All Review Questions PDF

All Review Questions Week Module 1 1. In the client-server model, what is the primary secure protocol used for communication between a browser and web server? Correct Answer: HTTPS 2. Which two encryption p...

All Review Questions Week Module 1 1. In the client-server model, what is the primary secure protocol used for communication between a browser and web server? Correct Answer: HTTPS 2. Which two encryption protocols might be used to provide secure transmissions for email services? Correct Answer: SSL and TLS 3. Which of the following applications could be used to run a website from a server? Correct Answer: Nginx 4. As you’re working to fix a problem with an application, you make multiple changes at once hoping that something will solve the issues you’re having. You end up with more problems than when you started. Which step, if followed correctly, would have prevented this complication? Correct Answer: Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. 5. In the event of a fire, the most appropriate failure policy is: Correct Answer: Fail-open policy 6. A network consists of five computers, all running Windows 10 Professional. All the computers are connected to a switch, which is connected to a router, which is connected to the Internet. Which logical networking model does the network use? Correct Answer: Peer-to-peer All Review Questions 1  7. In Question 6, suppose Windows Server 2019 is installed on one computer. Which networking model can the network now support that it could not support without the upgrade? Correct Answer: Client-server 8. A network consists of seven computers and a network printer, all connected directly to one switch. Which network topology does this network use? Correct Answer: Star 9. You need to access customer records in a database as you’re planning a marketing campaign. What language can you use to pull the records most relevant to the campaign? Correct Answer: SQL 10. Which of the following is an application layer protocol? Correct Answer: RDP 11. What is the name of the domain controller database that Windows Server 2019 uses to store data about user access and resources on the network? Correct Answer: Active Directory database 12. What is the fundamental distinction between a layer 2 switch and a router? Correct Answer: A layer 2 switch operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) and uses MAC addresses for forwarding, while a router operates at the network layer (Layer 3) and uses IP addresses for routing. 13. What is the fundamental distinction between a node and a host? Correct Answer: A node is any device on a network, including routers and switches, while a host specifically refers to a device that generates, receives, or processes data on a network. 14. What is the fundamental distinction between a MAN and a WAN? Correct Answer: A MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a city or metropolitan area, while a WAN (Wide Area Network) spans larger areas such as cities, countries, or continents. 15. List two protocols that function at the transport layer of the OSI model. What type of address do these protocols add to their headers, and what element does that address identify? All Review Questions 2  Correct Answer: TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol). They add port numbers to their headers, identifying specific applications or services. 16. At the network layer, what type of address is used to identify the receiving host? Correct Answer: IP address 17. At the data link layer, which type of network address is used to identify the receiving node? Correct Answer: MAC address 18. A computer is unable to access the network. When you check the LED lights near the computer’s network port, you discover the lights are not lit. Which layer of the OSI model are you using to troubleshoot this problem? At which two layers does the network adapter work? Correct Answer: Physical layer (Layer 1) for troubleshooting. The network adapter works at the physical layer (Layer 1) and the data link layer (Layer 2). 19. A user complains that their computer cannot access email, although the computer can access websites. At which layer of the OSI model should you begin troubleshooting this problem and why? Correct Answer: Application layer (Layer 7), because email services rely on application layer protocols like SMTP, IMAP, or POP3. 20. While troubleshooting a problem, you realize the problem is caused by a complex series of issues that will affect a large number of users, and even testing your theory as to the cause won’t solve the problem. What should you do next in the troubleshooting process? Correct Answer: Escalate the issue to higher-level support or management for further assessment and resolution. Module 2 1. A technician from your ISP has arrived to help you troubleshoot a weak WAN connection. To what location do you take them? Correct Answer: IDF All Review Questions 3  2. A transceiver was recently damaged by a lightning strike during a storm. How might you decide whether the ISP is responsible for replacing this device, or whether your company must foot the bill? Correct Answer: Look at whether the device is located on the ISP’s side of the demarc. 