Anesthesiology Questions and Answers PDF

Anesthesiology  Anaesthesiology – All Questions Since Ever 2020 (T.K) 1.A. KAIM logo presents vital signs of life like: a. Diuresis, circulation, metabolism b. Breathing, circulation, consciousness c. Oxidation, pH, production of CO2 d. Consumption of O2...

Anesthesiology  Anaesthesiology – All Questions Since Ever 2020 (T.K) 1.A. KAIM logo presents vital signs of life like: a. Diuresis, circulation, metabolism b. Breathing, circulation, consciousness c. Oxidation, pH, production of CO2 d. Consumption of O2, production of CO2, metabolism e. Breathing, oxidation, pH b. Breathing, circulation, consciousness 2.A. Prof. William Ganz (07/01/1919 in Kosice + 10/11/2009 in Los Angeles): a. Belongs to pioneers of intravenous anaesthesia in the continent of America b. He co-invented the pulmonary artery catheter and introduced it into medicine practice c. As a first physician he brought muscle relaxants into the practice d. As a first physician he has been using Swan-Ganz EEG sensor e. He was portrayed as a first physician on USA stamp b. He co-invented the pulmonary artery catheter and introduced it into medicine practice *It is a pulmonary valve catheter that measures the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), which is an indicator of the left ventricular preload. 3.A. Indication for admission to ICU is: a. Long lasting operation b. Status post GM epilepsy seizure c. Hydrothorax with pleural drainage d. Post-dural-puncture headache post spinal anaesthesia for Caesarean section e. Vital organs failure e. Vital organs failure * Intensive care is a service for patients with potentially recoverable conditions who can benefit from more detailed observation and invasive treatment than can be safely provided in general wards or high dependency areas. It is usually reserved for patients with potential or established organ failure. The most commonly supported organ is the lung. Taken into evaluation is factors such as primary diagnosis, severity, likely outcome, co-morbid illness, life expectancy, post-discharge quality of life and patient’s or relative’s wishes. There is no strict indications for admission to the ICU, but generally 4 groups are indicated: 1.Respiratory and ventilatory failure – in need of ventilation 2.People with low level of consciousness – not able to breath, so they need ventilator 3.Post-resuscitation care – in need of circulatory and ventilatory monitoring 4.Post-theatre: - Patient from emergency surgeries – for example abdominal aortic aneurysms - Elective cases with severe complications (ASA 4-5) 4.A. The basic airway manoeuvre is: a. Head tilt (back) and chin lift b. Head tilt (forward) and jaw compression c. Head tilt (back) and jaw compression d. Application of face-mask e. Insertion of LMA (laryngeal mask) a. Head tilt (back) and chin lift *Head tilt/Chin lift: - A procedure used to prevent the tongue from obstructing upper airways in an unconscious patient 1) Place one hand on the supine patient’s forehead to tilt their head backwards 2) Place the other hand on the patients chin to lift it up Note: - The manoeuvre is used in any patient in whom cervical spine injury is not a concern 5.A. Esmarch manoeuvre is for: a. Releasing of foreign body from airway b. Opening of airway c. Insertion of ETT (endotracheal tube) d. Insertion of OP (oropharyngeal airway device) e. Prevention of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric content b. Opening of airway *Jaw-thrust (Esmarch manoeuvre): - A procedure used to prevent the tongue from obstructing upper airways in an unconscious patient 1) Place the thenar eminences on both of patients zygomatic arch 2) Place the index and the middle finger under the patients angle of mandible 3) Bring your fingers up towards the thenar eminences, thereby lifting the patients jaw forward Note: - The manoeuvre is often used on patient with cervical neck problems or suspected cervical spine injury 6.A. Oropharyngeal airway (OP): a. Usage in ambulance is prohibited b. Is equipment allowing connection of a patient to an artificial ventilation c. Appropriate size is measured by a same side distance between earlobe and labial angle d. During insertion this must be rotated by 90 degrees e. Is always longer than the nasopharyngeal airway for the same patient c. Appropriate size is measured by a same side distance between earlobe and labial angle 7.A. Laryngeal mask (LMA): a. Insertion does not require usage of muscle relaxant b. Laryngoscope during LMA insertion is hold always in right hand c. Laryngoscope during LMA insertion is hold always in left hand d. It is not possible to connect an usual ventilator to LMA e. It’s cuff needs to be filled with water a. Insertion does not require usage of muscle relaxant 8.A. The Advantage of tracheostomy is: a. Reduction of dead space by 1/3 in comparison with the status before tracheostomy b. Tube needs to be change during every cleaning procedure of tracheostomy c. The resistance in airway is increased by 1/3 d. Is used only for mandatory artificial ventilation e. Is used only as a metallic tube a. Reduction of dead space by 1/3 in comparison with the status before tracheostomy * Tracheostomy = Permanent or temporary opening (stoma) in the cervical trachea created through surgical incision below the cricoid cartilage for the placement of a tracheal tube st nd rd th - Lecture says between 1 and 2 tracheal cartilage ring, internet says between 3 and 4 tracheal cartilage ring. Indications: - Long-term mechanical ventilation (> 3 weeks); - Acute upper airway obstructions causing respiratory distress (stridor) and respiratory acidosis - Infections (e.g. diphtheria, epiglottitis); - Malignancy (e.g. laryngeal carcinoma); - Haemorrhage; - Foreign body; - Oropharyngeal edema (e.g. angioedema) Procedure: Horizontal incision made between the cricoid cartilage and sternal notch. Tube is placed st nd between 1 and 2 tracheal ring. Insertion and suture fixation of a tracheostomy tube. Post- procedure chest x-ray to exclude pneumothorax and tube displacement. 16.A. Capnography is CO2 monitoring in airway gases with the purpose of monitoring of: a. Ventilation and pain level b. Ventilation and metabolism c. Ventilation, circulation and metabolism d. Ventilation and pressure in airway e. Depth of anesthesia and ventilation c. Ventilation, circulation, and metabolism * Capnography: Measurement of CO2 during respiratory cycle. We measure content of CO2 near the mouth in the endotracheal tube. This helps us to monitor ventilation, circulation and metabolism. 