TEAS 7 Exam Set 1,2,3 - PDF

ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 SET 1 READING THE Farallon Island, or devils Teeth, as they are referred to by sailors, area group of small islands with rocky, barren terrain and treacherous, 48 km (30 miles) off the coast of San Francisco, California although the islands are small, with a combined t...

ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 SET 1 READING THE Farallon Island, or devils Teeth, as they are referred to by sailors, area group of small islands with rocky, barren terrain and treacherous, 48 km (30 miles) off the coast of San Francisco, California although the islands are small, with a combined total land area of 0.41km squared (0.16 square miles), they are positioned in a major ocean current, which enables them to house dense populations of birds, rodents seals, and other water mammals. The abundance of wildlife first attracted Russian and American fur traders in the early 1800s, who then nearly eliminated the seal population in the area. The islands then became an agricultural resource for San Francisco during the gold rush era when egg companies began harvesting bird eggs on the islands. In 1863, violence between viral egg companies erupted on the islands (known as the Egg War") which inadvertently attracted national attention and provoked lawmakers to pass legislation to protect and rehabilitate the island's natural ecosystem. In 1881, an executive order was passed that decreed egging illegal on the Farallon's. This ended private enterprises on the islands was reinforced in 1909 when President Theodore Roosevelt created the Farallon Reservation to restore human access and preserve that northern island, and over time many of the island original inhabitants have returned. The Farallon's are now home to the world's largest population of western gull. Seals have returned, as well as otters and sea lions, which in turn attracts great white sharks. The combination of sharks, underwater currents, and jagged coastline are probably what earned the Farallon's their nickname "Devil's Teeth," though it hasn't stopped a few adventurous people from swimming. Four people have completed the 30-mile swim from the islands to San Francisco; the fastest person completed the journey in 14 hours. Question 1: Which one of the following supports the detail that the Farallon Islands are a natural home to many animals? Option A: Ocean currents Option B: Human presence Option C: Lush landscape Option D: Abundant land Correct Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Ocean currents.' The passage mentions that the islands are positioned in a major ocean current, enabling them to house dense populations of birds, rodents, seals, and other water mammals. This indicates that the ocean currents play a significant role in supporting the diverse wildlife on the Farallon Islands. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as human presence, lush landscape, and abundant land are not highlighted as factors contributing to the natural habitat of animals on the islands.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 THE Farallon Island, or devils Teeth, as they are referred to by sailors, area group of small islands with rocky, barren terrain and treacherous, 48 km (30 miles) off the coast of San Francisco, California although the islands are small, with a combined total land area of 0.41km squared (0.16 square miles), they are positioned in a major ocean current, which enables them to house dense populations of birds, rodents seals, and other water mammals. The abundance of wildlife first attracted Russian and American fur traders in the early 1800s, who then nearly eliminated the seal population in the area. The islands then became an agricultural resource for San Francisco during the gold rush era when egg companies began harvesting bird eggs on the islands. In 1863, violence between viral egg companies erupted on the islands (known as the Egg War") which inadvertently attracted national attention and provoked lawmakers to pass legislation to protect and rehabilitate the island's natural ecosystem. In 1881, an executive order was passed that decreed egging illegal on the Farallon's. This ended private enterprises on the islands was reinforced in 1909 when President Theodore Roosevelt created the Farallon Reservation to restore human access and preserve that northern island, and over time many of the island original inhabitants have returned. The Farallon's are now home to the world's largest population of western gull. Seals have returned, as well as otters and sea lions, which in turn attracts great white sharks. The combination of sharks, underwater currents, and jagged coastline are probably what earned the Farallon's their nickname "Devil's Teeth," though it hasn't stopped a few adventurous people from swimming. Four people have completed the 30-mile swim from the islands to San Francisco; the fastest person completed the journey in 14 hours. Question 2: What is the main idea of the passage? Option A: The Farallon Islands are currently used as an agricultural resource for San Francisco. Option B: The Farallon Islands are a dedicated sanctuary for western gulls. Option C: Humans disrupted the ecosystem of the Farallon Islands and played a role in restoring it. Option D: The ecosystem of the Farallon Islands has always been unstable. Correct Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C. The passage discusses how human activities, such as fur trading and egg harvesting, disrupted the ecosystem of the Farallon Islands in the early 1800s. This disruption led to the near elimination of seals and other wildlife populations. However, due to national attention and legislative action, efforts were made to protect and rehabilitate the island's natural ecosystem. The passage highlights the restoration efforts that took place over time, showcasing how humans played a role in both disrupting and restoring the ecosystem of the Farallon Islands. Question 3: Which of the following organizations might the author of this article most closely associate with?  