3. Which of the following devices are you likely to find in the MDF? Choose all that apply. Correct Answer: Routers | Switches | KVM switch 4. Which device converts signals from a campus’s analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over the Internet? Correct Answer: Voice gateway 5. If you’re shopping for a rack switch, what component on the switch tells you it can be mounted to a rack? Correct Answer: Rack ears 6. You need to connect a new network printer to a nearby wall jack. What kind of cable should you use? Correct Answer: Patch cable 7. You’ve decided to run an Nmap scan on your network. Which apps could you open to perform this task? Choose all that apply. Correct Answer: Zenmap | Command Prompt | PowerShell 8. What type of diagram shows a graphical representation of a network’s wired infrastructure? Correct Answer: Wiring diagram 9. Which of these is considered a secure place to store a list of documented network passwords? Correct Answer: Password manager 10. What is the first step of inventory management? Correct Answer: List all components on the network. 11. Give three examples of networked devices that are not computers. Correct Answer: All Review Questions 4  Printers Network cameras or security cameras Networked smart appliances (e.g., thermostats or refrigerators) 12. Why is it important to use a structured cabling standard when installing and managing cabling systems? Correct Answer: It ensures consistency, reliability, and scalability, simplifies troubleshooting, and facilitates network expansion. 13. Why is it important to use plenum-rated cabling in the area above the ceiling tile? Correct Answer: Plenum-rated cables emit fewer toxic fumes and resist fire spread, making them safer for spaces with air handling systems. 14. What is the unit of measurement that defines the space available in a rack? How tall are standard racks? Correct Answer: Rack units (U or RU). Standard racks are typically 42U or 45U tall. 15. Why is it important to minimize cable clutter in a rack? Correct Answer: Improves airflow and cooling Simplifies maintenance Reduces the risk of accidental disconnections 16. What are some elements that are typically included in network diagrams? Correct Answer: Network devices (routers, switches, firewalls) Physical connections (cables, ports) IP addresses and subnets VLANs (Virtual LANs) Server and workstation locations Network topology All Review Questions 5  17. How can you go about gathering the information needed to assemble a thorough operations manual? Correct Answer: Document existing network configurations Interview network administrators Review logs and existing documentation Collaborate with relevant teams 18. What command invokes Nmap at a command line? Correct Answer: nmap 19. For what time period should you schedule a network change? Correct Answer: During a maintenance window, to minimize disruptions. 20. In a large organization, how do you typically request permission to perform a network change? Correct Answer: Through a formal change management process, submitting a change request reviewed by a change control board. Module 3 1. Which part of a MAC address is unique to each manufacturer? Correct Answer: The OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier). 2. What type of device does a computer turn to when attempting to connect with a host with a known IP address on another network? Correct Answer: Default gateway 3. What decimal number corresponds to the binary number 11111111? Correct Answer: 255 4. Suppose you send data to the 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 IP address on an IPv4 network. To which device(s) are you transmitting? Correct Answer: All devices on your local network (broadcast). All Review Questions 6  5. When your computer first joins an IPv6 LAN, what is the prefix of the IPv6 address the computer first configures for itself? Correct Answer: FE80::/64 6. If you are connected to a network that uses DHCP, and you need to terminate your Windows workstation’s DHCP lease, which command would you use? Correct Answer: ipconfig /release 7. Which of these commands has no parameters in Windows? Correct Answer: hostname 8. Which DNS server offers the most current resolution to a DNS query? Correct Answer: Caching DNS server 9. You have just brought online a new secondary DNS server and notice your network- monitoring software reports a significant increase in network traffic. Which two hosts on your network are likely to be causing the increased traffic and why? Correct Answer: The primary and secondary DNS servers, as the secondary is requesting zone transfers from the primary server. 