17.A. Preload of the right heart ventricle is determined by: a. The pressure in vena cava superior – central venous pressure (CVP) b. Heart frequency described by arterial waveform c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) d. Minute cardiac output (CO) e. Pulse waveform on SpO2 a. The pressure in vena cava superior – central venous pressure (CVP) * Preload: The force that stretches the ventricle during diastole - Also describes as End diastolic ventricular volume Preload = CVP, PCWP - CVP is an indicator of right ventricular preload - PCWP is an indicator of left ventricular preload 18.A. The following symptoms don’t belong among typical morphine effects: a. Analgesia, breathing deprivation, nausea, vomitus and sedation b. Vasodilatation, histamine release c. Biliary tract spasm, obstipation and urine retention d. Dependence and tolerance e. Artery hypertension, cough and mydriasis e. Artery hypertension, cough and mydriasis * Morphine properties 1. Analgesia 7. Constipation 2. Sedation 8. Nausea, vomiting 3. Respiratory depression 9. Miosis 4. Antitussive effects 10. Oddi sphincter spasms 5. Vasodilation 11. Urinary retention 6. Histamine release 12. Tolerability and addiction 19.A. Recommended value of Visual analog scale (VAS) (1-10) for controlling pain is: a. More than 4 in chronic pain b. Less than 5 in chronic pain c. More than 5 in acute pain d. Less than 3 in acute pain e. Less than 5 in acute and chronic pain d. Less than 3 in acute pain *Monitoring of pain:Visual analog scale (VAS): Subjective pain score by the patient: 0 – 10 - Acute pain5 %/3 weeks or >10%/3 months e. Basic energy expenditure is 20-30 kcal/kg/day b. Solution of 20% lipids should not be administrated to peripheral vein (They should – ‘rapid infusion’ – but in peripheral vein..?.. not sure. This should be with a central line. 24.A. The simplest recommended examination for assessing of hypovolemia is: a. Measurement of changes in blood pressure during passive leg raising test (PLRT) b. Adminstration of 500ml of crystalloid iv in adult (fluid challenge) c. Measurement changes in arterial pulse pressure during artificial ventilation d. Measurement of changes in blood pressure after starting noradrenaline infusion with rate 0.1 μg/kg/min e. Measurement of changes in blood pressure after starting dobutamine infusion with rate 0.1 μg/kg/min a. Measurement of changes in blood pressure during passive leg raising test (PLRT) *In acute circulatory failure, passive leg raising (PLR) is a test that predicts whether cardiac output will increase with volume expansion. By transferring a volume of around 300 mL of venous blood from the lower body toward the right heart, PLR mimics a fluid challenge. Hypovolemic shock: Loss of > 20% of intravascular fluid volume From the internet: (probably less than 20% loss of volume is hypovolemia without shock and more, its count as shock ) 25.A. Sepsis is: a. SIRS with required noradrenaline infusion support b. life threatening organ dysfunction caused by inappropriate organism response to infection c. increase lactate level d. presence of fever, leococytosis, tachycardia e. drop of blood pressure caused by fever  b. Life threatening organ dysfunction caused by inappropriate organism response to infection 26.A. Septic shock: a. Does not require noradrenaline administration in hypotension is spite of fluid resuscitation with crystalloids in dose 30ml/kg in first 3 hours b. Does not require administration of hydrocortisone in dose 200mg/day when noradrenaline support fails to increase blood pressure c. Always requires continuous renal replacement treatment (CRRT) d. Is a stage of a sepsis characterised with perfusion abnormalities requiring vasopressors support or with metabolic derangement - hyperlactemia e. Requires supportive treatment with erythropoietin d. Is a stage of a sepsis characterised with perfusion abnormalities requiring vasopressors support 27.A. First step of rescuer who found a collapsed person is: a. Call for help b. Confirm safety of the scene c. Shake the victim body d. Activate emergency services e. Administer two rescue breaths b. Confirm safety of the scene 28.A. Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not indicated is: a. Ventricle fibrillation b. Pulseless ventricle tachycardia c. Atrial fibrillation d. Asystole e. Pulseless electrical activity c. Atrial fibrillation *Adrenaline, a hormone which of sympathetic response, can cause AF if levels are abnormally high in the atria of the heart, such as in heart failure. Activating these receptors may disturb electrical currents and calcium movements in atrial cells. If we will give Epi in A.FIB we will kill the patient. In ANY other case of cardiac arrest, Epinephrine is indicated. 29.A. Defibrillation is indicated in: a. Ventricle fibrillation  b. A-V block 3rd degree c. Atrial fibrillation d. Asystole e. Pulseless electrical activity a. Ventricle fibrillation *VF \ pulseless VT 30.A. Ratio of chest compressions and ventilation is one rescuer is: a.15:2 b.60:3 c.10:1 d.30:2 e.40:20 d.30:2 31.A. The most important factor(S) for surviving of an adult in cardiac arrest is/are: a. Chest compression + defibrillation b. Early activation of 155 + adrenaline 1mg/ 3-5 min c. Chest compression + rescue breaths 30:2 d. Defibrillation + adrenaline /amiodarone e. Warming the patient. a. Chest compression + defibrillation 32.A. The following do not belong among 4H and 4T: a. hypoxia,hypothermia, tamponade of the heart, thromboembolism b. hypercapenia, hypovolemia, intoxication, tension pneumothorax c. hypovolemia, hypokalemia, hypothermia, hypoxia d. haemolysis, tachycardia, trismus, tetany e. intoxication, tamponade of the heart, hypovolemia, hypoxia d. haemolysis, tachycardia, trismus, tetany Rule of 5 H’s: Rule of 5 T’s: - Hypoxia - Thrombosis (infarction) - Hypovolemia - Thromboembolism (PE) - Hypokalemia/Hyperkalemia/other metabolic causes - Tension pneumothorax - Hypothermia - Tablets and toxins - Hydrogen ion (acidosis) - Tamponade (Cardiac) 1.B. Lethal triad in haemorrhagic shock is: a. Acidosis, coagulopathy, hypothermia b. Bleeding, coma, acidosis c. Hypoxaemia, hypercapnia, acidosis d. Hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation e. Alkalosis, coagulopathy, hypoxaemia a. Acidosis, coagulopathy, hypothermia * Haemorrhagic shock is a condition of reduced tissue perfusion due to loss of circulating blood volume. This results in the inadequate delivery of oxygen and nutrients that are necessary for cellular function. * Triad of death. The trauma triad of death is a medical term describing the combination of hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy. This combination is commonly seen in patients who have sustained severe