Corticosteroids (B) Corticosteroids are steroid hormones derived from cholesterol and are involved in balancing solutes like glucose. 277. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for metabolic regulation? A. Follicle-stimulating hormone B. Adrenaline C. Thyroxine D. Insulin Answer: Thyroxine (C) Thyroxine (T4), secreted by the thyroid gland, plays a critical role in regulating metabolism. 278. What is the effect of excessive thyroid secretion known as? A. Hyperglycemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus Answer: Thyrotoxicosis (B) Thyrotoxicosis refers to excessive secretion of thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms like nervousness and body wasting. 279. Which classification of hormones consists of chains of amino acids less than 100 amino acids long? A. Glycoproteins B. Peptides C. Amines D. Steroids Answer: Peptides (B) Polypeptide hormones are chains of amino acids that are less than 100 amino acids long. 280. Which component does NOT belong to the Peripheral Nervous System? A. Spinal cord B. Neurons C. Sensory receptors D. Nerves Answer: Spinal cord (A) The spinal cord is a part of the Central Nervous System, while nerves and sensory receptors are part of the Peripheral Nervous System. 281. Which hormone is responsible for quick adjustments in muscle activity to environmental changes? A. Testosterone B. Corticosteroids C. Insulin D. Catecholamines Answer: Catecholamines (D) Catecholamines help the body make quick adjustments in muscle activity in response to environmental changes. 282. Which of the following correctly describes the muscular walls of the rumen? A. They are primarily made of smooth muscle. B. They facilitate absorption of nutrients via papillae. C. They act as a sieve to filter food particles. D. They secrete enzymes for digestion. Answer: They facilitate absorption of nutrients via papillae. (B) The muscular walls of the rumen are covered by projections called papillae, which are essential for nutrient absorption. 283. What is the primary function of eructation in ruminants? A. To digest feed quickly. B. To absorb nutrients more effectively. C. To regulate the temperature within the rumen. D. To expel gas from the rumen. Answer: To expel gas from the rumen. (D) Eructation, or belching, allows ruminants to eliminate gases produced during microbial fermentation. 284. How does the esophageal groove function in young ruminants? A. It aids in dry feed digestion. B. It connects the rumen to the reticulum. C. It serves as a passage for gases to escape. D. It directs milk straight to the abomasum. Answer: It directs milk straight to the abomasum. (D) The esophageal groove forms a tube that allows milk to bypass the rumen and flow directly into the abomasum. 285. What benefit does microbial fermentation provide for ruminants? A. It produces intestinal bacteria. B. It assists in the breakdown of cellulose. C. It enhances the protein quality of feed. D. It leads to faster digestion processes. Answer: It assists in the breakdown of cellulose. (B) Microbial fermentation in the rumen helps in the fermentation and breakdown of fibrous feeds like cellulose. 286. Which hormone is secreted by the ovaries in female ruminants? A. Progesterone B. Oxytocin C. Estrogen D. Testosterone Answer: Estrogen (C) The ovaries produce estrogen, which is a key female sex hormone involved in reproductive processes. 287. What is the process of rumination primarily involved in? A. Breaking down proteins into amino acids. B. Regurgitating and re-chewing food. C. Rapidly swallowing large feed particles. D. Absorbing nutrients directly from the rumen. Answer: Regurgitating and re-chewing food. (B) Rumination allows ruminants to regurgitate, re-chew, and re-swallow their food for better digestion. 288. What role do papillae play in the rumen? A. They aid in mixing feed. B. They enhance nutrient absorption. C. They secrete digestive enzymes. D. They offer protective barriers. Answer: They enhance nutrient absorption. (B) Papillae increase the surface area of the rumen wall, thus enhancing the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. 289. In the female reproductive system of ruminants, where are ova produced? A. Ovaries B. Reticulum C. Uterine horn D. Fallopian tubes Answer: Ovaries (A) Ova are produced in the ovaries, which are almond-shaped organs situated near the uterine horn. 290. What mechanism controls the action of rumination? A. Neurological signals from the brain. B. Peristaltic movements in the intestines. C. Contractions in the esophagus and rumen. D. Hormonal secretion from the pancreas. Answer: Contractions in the esophagus and rumen. (C) Rumination is regulated by contractions of the esophagus, reticulum, and rumen, facilitating the regurgitation process. 