10. Which type of DNS record identifies an email server? Correct Answer: MX record 11. What is the range of addresses that might be assigned by APIPA? Correct Answer: 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 12. You are the network manager for a computer training center that allows students to bring their own laptops to class for learning and taking notes. Students need access to the Internet, so you have configured your network’s DHCP server to issue IP addresses automatically. Which DHCP option should you modify to make sure you are not wasting addresses used by students who have left for the day? Correct Answer: DHCP lease duration 13. You have decided to use SNAT and PAT on your small office network. At a minimum, how many IP addresses must you obtain from your ISP for all five clients in your office to be able to access servers on the Internet? Correct Answer: One All Review Questions 7  14. Explain how the bits of an IPv6 address are organized and describe IPv6 shorthand notation. Correct Answer: IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, represented in eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons. Leading zeros can be omitted, and consecutive groups of zeros can be replaced by ::. Example: 2001:db8:85a3::8a2e:370:7334. 15. FTP sometimes uses a random port for data transfer, but an FTP server always, unless programmed otherwise, listens to the same port for session requests from clients. What port does an FTP server listen on? Correct Answer: Port 21 16. You issue a transmission from your workstation to the following socket on your LAN: 10.1.1.145:53. Assuming your network uses standard port designations, what application layer protocol handles your transmission? Correct Answer: DNS 17. Suppose you want to change the default port for RDP as a security precaution. What port does RDP use by default, and from what range of numbers should you select a private port number? Correct Answer: Default port is 3389. Select from 49152–65535. 18. You have just set up a new wireless network at your house, and you want to determine whether your Linux laptop has connected to it and obtained a valid IP address. What command will give you the information you need? Correct Answer: ifconfig or ip addr 19. While troubleshooting a network connection problem for a coworker, you discover the computer is querying a nonexistent DNS server. What command-line utility can you use to assign the correct DNS server IP address? Correct Answer: ipconfig (Windows) or systemd-resolve (Linux). 20. When running a scan on your computer, you find that a session has been established with a host at the address 208.85.40.44:443. Which application layer protocol is in use for this session? What command-line utility might you use to determine the domain name of the other computer? Correct Answer: HTTPS is in use. Use nslookup or dig to find the domain name. All Review Questions 8  Module 4 1. Which protocol’s header would a layer 4 device read and process? Correct Answer: TCP 2. What field in a TCP segment is used to determine if an arriving data unit exactly matches the data unit sent by the source? Correct Answer: Acknowledgment number 3. At which OSI layer does IP operate? Correct Answer: Network layer 4. What is the Internet standard MTU? Correct Answer: 1,500 bytes 5. Which two protocols manage neighbor discovery processes on IPv4 networks? Correct Answer: ICMP and ARP 6. You’re getting a duplicate IP address error on your computer and need to figure out what other device on your network is using the IP address 192.168.1.56. What command will show you which MAC address is mapped to that IP address? Correct Answer: arp -a 7. What is one advantage offered by VDI over RDS and VNC? Correct Answer: VDI offers access to multiple OSs in virtual machines (VMs). 8. Which encryption protocol does GRE use to increase the security of its transmissions? Correct Answer: IPsec 9. Which encryption benchmark ensures data is not modified after it’s transmitted and before it’s received? Correct Answer: Integrity 10. Which remote file access protocol is an extension of SSH? Correct Answer: SFTP 11. What three characteristics about TCP distinguish it from UDP? Correct Answer: All Review Questions 9  Connection-oriented Reliable (ensures data delivery and order) Flow control 12. What process is used to establish a TCP connection? Correct Answer: The three-way handshake: SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK. 13. What is the difference between dynamic ARP table entries and static ARP table entries? Correct Answer: Dynamic ARP entries are created automatically and expire. Static ARP entries are manually configured and persist until manually removed. 14. Which two fields in an Ethernet frame help synchronize device communications but are not counted toward the frame’s size? Correct Answer: Preamble Start Frame Delimiter (SFD) 15. Explain the key difference between how symmetric encryption works and how asymmetric encryption works. Correct Answer: Symmetric encryption uses the same key for encryption and decryption. Asymmetric encryption uses a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. 16. Which secured tunneling protocol might be able to cross firewalls where IPsec is blocked? Correct Answer: SSL/TLS-based VPNs 17. When surfing online, you get some strange data on an apparently secure website, and you realize you need to check the legitimacy of the site. What kind of organization issues digital certificates for websites? Correct Answer: Certificate Authorities (e.g., Let’s Encrypt, DigiCert, VeriSign). All Review Questions 10  18. What tcpdump command will capture data on the eth0 interface and redirect output to a text file named checkme.txt for further analysis? Correct Answer: sudo tcpdump -i eth0 -w checkme.txt 19. Which terminal emulation protocol is similar to RDP but is open source? Correct Answer: VNC (Virtual Network Computing). 