traumatic injuries and results in a significant rise in the mortality rate. 2.B. The following does not belong among airway management: a. Chin lift / jaw trust b. Oropharyngeal airway (OP) c. Supraglottic device d. Endotracheal intubation e. Thoracotomy e. Thoracotomy Thoracotomy = Surgery incision into the chest wall 3.B. ABCDE approach is meant to be for the staff in: a. HDU b. ICU c. Ambulances and Eds d. Physicians and nurses on the wards e. All above e. All above 4.B. What is the wrong statement? In advanced life support: a. Adrenaline administration in asystole is immediate b. Adrenaline administration in ventricle fibrillation is after the 3rd unsuccessful discharge c. The dose of adrenaline in adults is 1mg intravenously d. We don’t use adrenaline in pulseless electrical activity e. We use adrenaline in pulseless ventricle tachycardia d. We don’t use adrenaline in pulseless electrical activity 5.B. What is the wrong statement? a. Electric current passing through the head muscle depolarize the whole myocardium altogether and allow restoration of normal heart electric activity b. Attachment electrodes are preferable to sticky ones c. Success of defibrilation depends mainly on the time from the onset of fibrilation to discharge d. Biphasic defibrilation are more efficient than monophasic ones e. Chest compressions we disrupt for the shortest time b. Attachment electrodes are preferable to sticky ones The sticky ones are more stable and safe, both to the patient and the care-giver. 6.B. In case of I.V access failure for drugs administration, the second recommended choice is: a. Endotracheal route b. Intraosseous approach c. Subcutaneous approach d. Via nasal mucosa e. Intra-arterial route c. Intraossesous approach 7.B. Basic life support in child who is unconsciousness and is not breathing we always start with: a. 5 initial breaths followed by chest compressions and two rescue breaths – 30:2 b. Covering the child c. Placing the child to recovery (lateral) position  d. Lifting the head up e. Offering a drink to the child a. 5 initial breaths followed by chest compressions and two rescue breaths – 30:2 8.B. Atropine is indicated in: a. Asystole b. Bradycardia c. Ventricle fibrillation d. Ventricle tachycardia e. Atrial fibrillation d. Bradycardia * Atropine enhances automaticity and conduction of both SA and AV node. It is most effective in haemodynamically significant bradycardia which is due to vagal stimulation. Recommended dose is 3 mg; Used in bradycardia and asystole 16.B. Sepsis is: a. SIRS with required noradrenaline infusion support b. Life threatening organ dysfunction caused by inappropriate organism response to infection c. Increased lactate level d. Presence of fever, leucocytosis and tachycardia e. Drop-off blood pressure caused by fever b. Life threatening organ dysfunction caused by inappropriate organism response to infection 17.B. The simplest recommended examination for assesing of hypovolemia is: a. Measurement of changes in blood pressure during passive leg raising test (PLRT) b. Administration of 500 ml crystalloid I.V in adult (fluid challenge) c. Measurement of changes in arterial pulse pressure during artificial ventilation d. Measurement of changes in blood pressure after starting noradrenaline infusion with rate 0.1ug/kg/min e. Measurement of changes in blood pressure after starting dobutamine infusion with rate 0.1ug/kg/min a. Measurement of changes in blood pressure during passive leg raising test (PLRT) Passive leg raising test - it is a predictor of Fluid responsiveness (i.e. helps identify patients who are on the ascending portion of their Starling Curve, and will have an increase in stroke volume in response to fluid administration) 18.B. Which of the following statement regarding nutrition is wrong? a. Solution with osmolality more than 900 mosmol/kg should not be administered to peripheral vein- risk of phlebitis b. Solution of 20% lipids should not be administrated to peripheral vein c. Minimal duration of artificial nutrition support in severe malnourition is 7 days d. The sign of malnutrition is weight loss >5 %/3 weeks or >10%/3 months e. Basic energy expenditure is 20-30 kcal/kg/day BC 19.B. Which of the statement is wrong? a. 38 molecules of ATP originate from 1 glucose molecule in aerobic condition and 2 ATP in anaerobic condition b. 1 gr carbohydrate produce 4 kcal, I gr of proteins 4kcal and 1 gr of fats 9kcal of energy c. Hyperglycaemia is one of the early signs of the liver failure d. 80% of IgA is produced by Gastrointestinal Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT) e. Hypophosphatemia is a typical sign of refeeding syndrome c. Hyperglycaemia is one of the early signs of the liver failure Basics about nutrition: Energy gain: In aerobic conditions – 1 glucose = 38 ATP In anaerobic conditions – 1 glucose = 2 ATP + lactate Basal nutrients: Saccharides 4 kcal/g Amino acids 4 kcal/g Lipids 9 kcal/g Requirements of nutrients – daily demands in %: 55% saccharides (3-5 g/kg) 30% lipids (0.5-1.5 g/kg) 15% proteins (1-2 g/kg) 20.B. Which of the statement is wrong? a. Straches, gelatine and dextran agents belong to artificial colloids b. Plasma, albumin and red blood cells belong to nature colloids c. Distributional space for crystalloids is extracellular fluid d. Distributional space for glucose infusion is intravascular one e. daily water requirement is 30 – 50ml /kg/d = 2100 -3500 ml/70kg/day d. Distributional space for glucose infusion is intravascular one Colloids: - A colloid is a high molecular weight substance that mostly remains confined to the intravascular compartment and thus generates oncotic pressure - There is two groups: Natural colloids: albumin, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), blood Artificial colloids: Gelatins, dextrans, hydroxyethyl starches Glucose is CRYSTALLOID – so extravascular 21.B. Which of the definitions is wrong? a. Withholding = refusal or no infusion of the treatment or specific treatment step, no further escalation of the treatment or specific treatment step b. Withdrawing = decision to stop or remove treatment or specific treatment step after it has begun c. Euthanasia = administration of a medication with intentional ending of a patient’s life d. Assisted suicide = the patient administers the lethal agent themselves with health care member’s assistance e. Double effect = giving medication for pain relief on one side can speed up dying process on the other side c. Euthanasia = administration of a medication with intentional ending of a patient’s life 22.B. Recommended value of VAS (1-10) for controlling pain is: a. More than 4 in chronic pain  b. Less