291. Which of the following statements about the ruminant digestive system is true? A. The reticulum is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption. B. The ruminant stomach has four distinct compartments. C. The abomasum plays a minor role in digestion. D. The rumen is the smallest compartment of the stomach. Answer: The ruminant stomach has four distinct compartments. (B) Ruminants have a unique stomach structure with four compartments, each serving specific digestive roles. 292. What is the primary function of fats in animal nutrition? A. Source of energy and insulation B. Carrier for absorption of carbohydrates C. Facilitator of protein synthesis D. Source of essential amino acids Answer: Source of energy and insulation (A) Fats serve multiple essential functions, including acting as a source of energy and providing insulation for the body. 293. Which nutrient is primarily responsible for dietary supply in ruminants? A. Glucose B. Amino acids C. Starch D. Cellulose Answer: Cellulose (D) Cellulose is crucial in ruminant diets, as it provides the necessary dietary supply through fermentation. 294. What is the potential consequence of a high energy diet with low protein in animals? A. Improved feed conversion B. Cannibalism C. Increased weight gain D. Enhanced growth rate Answer: Cannibalism (B) An imbalanced ration with high energy and low protein can lead to cannibalism among animals due to stress and competition. 295. Which type of fatty acid is considered essential for animal health? A. Linoleic acid B. Palmitic acid C. Myristic acid D. Stearic acid Answer: Linoleic acid (A) Linoleic acid is among the essential fatty acids required for various body functions, including growth and reproduction. 296. What percentage of animal body weight is typically made up of water at birth? A. 75-85% B. 60-70% C. 45-55% D. 65-85% Answer: 65-85% (D) Water constitutes a significant portion of an animal's body weight at birth, specifically 65-85%. 297. What is the outcome of ketosis in animals? A. Decreased metabolism of glucose B. Enhanced muscle growth C. Catabolism of body fat D. Increased fat storage Answer: Catabolism of body fat (C) Ketosis occurs when there is an excessive breakdown of body fat, often due to energy deficit or imbalanced diet. 298. Which nutrient can cause skin lesions and hair loss in animals when deficient? A. Vitamins B. Carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Fatty acids Answer: Vitamins (A) A lack of vitamins can lead to deficiency symptoms such as skin lesions and hair loss in animals. 299. What is a common factor leading to cannibalism in chicks? A. Adequate feeding space B. Access to free range C. Balanced diet with high protein content D. Poor ventilation and overcrowding Answer: Poor ventilation and overcrowding (D) Poor ventilation and overcrowding are significant contributors to stress, which can lead to cannibalistic behavior in chicks. 300. Which of the following describes a carbohydrate breakdown product in ruminants? A. Fatty acids B. Free amino acids C. Volatile fatty acids D. Lactic acid Answer: Volatile fatty acids (C) Ruminants produce volatile fatty acids and lactic acid as primary end products from carbohydrate fermentation. 301. How does the addition of sugar to the drinking water of day-old chicks benefit them? A. Enhances protein absorption B. Increases fat content in tissues C. Boosts metabolism and energy levels D. Improves feather development Answer: Boosts metabolism and energy levels (C) Adding sugar can provide an immediate energy source, boosting metabolism and energy levels in newly hatched chicks. 302. What term describes a mature male horse? A. Filly B. Stallion C. Gelding D. Colt Answer: Stallion (B) A stallion is the correct term for a mature male horse. 303. Which of the following refers to a female horse used for breeding purposes? A. Filly B. Mare C. Gelding D. Broodmare Answer: Broodmare (D) A broodmare is specifically a female horse used for breeding. 304. What is the classification of a horse that has been castrated at a young age? A. Stallion B. Yearling C. Gelding D. Colt Answer: Gelding (C) A gelding is a horse that has been castrated while it was still young. 305. Which term describes a male goat that has been castrated before the secondary sex characteristics have developed? A.

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