20. Which port must be open for RDP traffic to cross a firewall? Correct Answer: Port 3389 Module 5 1. Which transmission characteristic is never fully achieved? Correct Answer: Bandwidth 2. Which kind of crosstalk occurs between wire pairs near the source of the signal? Correct Answer: NEXT (Near-End Crosstalk) 3. Which kind of multiplexing assigns slots to nodes according to priority and need? Correct Answer: STDM (Statistical Time Division Multiplexing) 4. Which cable is best suited for ultra-high-speed connections between a router and a switch on the same rack? Correct Answer: Passive twinaxial cable 5. Which of these categories of twisted-pair cable can support Gigabit Ethernet? Correct Answer: Cat 5e, Cat 6a, Cat 7 6. Suppose you’re creating patch cables to be used in a government office. What color wire goes in the first pin? Correct Answer: White/orange 7. What is the earliest twisted-pair cabling standard that meets the minimum requirements for 10GBASE-T transmissions at 100 meters? Correct Answer: Cat 6a 8. What type of fiber-cable problem is caused when pairing a 50-micron core cable with a 62.5-micron core cable? All Review Questions 11  Correct Answer: Fiber type mismatch 9. Which part of a toner and probe kit emits an audible tone when it detects electrical activity on a wire pair? Correct Answer: Tone locator 10. Which fiber connector contains two strands of fiber in each ferrule? Correct Answer: MT-RJ 11. How is latency measured, and in what unit? Correct Answer: Latency is measured in milliseconds (ms) and represents the time for data to travel from source to destination and back. 12. What is a twist ratio, and why is it important? Correct Answer: The twist ratio is the number of twists per unit length in twisted-pair cables, reducing electromagnetic interference (EMI) and crosstalk. 13. What fiber is used in fiber-optic cabling to protect the inner core and prevent the cable from stretching? Correct Answer: Kevlar (or aramid yarn). 14. What characteristic of optical transmission is primarily responsible for the distance limitations of fiber-optic cabling? Correct Answer: Attenuation 15. Why is SMF more efficient over long distances than MMF? Correct Answer: SMF (Single-Mode Fiber) avoids modal dispersion, maintaining signal integrity over longer distances. 16. Why do APC ferrules create less back reflection than UPC ferrules? Correct Answer: APC (Angled Physical Contact) ferrules reflect light away from the source due to their angled surface. 17. Which fiber transceiver is the same size as SFP transceivers but can support network speeds over 10 Gbps? Correct Answer: SFP+ 18. Suppose you’re assisting with a cable installation using fiber-optic cabling that will support Gigabit Ethernet. You’re approved to install segments up to 4,000 meters in All Review Questions 12  length. What mode of fiber cable are you using? Correct Answer: Single-mode fiber (SMF) 19. What is the difference between short circuits and open circuits? Correct Answer: Short circuit: Unintended connection causing excessive current flow. Open circuit: A break in the circuit prevents current flow. 20. What kind of tool can measure the distance to the location of damage in a cable? Correct Answer: OTDR (Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer) Module 6 1. What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which wired and wireless transmissions share the same protocols? Correct Answer: Layer 1 (Physical layer) 2. As you’re troubleshooting a dead zone in your office, which measurement will help you determine the edges of the dead zone? Correct Answer: RSSI (Received Signal Strength Indicator) 3. Which one of the following wireless transmission types requires a clear LOS to function? Correct Answer: IR (Infrared) 4. Which of the following wireless technologies does not use the 2.4 GHz band? Correct Answer: Z-Wave 5. Which function of WPA/WPA2 security ensures data cannot be read in transit? Correct Answer: Encryption 6. Which protocol replaced TKIP for WPA2? Correct Answer: CCMP 7. Which 802.11 standard functions in both the 2.4-GHz and 5-GHz bands? Correct Answer: 802.11ax All Review Questions 13  8. Which Carrier Sense technology is used on wireless networks to reduce collisions? Correct Answer: CSMA/CA 9. You’ve just completed a survey of the wireless signals traversing the airspace in your company’s vicinity, and you’ve found an unauthorized AP with a very strong signal near the middle of the 100-acre campus. Its SSID is broadcasting the name of a smartphone model. What kind of threat do you need to report to your boss? Correct Answer: Rogue AP 10. You just settled in for some study time at the local coffee shop, and you pause long enough to connect your smartphone to the Wi-Fi so you can listen to some music while you study. As you’re about to sign in, you realize that you clicked on an SSID called “Free Coffee and Internet.” What kind of security trap did you almost fall for? Correct Answer: Evil twin 11. To exchange information, two antennas must be tuned to the same frequency. Correct Answer: True 12. What addresses does an 802.11 frame contain that an 802.3 frame does not? Correct Answer: Four addresses (source, destination, BSSID, and receiving address). 