than 5 in chronic pain c. More than 5 in acute pain d. Less than 3 in acute pain e. Less than 5 in acute and chronic pain d. Less than 3 in acute pain In acute pain treatment, the accepted level is 3 in VAS In chronic pain treatment, the accepted level is 2 in VAS 23.B. The following symptoms don’t belong among typical morphine effects: a. analgesia, breathing deprivation, nausea, vomitus, and sedation b. vasodilatation, histamine release c. biliary tract spams, constipation and urine retention d. dependence and tolerance e. artery hypertension, cough and mydriasis e. artery hypertension, cough and mydriasis 24.B. Preload of the right heart ventricle is determined by: a. The pressure in vena cava superior-central venous pressure (CVP) b. Heart frequency described by arterial waveform c. Systemic vascular resistance(SVR) d. Minute cardiac output (CO) e. Pulse waveform on SpO2 a. The pressure in vena cava superior – central venous pressure (CVP) CVP is an indicator of right ventricular preload 25.B. Capnography is CO2 monitoring in airway gases with the purpose of monitoring of: a. ventilation and pain level b. ventilation and metabolism c. ventilation, circulation metabolism d. ventilation and pressure in airway e. depth of anesthesia and ventilation c. Ventilation circulation metabolism Capnography: Measurement of CO2 during respiratory cycle. We measure content of CO2 near the mouth in the endotracheal tube. This helps us to monitor ventilation, circulation and metabolism. 26.B. To increase the level of oxygen concentration during artificial ventilation we usually use: a. High-frequency ventilation b. Increase in minute ventilation of frequency of breathing c. Increase in inspiratory oxygen concentration (FiO2) and pressure in airway in the end of the expiration (PEEP) d. The level of analgesia and sedation and usage of muscle relaxants e. Administration of red blood cells transfusion c. Increase in inspiratory oxygen concentration (FiO2) and pressure in airway in the end of the expiration (PEEP) Oxygenation improves with increased PEEP and increased FiO2. 27.B. For the quantitative assessment of the level of consciousness we use: a. Visual analogue scale (VAS) b. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) c. Monitoring of Bispectral index (BIS) d. Guedel’s scheme e. Train of four (TOF) e. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) 28.B. The following symptom is not a part of usual presentation of toxic reaction following local anaesthetic: a. Apnoea and cardiac arrest b. Myoclonic jerks or GM seizures c. Anxiety, behavioural and speech disturbances d. Urticaria/skin rash e. Tinnitus, paraesthesia in mouth and tongue f. Urticaria/skin rash * How to distinguish if patient is having a toxic reaction or not? Sometimes we can have either a strong response, which is very obvious, but also there is a chance of having a very small and subtle response which gives information about toxicity. It is therefore important to keep contact with the patient, to let you know when something is happening, i.e. patient needs to tell you that she/he is feeling lightheaded etc. 1. Circumorally or tongue numbness 2. Tinnitus 3. Light headedness 4. Visual disturbances 5. Anxiety, irrational behaviour and speech 6. Muscle twitching 7. GM convulsions 8. Coma 9. Respiratory arrest 29.B. The fastest onset of regional anaesthesia in required area is in: a. Epidural (peridural) anesthesia b. Spinal anesthesia c. Foot block d. Axilar block e. Femoral block b. Spinal anaesthesia * Spinal anaesthesia: Low volume, fast onset, very good myorelaxation 30.B. The following technique doesn’t belong among neuroaxial anaesthesia: a. Epidural (peridural) anaesthesia b. Caudal block c. Subarachnoid anaesthesia d. Spinal anaesthesia e. Interscalene block e. Interscalene block (true by exclusion) 31.B. The following drugs belong to opioids: a. Vecuronium, propofol, fentanyl b. Propofol, thiopental, metohaxital, ketamine, midazolam c. Fentanyl, alfentanil, sufentanil, remifentanil, morphine d. Suxamenthonium (succynilcholine),vecuronium, atracurium, pipecuronium, rocuronium e. Propofol, fentanyl, ketamine c. Fentanyl, alfentanil, sufentanil, remifentanil, morphine 32.B. The main three components of general anaesthesia are: a. Ventilation, analgesia, muscle relaxant b. Hypnosis, analgesia, monitoring c. Ventilation, analgesia, monitoring d. Hypnosis, analgesia, muscle relaxant e. Hypnosis, analgesia, monitoring d. Hypnosis, analgesia, muscle relaxant 1.Oropharyngeal tube? 3.Chronic/Acute pain scale? * Acute pain – recent onset, transient and with identifiable cause – < 3 months Chronic pain – persistent or recurrent pain, beyond the usual course - > 3 months Visual analog scale (VAS):Subjective pain score by the patient: 0 – 10 - Acute pain < 3 - Chronic pain < 2 7.When not to give atropine? 8.Hemorrhagic shock – steps? Clinical features: Weak pulse, tachycardia, tachypnea Cold, clammy extremities – poor capillary refill Specific symptoms corresponding to the cause: Bleeding, melena, hematemesis, diarrhea Pathophysiology: Haemorrhage à Low circulation volume à low CO and pulse pressure à baroreceptors sensation (in the aortic arch and atrium). Low circulation volume à high sympathetic outflow à HR increases, vasoconstriction, redistribution of blood flow away from certain non-vital organs (skin, GIT, kidney). hormonal response à Vasopressin released à water retention à decreased mean arterial pressure à renin release à high aldosterone à sodium and water resorption. 10. Qualitative consciousness evaluation? Loss of consciousness: Quantitative: Somnolence – a pathological sleepiness with a possibility of awakening Stupor – wakening is restricted to painful stimuli, but no reaction to verbal stimulus. Coma – state of consciousness in which patient cannot be aroused Qualitative: Amentia – disorder of perception with hallucinations and motor hyperactivity Delirium – state with prevailing hallucinations, memory disorders, agitation or sleep Obnubilation – unconscious action of the patient that the patient does not remember Vigilant coma (coma depasse, aphalic syndrome) 12.Colloids examples? A colloid is a high molecular weight substance that mostly remains confined to the intravascular compartment and thus generates oncotic pressure. Natural colloids: albumin, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), blood Artificial colloids: Gelatins, dextrans, hydroxyethyl starches 13.Crystalloids examples? Crystalloids = - Aqueous solutions with varying concentrations of electrolytes - The most commonly used fluid in a hospital setting. It is the fluid of choice - Balanced crystalloids or saline. Types: Hypertonic (e.g. 3% NaCl); Hypotonic (e.g. 0.45% NaCl); Isotonic (e.g. normal saline (0.9%). 16. Frequency of external chest compressions during CPR is? à c.100/120 minute * Cardiopulmonary resuscitation: 30 chest compressions followed by two rescue breaths (30:2) – Start with chest compressions. Chest compression rate: 100-120 per minute with depth of 5-6 cm 17. Which of the following may cause electromechanical dissociation? a. Hypovolaemia b. Tension pneumothorax c. Massive pulmonary embolus d. Cardiac tamponade a. Hypovolaemia By internet: The most common underlying etiologies include hypoxia and hypovolemia. 18.Which of the following are typically indicated for asystole during CPR? Adrenaline (epinephrine) (True but do not forget to treat reversible causes – 5H&5Ts) 19.During CPR the energy of the first shock of biphasic defibrillator is? 150-200 J Energy load: Biphasic waveforms (cause less damage to cardiac tissue) First shock: 120-200 J - Additional shocks: 200-360 J 20.Patient is apnoeic and pulseless. The following is the presenting rhythm: Shockable rhythm. Treatment: CPE, defibrillation, adrenaline 1mg, amiodarone 300mg VF? 21. Patient is apnoeic and pulseless with the following rhythm – bag mask ventilators and chest compressions are begun: Non-shockable rhythm, CPR, treatment: Epinephrine in the ECG- we see normal sinus rhythm BUT the patient is without pulse, so the diagnosis is pulseless electrical activity (PEA) – and the treatment is same as asystole\PEA -NOT SHOCKABLE. CPR + EPI 22.Concerning adrenaline (epinephrine) during CPR: a. The typical initial dose in adults is 1,0mg Epi 1mg IV – as soon as possible without delaying CPR - repeat every 3-5min 23.The single dose of adrenaline in severe anaphylactic reaction is: a. 0.5mg I.M (slowly) 24.Potentially reversible causes of cardiac arrest are? à 5H & 5T It can also be called as 4H&4T because Thromboembolism (MI or Pulmonary Embolism can count as one, same with hydrogen disbalance and hype\hyporkalemia- metabolic ) 25. Standard electrodes position for defibrillation is? a. Below right clavicle and left mid axillary line 26.The depth of chest compression should be? 5-6cm * Cardiopulmonary resuscitation: 30 chest compressions followed by two rescue breaths (30:2) – Start with chest compressions. Chest compression rate: 100-120 per minute with depth of 5-6 cm Rescue breathing: Verify sufficient ventilation by checking for thoracic movement during rescue breathing. If psychological/hygienic factors prevent rescue breathing, perform continuous hands-only CPR. 27. An 80 years old complains of chest pain that begun 1 hour ago. The patient is pale and diaphonetic BP is 8 and respiratory rate is 24. The monitor shows the following rhythm. Asses rhythm: shockable. 28. An 80 years old complains of chest pain that begun 1 hour ago. The patient is pale and diaphoretic BP is 60/50 and respiratory rate is 24. The monitor shows the following rhythm: a. Asses rhythm: shockable/ non-shockable/ shocks This is VT WITH pulse, and low BP, so patient is UNSTABLE and needs synchronized CARDIOVERTION (shock to reset the rhythm). It is not like VF\pulseless VT. And for that cases if cardioversion is not working, we can add Amiodarone 150mg in a drip, and crystalloids to correct the low BP. 29.Patient is apnoeic and pulseless. The following is the presenting rhythm. Treatment? à Defibrillation, shock 30. What to do first when the victim is unconscious? a. Access local……. b. Call for help c. Shake the victim’s body  d. Activates emergency services e. Administer two rescue b. Call for help (by the schema) 31. Which of these if you can't give opiods by I.V? YALLA BEITAR (NORDIA) 16A)Capnography is CO2 monitoring in airway gases with the purpose of monitoring of: a)Ventilation and pain level b)Ventilation and metabolism c)Ventilation, circulation and metabolism d)Ventilation and pressure in airway e)Depth of anaesthesia and ventilation 16B) Sepsis is: a)SIRS with required noradrenaline infusion support b)Life threatening organ dysfunction caused by inappropriate organism response to infection c)Increased lactate level d)Presence of fever, leukocytosis and tachycardia e)Drop-off blood pressure caused by fever 17A)Preload of the right heart ventricle is determined by: a.The pressure in vena cava superior-central venous pressure (CVP) b.Heart frequency described by arterial waveform c.Systemic vascular resistance(SVR) d.Minute cardiac output (CO) e.Pulse waveform on SpO2 17B)The simplest recommended examination for assessing of hypovolemia is: a.Measurement of changes in blood pressure during passive leg raising test (PLRT) b.Adminstration of 500ml of crystalloid iv in adult (fluid challenge) c.Measurement changes in arterial pulse pressure during artificial ventilation d.Measurement of changes in blood pressure after starting noradrenaline infusion with rate 0.1 μg/kg/min e. Measurement of changes in blood pressure after starting dobutamine infusion with rate 0.1 μg/kg/min 18A)The following symptoms DON’T belong among typical morphine effects: a.Analgesia, breathing deprivation, nausea, vomitus and sedation b.Vasodilation, histamine release c.Biliary tract spasm, obstipation and urine retention d.Dependence and tolerance e.Artery hypertension, cough and mydriasis (it’s miosis) 18B)Which of the following statement regarding nutrition is WRONG: a. Solution with osmolality more than 900 mosmol/kg should not be administered to peripheral vein- risk of phlebitis b.Solution of 20% lipids should not be administered to peripheral vein c.Minimal duration of artificial nutrition support in severe malnutrition is 7 days d.The sign of malnutrition is weight loss >5 %/3 weeks or >10%/3 months e.Basic energy expenditure is 20-30 kcal/kg/day 19A)Recommended value of VAS(1-10) for controlling pain is: a)More than 4 in chronic pain b)Less than 5 in chronic pain c)More than 5 in acute pain d)Less than 3 in acute pain e)Less than 5 in acute and chronic pain 19B)Which of the following statements is WRONG: a)38 molecules of ATP originate from 1 glucose molecule in aerobic condition and 2 ATP in anaerobic condition b)1 gr carbohydrate produce 4 kcal, I gr of proteins 4kcal and 1 gr of fats 9kcal of energy c)Hyperglycemia is one of the early signs of liver failure d)80% of IgA is produced by Gastrointestinal Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT) e)Hypophoshatemia is a typical sign of refeeding syndrome 20A)Which of the following definitions is WRONG: a)Withholding= refusal or no infusion of the treatment or specific treatment step, no further escalation of the treatment or specific treatment step b)Withdrawing= decision