13. When a wireless signal encounters a large obstacle with wide, smooth surfaces, what happens to the signal? Correct Answer: It gets reflected. 14. Signals traveling through areas in which many wireless communications systems are in use will exhibit a lower signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) due to the higher proportion of noise. Correct Answer: True 15. What is the primary difference between how WPA2-Personal and WPA2-Enterprise are implemented on a network? Correct Answer: WPA2-Enterprise uses a RADIUS server for authentication. 16. Why do wireless networks generally experience a greater reduction in throughput compared with wired networks? Correct Answer: Due to signal interference, distance, and physical obstructions. All Review Questions 14  17. What size bonded channels do 802.11ac and 802.11ax support? Correct Answer: Both support up to 160 MHz. 18. What feature of a site survey maps the Wi-Fi signals in your location? Correct Answer: Heatmap 19. You’re setting up a home network for your neighbor, who is a music teacher. She has students visiting her home regularly for lessons and wants to provide Internet access for their parents while they’re waiting on the children. However, she’s concerned about keeping her own data private. What wireless feature can you configure on her AP to meet her requests? Correct Answer: A guest network 20. Which 802.11X authentication protocol is often used by WLANs? Correct Answer: EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) Module 7 1. What software allows you to define VMs and manage resource allocation and sharing among VMs on a host computer? Correct Answer: Hypervisor 2. What virtual, logically defined device operates primarily at the data link layer to pass frames between nodes? Correct Answer: Virtual switch 3. Which device can manage traffic to multiple servers in a cluster so all servers equally share the traffic? Correct Answer: Load balancer 4. With which network connection type does the VM obtain IP addressing information from its host? Correct Answer: NAT mode 5. Which type of switch connects all devices in a rack to the rest of the network? Correct Answer: ToR switch (Top-of-Rack switch) All Review Questions 15  6. Which cloud service model gives software developers access to multiple platforms for testing code? Correct Answer: PaaS (Platform as a Service) 7. When shopping for a new router, what does the MTBF tell you? Correct Answer: How long devices like this one will last on average until the next failure 8. What information does the switchport port-security command use to restrict access to a switch’s interface? Correct Answer: MAC address 9. Which of the following features of a network connection between a switch and server is not improved by link aggregation? Correct Answer: Speed 10. Which cloud management technique executes a series of tasks in a workflow? Correct Answer: Orchestration 11. List two advantages to using virtualization on a network. Correct Answer: Increased resource efficiency Reduced hardware costs 12. List available options for connecting to cloud resources. Correct Answer: VPN (Virtual Private Network) Direct Connect Internet-based connections 13. How does a vNIC get a MAC address without manual intervention? Correct Answer: The hypervisor assigns a MAC address automatically. 14. What type of adapters are required on servers in an FCoE storage network? Correct Answer: CNAs (Converged Network Adapters) 15. What are two use cases for a VIP (virtual IP address)? All Review Questions 16  Correct Answer: Load balancing Failover scenarios 16. Which type of hypervisor is installed directly on top of the server’s firmware? Correct Answer: Type 1 hypervisor (bare-metal hypervisor) 17. Only one root bridge exists on a network using STP. Correct Answer: True 18. What protocol is most often used to bond ports between a switch and a busy server? Correct Answer: LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) 19. How is licensing an important concern when using virtualization? Correct Answer: Licensing determines the number of virtual machines allowed and the features available. 20. What kind of device can be used to configure and manage physical and virtual networking devices across the network? Correct Answer: Network management software or controllers Module 8 1. How many bits of a class A IP address are used for host information? Correct Answer: 24 bits 2. What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network? Correct Answer: 2h − 2, where h is the number of host bits 3. Which of the following is not a good reason to segment a network? Correct Answer: To increase the number of networking devices on a network 4. What is the greatest number of bits you could borrow from the host portion of a class B subnet mask and still have at least 130 hosts per subnet? Correct Answer: 9 bits 5. What do well-chosen subnets accomplish? All Review Questions 17  Correct Answer: Simplify network documentation and management 6. Which formulas can be used to calculate the magic number? Choose two. Correct Answer: 256 - interest octect 2h − 2 7. Which hexadecimal block in an IPv6 address is used for the Subnet ID? Correct Answer: The fourth block 8. Which assignment technique requires a RADIUS server? Correct Answer: Dynamic VLAN assignment 9. Which port mode on a switch enables that port to manage traffic for multiple VLANs? Correct Answer: Trunk 10. Which IEEE standard determines how VLANs work on a network? Correct Answer: 802.1Q 11. What is the network ID with CIDR notation for the IP address 172.16.32.108 whose subnet mask is 255.255.255.0? Correct Answer: 172.16.32.0/24 12. Suppose your company has leased one class C license, 120.10.10.0, and wants to sublease the first half of these IP addresses to another company. What is the CIDR notation for the subnet to be subleased? What is the subnet mask for this network? Correct Answer: CIDR: 120.10.10.0/25 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.128 13. Subnetting operates at the network layer while VLANs function at the data link layer. Correct Answer: True 14. Which VLAN on a switch manages untagged frames? Correct Answer: Native VLAN All Review Questions 18  15. An attacker configures a VLAN frame with two tags instead of just one. The first tag directs the frame to the authorized VLAN. After the frame enters the first VLAN, the switch appropriately removes the tag, then discovers the next tag, and sends the frame along to a protected VLAN, which the attacker is not authorized to access. What kind of attack is this? Correct Answer: VLAN hopping attack 16. What area of a network can provide less stringent security so a web server is more accessible from the open Internet? Correct Answer: DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) 17. On which networking device do you configure VLANs? Correct Answer: Switch 18. Which IP addressing technique subnets a subnet to create subnets of various sizes? Correct Answer: VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking) 19. Which VLAN type would be the best fit for a company’s web servers that need to be accessible from the Internet but should not be able to communicate with each other? Correct Answer: Isolated VLAN 20. Which Cisco command lists configured VLANs on a switch? Correct Answer: show vlan brief Module 9 1. Which OSI layer is responsible for directing data from one LAN to another? Correct Answer: Network layer 2. What kind of route is created when a network administrator configures a router to use a specific path between nodes? Correct Answer: Static route 3. When a router can’t determine a path to a message’s destination, where does it send the message? Correct Answer: Gateway of last resort 4. A routing protocol’s reliability and priority are rated by what measurement? All Review Questions 19  Correct Answer: AD (Administrative Distance) 5. Which routing protocol does an edge router use to collect data to build its routing tables for paths across the Internet? Correct Answer: BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) 6. What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which LANs and WANs support the same protocols? Correct Answer: Layer 2 7. What kind of device can monitor a connection at the demarc but cannot interpret data? Correct Answer: Smartjack 8. What specifications define the standards for cable broadband? Correct Answer: DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) 9. What method does a GSM network use to separate data on a channel? Correct Answer: TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access) 10. Which of these cellular technologies offers the fastest speeds? Correct Answer: LTE-A (Long-Term Evolution Advanced) 11. Where is an MPLS label inserted into a message’s headers? Correct Answer: Between the Layer 2 and Layer 3 headers 12. What four functions do all routers perform? Correct Answer: Connect dissimilar networks Interpret Layer 3 (and sometimes Layer 4) addressing Determine the best path for data transmission Reroute traffic if the primary path fails 13. What database does a router consult before determining the most efficient path for delivering a message? Correct Answer: Routing table All Review Questions 20  14. Give three examples of routing metrics used by routers to determine the best of various available routing paths. Correct Answer: Hop count Latency Bandwidth 15. List three IGPs (interior gateway protocols). Correct Answer: RIP, OSPF, EIGRP 16. How can you create a private and secure connection with your cloud network over the Internet? Correct Answer: VPN (Virtual Private Network) 17. List three transport methods that can be used to support an SD-WAN. Correct Answer: Broadband, MPLS, cellular 18. When you list a router’s routing table, one of the routes is labeled with an S. Which routing protocol was used to create this route? Correct Answer: Static routing 19. What command will ensure the configuration changes you made to a switch will persist after you restart the switch? Correct Answer: copy running-config startup-config 20. What