to stop or remove treatment or specific treatment step after it has begun c)Euthanasia= administration of a medication with intentional ending of a patients life d)Assisted suicide = the patient administers the lethal agent themselves with health care member’s assistance e)Double effect= giving miedication for pain relief on one sice can speed up dying process on the other side 20B) Which of the following statements is WRONG: a)Starches,gelatin and dextran agents belong to artificial colloids b)Plasma, albumin and red blood cells belong to nature colloids c)Distributional space for crystalloid is extracellular fluid d)Distributional space for glucose infusion is intravascular one e)Daily water requirement is 30-50 ml/kg/day = 2100-3500ml/70kg/day 26A)Septic shock: a)Does not require noradrenaline administration in hypotension in spite of fluid resuscitation with crystalloids in does 30ml/kg in first 3 hours b)Does not require administration of hydrocortisone in does 200mg/day when noradrenaline support fails to increase blood pressure c)Always require continuous renal replacement treatment (CRRT) d)is a stage of a sepsis characterized with perfusion abnormalities requiring vasopressors support or with metabolic derangement- hyperlactemia e)Requires supportive treatment with erythropoietin 26B)To increase the level of oxygen concentration during artificial ventilation we usually use: a)High-frequency ventilation b)Increase in minute ventilation or frequency of breating c)Increase in inspiratory oxygen concentration (FiO2) and pressure in airway in the end of the expiration(PEEP) d)The level of analgesia and sedation and usage of muscle relaxants e)Administration of red blood cells transfusion 27A)First step of rescuer who found a collapsed person is: a)Call for help b)Confirm safety of the scene c)Shake the victim body d)Activate emergency services e)Administer two rescue breaths 27B)For the quantitative assessment of the level of consciousness we use: a)Visual analogue scale b)Glasgow Coma scale c)Monitoring of Bispectral index d)Guedel’s scheme e)Train of four (TOF) 28A)Adrenaline(Epinephrine) IS NOT indicated in: a)Ventricle fibrillation b)Pulseless ventricle tachycardia c)Atrial fibrillation d)Asystole e)Pulseless electrical activity 28B)The following symptom IS NOT a part of usual presentation of TOXIC reaction following local anaethetic: a)Apnoea and cardiac arrest b)Myoclonic jerks or GM seizures c)Anxiety, behavioral and speech disturbances d)Urticaria/skin rash e)Tinnitus, paraethesia in mouth and tongue 29A)Defibrillation is indicated in: a)Ventricle fibrillation b)A-V block 3rd degree c)Atrial fibrillation d)Asystole e)Pulseless electrical activity 29B)The fastest onset of regional anaesthesia in required area is in: a)Epidural (Peridural) Anaesthesia b)Spinal Anaesthesia c)Foot block d)Axillar block e)Femoral block 30A)Ratio of chest compressions and ventilation in one rescuer is: a)15:2 b)60:3 c)10:1 d)30:2 e)40:20 30B)The following technique doesn’t belong among neuroaxial anaesthesia: a.Epidural anaesthesia b.Caudal block c.Subarachnoid anaesthesia d.Spinal anaesthesia e.Interscalenic block 31A)The most important factor(s) for surviving of an adult in cardiac arrest is/are: a.Chest compression + defibrillation (wrong because we don’t know if is shockable or no) b.Early activation of 155 + adrenaline 1mg/3-5 min c.Chest compression + rescure breaths 30:2 d.Defibrillation + adrenaline/amiodarone e.Warming the patient 31B)The following drugs belong to opoids: a.Vecuronium, propofol, fentanyl b. Propofol, thiopental, metohaxital, ketamine, midazolam c.Fentanyl, alfentanil, sufentanil, remifentanil, morphine d.Suxamethonium (succinylcholine), vecuronium, atracurium, pipecuronium, rocuronium e.Propofol, fentanyl, ketamine 32A)The following DO NOT belong among 4H and 4T: a)Hypoxia, hypothermia, tamponade of the heart, thromboembolism b)Hyperkalemia, hypovolemia, intoxication, tension pneumothorax c)Hypovolemia, hypokalemia,hypothermia, hypoxia d)Haemolysis,tachycardia, trismus, lethargy e)Intoxication, tamponade of the heart, hypovolemia, hypoxia 32B)The main three components of general anaesthesia are: a) Ventilation + Analgesia + Muscle relaxant b)Hypnosis +Analgesia + Monitoring c)Ventilation + Analgesia + Monitoring d)Hypnosis + Analgesia + Muscle relaxant e)Hypnosis + Analgesia + Monitoring 2A) Prof. William Ganz: a) Belongs to pioneers of intravenous anaesthesia in the continent of America b) He co-invented the pulmonary artery catheter and introduced it into medicine c) As a first physician he brought muscle relaxants into the practice d) As a first physician he has been using Swan-Ganz EEG sensor e) He was portrayed as a first physician on USA stamp 2B) The following DOES NOT belong among airway management: a) Chin lift/jaw trust b) Oropharyngeal airway (OP) c) Supraglottic device d) Endotracheal intubation e) Thoracotomy 1A) I.KAIM logo presents vital signs of life like: a) Diuresis, circulation, metabolism b) Breathing, circulation, consciousness c) Oxidation, pH, production of CO2 d) Consumption of O2, production of CO2, metabolism e) Breathing, oxidation, pH 1B) Lethal triad in haemorrhagic shock is: a) Acidosis, coagulopathy, hypothermia b) Bleeding, coma, acidosis c) Hypoxemia, hypercapnia, acidosis d) Hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation e) Alkalosis, coagulopathy, hypoxemia 3A) Indication for admission to ICU is: a) Long lasting operation b) Status post GM epilepsy seizure c) Hydrothorax with pleural drainage d) Post-dural-puncture headache post spinal anaesthesia for Caesarean section e) Vital organs failure 3B) ABCDE approach is meant to be for the staff in: a) HDU b) ICU c) Ambulances and EDs d) Physicians and nurses on the wards e) All above 7A) Laryngeal mask (LMA): a) Insertion does not require usage of muscle relaxant b) Laryngoscope during LMA insertion is hold always in right hand c) Laryngoscope during LMA insertion is hold always in left hand d) It is not possible to connect an usual ventilator to LMA e) It’s cuff needs to be filled with water 7B) Basic life support in child who is unconsciousness and is not breathing we always start with: a) 5 initial breaths followed by chest compressions and two rescue breaths – 30:2 b) Covering the child c) Placing the child to recovery (lateral) position d) Lifting the head up e) Offering a drink to the child 8A) The advantage of tracheostomy is: a) Reduction of death space by 1/3 in comparison with the status before tracheostomy b) Tube needs to be change during every cleaning procedure of tracheostomy c) The resistance in airway is increased by 1/3 d) Is used