device must be installed on a DSL network to protect the sound quality of phone calls? Correct Answer: Splitter Module 10 1. Your organization has just approved a special budget for a network security upgrade. What procedure should you conduct to develop your recommendations for the upgrade priorities? Correct Answer: Security audit All Review Questions 21  2. Which type of DoS attack orchestrates an attack bounced off uninfected computers? Correct Answer: DRDoS attack (Distributed Reflected Denial of Service) 3. A company accidentally sends a newsletter with a mistyped website address. The address points to a website spoofed by hackers to collect information from people who make the same typo. What kind of attack is this? Correct Answer: Phishing 4. A former employee discovers six months after he starts work at a new company that his account credentials still give him access to his old company’s servers. He demonstrates his access to several friends to brag about his cleverness and talk badly about the company. What kind of attack is this? Correct Answer: Insider threat 5. What type of attack relies on spoofing? Correct Answer: Deauth attack 6. You need to securely store handheld radios for your network technicians to take with them when troubleshooting problems around your campus network. What’s the best way to store these radios so all your techs can get to them and so you can track who has the radios? Correct Answer: Smart locker 7. Leading up to the year 2000, many people expected computer systems the world over to fail when clocks turned the date to January 1, 2000. What type of threat was this? Correct Answer: Logic bomb 8. Which of the following attack simulations detect vulnerabilities and attempt to exploit them? Choose two. Correct Answer: Red team–blue team exercise Pen testing 9. Which of the following is considered a secure protocol? Correct Answer: SSH All Review Questions 22  10. A company wants its employees to sign a document that details some project-related information that should not be discussed outside the project’s team members. What type of document should they use? Correct Answer: NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) 11. What is the difference between a vulnerability and an exploit? Correct Answer: Vulnerability: A weakness in a system. Exploit: An action that takes advantage of a vulnerability. 12. What are the four phases in the social engineering attack cycle? Correct Answer: Research, build trust, exploit, exit 13. List five subtypes of DoS attacks. Correct Answer: DDoS DRDoS Amplified DRDoS PDoS Friendly DoS 14. What type of scan process might identify that Telnet is running on a server? Correct Answer: Port scan 15. Give an example of biometric detection. Correct Answer: Fingerprint scanner 16. What unique characteristic of zero-day exploits makes them so dangerous? Correct Answer: They exploit vulnerabilities before developers can release patches. 17. What steps should your company take to protect data on discarded devices? Correct Answer: Use professional disposal services to sanitize or destroy devices. 18. A neighbor hacks into your secured wireless network on a regular basis, but you didn’t give her the password. What loophole was most likely left open? All Review Questions 23  Correct Answer: WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) 19. Which form of SHA was developed by private designers? Correct Answer: SHA-3 20. Why might organizations be willing to take on the risk of BYOD? Correct Answer: BYOD is cost-effective and improves employee morale and efficiency. Module 11 1. At what layer of the OSI model do proxy servers operate? Correct Answer: Layer 7 (Application Layer) 2. Which of the following ACL commands would permit web-browsing traffic from any IP address to any IP address? Correct Answer: access-list acl_2 permit https any any 3. Which of the following criteria can a packet-filtering firewall not use to determine whether to accept or deny traffic? Correct Answer: Application data 4. What information in a transmitted message might an IDS use to identify network threats? Correct Answer: Signature 5. Which principle ensures auditing processes are managed by someone other than the employees whose activities are being audited? Correct Answer: Separation of duties 6. Who is responsible for the security of hardware on which a public cloud runs? Correct Answer: The cloud provider 7. Which of the following is not one of the AAA services provided by RADIUS and TACACS+? Correct Answer: Administration 8. Which device would allow an attacker to make network clients use an illegitimate default gateway? All Review Questions 24  Correct Answer: DHCP server 9. Which policy ensures messages are discarded when they don’t match a specific firewall rule? Correct Answer: Implicit deny 10. Active Directory and 389 Directory Server are both compatible with which directory access protocol? Correct Answer: LDAP 11. What are the two primary features that give proxy servers an advantage over NAT? Correct Answer: Security: Hides the client’s IP address. Better traffic control: Restricts access to websites and applications. 