only for mandatory artificial ventilation e) Is used only as a metallic tube 8B) Atropine is indicated in: a) Asystole b) Bradycardia c) Ventricle fibrillation d) Ventricle tachycardia e) Atrial fibrillation 5A) Esmarch manoeuvre is for: a) Releasing of foreign body from airways b) Opening of airway c) Insertion of ETT (endotracheal tube) d) Insertion of OP (oropharyngeal airway device) e) Prevention of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric content 5B) What is the WRONG statement? a) Electric current passing through the heart muscle depolarise the whole myocardium altogether and allow restoration of normal heart electrical activity b) Attachment electrodes are preferable to sticky ones c) Success of defibrillation depends mainly on the time from the onset of fibrillation to discharge d) Biphasic defibrillators are more efficient than monophasic ones e) Chest compression we disrupt for the shortest possible time 4A) The basic airway manoeuvre is: a) Head tilt (back) and chin lift b) Head tilt (forward) and jaw compression c) Head tilt (back) and jaw compression d) Application of face-mask e) Insertion of LMA (laryngeal mask) 4B) What is the WRONG statement? In advanced life support: a) Adrenaline administration in asystole is immediate b) Adrenaline administration in ventricle fibrillation is after the 3rd unsuccessful discharge c) The dose of adrenaline in adults is 1 mg intravenously d) We don’t use adrenaline in pulseless electrical activity e) We use adrenaline in pulseless ventricle tachycardia 6A) Oropharyngeal airway (OP): a) Usage in ambulance is prohibited b) Is equipment allowing connection of a patient to an artificial ventilation c) Appropriate size is measured by a same side distance between earlobe and labial angle d) During insertion this must be rotated by 90 degrees e) Is always longer than the nasopharyngeal airway for the same patient 6B) In case of iv access failure for drugs administration, the second recommended choice is: a) Endotracheal route b) Intraosseous approach c) Subcutaneous approach d) Via nasal mucosa e) Intra-arterial route  Tae That See nogs BBB 00oz Atwater efforts 2 Tff Zg bT  TT Eos Is  Booboos f f  2 2T Bootstrap re  Iffy iBNF oopf 5 BABE Tt spoogoopso BRESETT BET BoT e a I 2 35  03 m  Bo Bo pope so soooooo.be room d tooth thypmesistanalgesiatmusderelaxautffyggggin BFomtag.dz zgTtT Boffins scour Stas po thoracotomy osseous  mydriasis 5initial rescuebreaths safety ofthe surrounding area as a tetany urticariaIshii radar all atthe above interscalenic spinal  Ags Us men p B I i e gg a u dorestych aware 30 2 40... In the treatment of hypovolaemia in sepsis: - Administration of HES solutions is not recommended -Crystalloids should not be used first - Preference is given to whole blood It is recommended to prefer albumin over crystalloids Dextran is preferred from artificial colloids 39... CRP and PCT values: They are used for differential diagnosis of sepsis -They increase most in fungal lung infection -CRP only increases in infectious inflammation -They increase most in bacterial lung infection - At their normal values, intestinal perforation cannot be excluded 38... Mean blood pressure 65 mmHg: -It represents the pressure beyond which spontaneous diuresis ceases - Invasive pressure measurements need not be used for identification -When treating shock, it is always sufficient to achieve at least this blood pressure -It is considered the minimum at which shock usually starts - The systemic blood pressure is then at least 90 mmHg 37... Stroke volume variation (SVV) principle: - When rising above 15%, the patient is hypervolemic - It is advisable to measure blood pressure with a cuff at 5 min intervals and more frequently -The measurement is more accurate with FiO2 below 0.4 -The patient must not be connected to artificial ventilation during evaluation -It is used to assess the patient's volemia status 36... The possibilities of increasing oxygen supply to tissues are: -Reduce preload of the right ventricle -Reduction of hemoglobin - venesection - Non-invasive ventilation is not suitable - Increase in oxygen saturation Hb -Reduce preload of the left ventricle 35... In a hypovolemic patient it is likely -Lifting the lower limbs increases CO2 excretion through the lungs - Administration of artificial albumin colloid will increase blood pressure -The supply of crystalloids will worsen diuresis - Administration of a loop diuretic will improve kidney function -Full ventilation with PEEP will increase diuresis 34... Citrate Dialysis: It is less effective than heparin dialysis - Fewer dialysis pump pumps are used It uses sodium citrate as an anticoagulant - It is dangerous to use it just after the operation - Do not use calcium chloride 33... Forged diuresis: - It is performed only by furosemide -It is used in all i.v. intoxications Crystalloids must not be used - Must not be used in alcohol poisoning -Supports renal excretion 32... Enterohepatic circulation: -Limits alimentary intoxication It represents the secretion of resorbed substances by the bile into the stomach - Reduces opioid intoxication It represents the excretion of resorbed substances by the bile into the duodenum - Reduces gas intoxication 31... ERAS concept: - It represents a strategy of painlessness in the postoperative period -Based on timely fluid intake after surgery - Expresses perioperative care to improve patient recovery -It is necessary to use an epidural catheter - Uses morphine-based analgesia 30... In respiratory acidosis: -But suddenly, bicarbonate is significantly raised -The patient is hyperventilation -The patient is cyanotic -But at least 1 day, the bicarbonate is significantly elevated -Risk of carbon monoxide 29... PRST Mnemonic: -S expresses tear -ST changes ST segment -P expresses movements -T stands for tremor -He expresses sympathetic nervous system pointers 28... The arrangement of blood vessels and femoral nerve in the inguinal canal is: -Ivan -Nav -IVNA -NIVA tartaric 27... For artificial ventilation: - Increased CO2 elimination can be achieved by reducing minute ventilation -Removing the nasal cavity is replaced by heating and vibrating the mixtures An increase in the amount of oxygen in the blood can be achieved by reducing PEEp -Ventilation pneumonia is always a viral etiology -There are barotrauma 26... BIS Rating: -Use ECG signal to determine -The aim of his investigation is to prevent waking during anesthesia -For painfulness, it can only be detected under general anesthesia -Do not be used in the Caesarean section - Hypotension caused by ephedrine 25... Under epidural anesthesia: -It is possible to perform only less