12. What kinds of issues might indicate a misconfigured ACL? Correct Answer: Denying access to authorized users Allowing unauthorized access Performance issues 13. Any traffic that is not explicitly permitted in the ACL is denied, which is called the _implicit deny. Correct Answer: Denied; implicit deny 14. What kind of ticket is held by Kerberos’s TGS? Correct Answer: Service Ticket 15. What’s the essential difference between an IPS and an IDS? Correct Answer: IDS detects and alerts on malicious activity. IPS detects and blocks malicious activity in real time. 16. What causes most firewall failures? Correct Answer: Misconfiguration All Review Questions 25  17. What is the purpose of an ACL when configuring CoPP? Correct Answer: To define which types of traffic can reach the control plane of a network device. 18. Why do network administrators create domain groups to manage user security privileges? Correct Answer: To simplify access management and ensure consistent permissions. 19. What characteristic of ARP makes it particularly vulnerable to being used in a DoS attack? Correct Answer: ARP lacks authentication and trusts all incoming messages. 20. Why would you need separate RA guard policies for network hosts and routers attached to a switch? Correct Answer: To prevent malicious RAs while allowing legitimate device communication. Module 12 1. While troubleshooting a recurring problem on your network, you want to examine the TCP messages being exchanged between a server and a client. Which tool should you use on the server? Correct Answer: Wireshark 2. One of your coworkers downloaded several, very large video files for a special project she’s working on for a new client. When you run your network monitor later this afternoon, what list will your coworker’s computer likely show up on? Correct Answer: Top talkers 3. What command requests the next record in an SNMP log? Correct Answer: SNMP Get Next 4. What port do SNMP agents listen on? Correct Answer: Port 161 5. Your roommate has been hogging the bandwidth on your router lately. What feature should you configure on the router to limit the amount of bandwidth his computer can All Review Questions 26  utilize at any one time? Correct Answer: Traffic shaping 6. What field in an IPv4 packet is altered to prioritize video streaming traffic over web surfing traffic? Correct Answer: DiffServ 7. Which power backup method will continually provide power to a server if the power goes out during a thunderstorm? Correct Answer: Online UPS 8. Which type of disaster recovery site contains all the equipment you would need to get up and running again after a disaster, and yet would require several weeks to implement? Correct Answer: Cold site 9. Which log type is used to prove who did what and when? Correct Answer: Audit log 10. Which data link layer flow control method offers the most efficient frame transmission when sending large volumes of data? Correct Answer: Selective repeat sliding window 11. When you arrive at work one morning, your inbox is full of messages complaining of a network slowdown. You collect a capture from your network monitor. What documentation can help you determine what has changed? Correct Answer: Change logs or network configuration documentation 12. What are the primary data link layer flow control methods? Correct Answer: Stop-and-wait and sliding window 13. What’s the difference between an incident and a disaster? Correct Answer: Incident: Affects limited systems or users. Disaster: Causes widespread network outages. All Review Questions 27  14. Which QoS technique operates at layer 2 to more efficiently route Ethernet traffic between VLANs? Correct Answer: 802.1Q tagging 15. What’s the difference between a PDU and a UPS? Correct Answer: PDU (Power Distribution Unit): Distributes power to devices. UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply): Provides backup power during outages. 16. Why might you want to install two power supplies in a critical server? Correct Answer: For redundancy to ensure uninterrupted power. 17. What are the two main categories of UPSs? Correct Answer: Standby UPS Online UPS 18. Which congestion control techniques help to prevent network congestion? Correct Answer: Traffic shaping and congestion avoidance mechanisms 19. What is the primary challenge in properly configuring NetFlow? Correct Answer: Managing the large volume of generated traffic data 20. Which backup type, if performed daily, would offer the lowest RTO and why? Correct Answer: Incremental backup, as it restores data faster by only applying recent changes. All Review Questions 28  🙏 Si es que de verdad leyeron hasta aca, no les deseo la mejor de las suertes, pero, que el Señor me les de sabiduria, y estesen tranquilos muchachos que ya gracias a Dios ya saldremos de esto. He aquí una pequeña ovación que pueden hacer antes de el mero mero examen: "Dios mío, dame claridad de pensamiento, calma en mi corazón y la sabiduría para responder con precisión. Ayúdame a recordar lo que he estudiado y a confiar en mis habilidades. Pase lo que pase, que este momento me acerque más a mis metas. Amén." Recuerden no solo confiar en sus conocimientos, también en la manito de Diosito. All Review Questions 29