painful procedures on the lower limbs -The Tuohy needle is being used It is possible to use a catheter introduced into a liquor-containing space - After dura mater puncture the risk of PDPH development is up to 50% - A pencil point tip is used 24... Epidural anesthesia: - Uses the administration of a local anesthetic to the subarachnoid space Her hypotension is dealt with by ephedrine - Most often used to treat acute pain - Uses the administration of a local anesthetic to the peridural space -Do not be used in the Caesarean section 23... Spinal anesthesia: - Uses the administration of a local anesthetic to the peridural space -Do not be used in the Caesarean section - Most often used to treat acute pain - Uses the administration of a local anesthetic to the subarachnoid space Her hypotension is dealt with by ephedrine 22... Hypoxia from Dufusion: - Not found in children -It may be caused by a volatile anesthetic on introduction to anesthesia Most often, the route of administration is anesthesia in the form of TIVA - It can't be detected by pulse oximetry - It is a risk to wake up the patient after using N20 21... TCI technology used for intravenous anesthesia: - Used to automatically maintain the calculated level of the administered substance - Do not activate when inhaled anesthetic -Automatically evaluates the depth of anesthesia -The patient may not be controlled for depth of anesthesia - Determines the amount of metabolite i.v. anesthetics in exhaled gas 20... Soda lime in the anesthetic device circuit is used: -For air filtration - To eliminate CO2 - To eliminate moisture - To signal the explosion of an inhaled gas mixture - To determine the depth of anesthesia 19... MAC value given under inhalation anesthesia: It expresses the depth of inhalation anesthesia At 1, sleep is 100% of the number of patients - At 0.5, 50% of patients are already awake It expresses the effect of only a volatile anesthetic even when N20 is administered - Can only be used in adults 18... Endotracheal Tube Obfuscation Cuff: - It should have high volume, low pressure properties - Should be filled with CO2 heated to 37 ° C - It should have low volume, high pressure properties -It should be deployed supraglotically -It should be filled with air heated to 37 ° C 17... Endotracheal tube: -The size number represents the length - Must be of transparent material - The control balloon must be filled before inserting it between the vocal cords -The size number represents the inner diameter -The size number represents the outer diameter 16... Premedication before surgery: - Must contain analgesic - Must have anxiolytic effect -It must always be given - Must have parasympathicolytic effect -In principle, it is administered per os 15... The duration of pre-operative fasting is recommended before planned procedures: - At least 6 hours after the last reception per os -2 hours after clear fluids and 6 hours after solid food -4 hours after clear fluids and 6 hours after solid food -For breast milk 6 hours as with other meals - Always from dinner all night 14... ASA pre-hysterectomy for myoma in an otherwise healthy woman is: -ASA 1 -ASA 3A -ASA 2A -ASA 5E -ASA 1E  13... According to the data in the lecture, the lowest permissible values of hemoglobin before surgery: -140 g / l for craniocerebral injuries -100 g / l in all patients -80 mmHg just prior to transfusion -80 g / l in cardiovascular and lung diseases with ASA 3-4 -70 g / l in young fit patients 12... The preload of the right ventricle of the heart is most determined by: Heart rate detected on the arterial curve -Minute heart volume (CO) -Hollow vein pressure - central venous pressure (CVP) -System vascular resistance (SVR) -Pulse curve on SpO2 11... Capnography is the monitoring of CO2 in the respiratory gases and is used mainly to monitor: -Ventilation and airway pressure -Ventilation and degree of pain - Depth of anesthesia and ventilation -Ventilation and metabolism -Ventilation, blood circulation and metabolism 10... Typical effects of morphine do not include: -Tolerance and habit -Basal pathway, constipation and urinary retention -Vasodilatation, histamine release -Analgesia, respiratory depression, nausea, vomiting and sedation - Arterial hypertension, cough and mydriasis 9... In artificial ventilation, the following are most commonly used to increase the oxygen concentration in the blood: - Degree of analgosedation and administration of muscle relaxants -High frequency ventilation -Submission of blood transfusion -Increase inspiratory oxygen concentration and airway pressure at the end of exhalation -Increase respiratory rate and minute ventilation 8... Local anesthetics easily interrupt the transmission of excitement in the thinnest LV. Threads: -A gamma and B -A gamma and A beta -A beta and B -A delta and C -A alpha and A beta 7... In a toxic reaction following the administration of local anesthetics, there is usually no following: - Whistling in the ears, tingling around the mouth and tongue -Urtika - Muscle twitches or GM cramps - Anxiety, behavior disorder and speech -Stopping breathing and blood circulation 6... Something in the sense of PDPH (headache) most often occurs after? -Femoral block -Spinal anesthesia -Foot block -Poplitální blok -Axillar blokum 5. What presents the least risk of post-operative vomiting: - peripheral blocks - female gender - non-smoking - ANSWER IS Missing - ANSWER IS Missing 4. The advantage of tracheostomy is: - Reduction of dead space by 1/3 - the tube must be replaced during each cleaning - Resistance to breathing. Travels is increased by 1/3 - used only for long-term UPV 32. the main components of general anesthesia are: a.ventilation, analgesia muscle relaxants b hypnosis, analgesia, monitoring c ventilation analgesia monitoring d hypnosis, analgesia muscle relaxants e hypnosis analgesia monitoring 29.defibrilation is indicated in A ventricle fibrillation B a-v block 3 degree C atrial fibrillation D asystole E pulseless electrical activity - only a metal pipe is used 3. Oral Duct: - use in the ambulance is prohibited - is a device that can be connected to artificial ventilation - the appropriate size is determined by the distance from the earlobe to the mouthpiece - must be rotated through 90 ° during insertion - is always longer than nasopharyngealny airborne 2. The Esmarch maneuver is: - releasing the foreign body from the airways - airway opening - insertion of the endotracheal cannula - introduction of oropharyngeal (some instrument) - prevention of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents October 16 - Anesthesiology Day - CORRECT ANSWER - publicly demonstrated ether surgery