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option A: A group that studies marine mammal behavior Option B: A nature conservancy group Option C: An educational special interest group Option D: A group that supports first-time novelists Correct Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B: A nature conservancy group. The passage focuses on the history of the Farallon Islands, the conservation efforts to protect the wildlife and ecosystem, and the restoration of the natural habitat. References to the protection of wildlife, legislation to preserve the islands' ecosystem, and the return of original inhabitants highlight a strong association with a nature conservancy group that works towards preserving and rehabilitating natural environments. Options A, C, and D are not directly related to the conservation and preservation efforts described in the passage. Question 4: Which of the following is a credible source that the author might have consulted to help write the article? Option A: An 1890 cartographer's notes on efforts to map Northern California's coastline Option B: A nutritionist's scholarly journal article on gold rush miner diets Option C: A copy of a story published by the Fish and Wildlife Service, originally written by a former refuge manager Option D: A copy of a story published by the Fish and Wildlife Service, originally written by a former refuge manager Correct Answer: D Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer as it suggests consulting a story published by the Fish and Wildlife Service, originally written by a former refuge manager. This source would provide reliable information on the Farallon Islands' natural ecosystem, wildlife conservation efforts, and historical context. The Fish and Wildlife Service is a reputable organization known for its expertise in wildlife management and conservation, making their publications a credible source for an article on the Farallon Islands. Options A and B are less relevant to the topic and would not offer in-depth insights into the specific subject matter discussed in the article. Question 5: Which of the following best describes the meaning of the word 'inadvertently' as used in the second paragraph?  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option A: accidentally Option B: intentionally Option C: approximately Option D: quickly Correct Answer: A Rationale: The word 'inadvertently' means something done accidentally or unintentionally. In the context of the passage, the violence between rival egg companies erupted on the islands, attracting national attention and provoking lawmakers to pass legislation to protect and rehabilitate the island's natural ecosystem. The word 'inadvertently' signifies that the attention and legislation were not the intended outcomes of the conflict but rather happened unintentionally. Therefore, the correct answer is 'accidentally.' Question 6: Which of the following pieces of evidence does the author use to speculate why the Farallon Islands are called 'The Devil's Teeth'? Option A: The islands have sharks, choppy currents, and a jagged coastline. Option B: Swimming from San Francisco to the islands is very challenging. Option C: In 1863, violence broke out on the islands during a historical event. Option D: They have always been called that by sailors who traveled past them. Correct Answer: A Rationale: The author mentions that the Farallon Islands are home to sharks, otters, sea lions, and seals, which attract great white sharks. Additionally, the combination of sharks, underwater currents, and a jagged coastline are probably what earned the islands the nickname 'Devil's Teeth.' This evidence supports choice A, as it directly links the presence of sharks, choppy currents, and a jagged coastline to the speculated reason behind the islands' nickname. It can be difficult to write sometimes, especially if you are creating something brand new. It is even harder when you must write while following certain rules. Some writers thrive when there are limits, like sonnets or elegies; you can't just throw some words on the page and call it a haiku. On the other hand, some successful poets really enjoy breaking the rules. They will refuse to use the rules, if you can just break them and still so then what good are the rules, if you can just break them and still succeed? That doesn't make sense. I guess that is why I am not a poet. Question 7:  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 From where is the author most likely drawing their statements in the passage? Option A: The writer's own knowledge about writing Option B: The archive of recorded poetry and literature Option C: The writer's local university library Option D: The online Writing Lab at Purdue University Correct Answer: A Rationale: The author's statements in the passage reflect personal opinions and observations about writing and poetry. The passage does not refer to specific resources or external sources like a poetry archive, a university library, or an online writing lab. The author discusses the challenges and preferences of writers, indicating that the statements are based on the author's own experiences and thoughts. Therefore, the most likely source for the author's statements is their own knowledge about writing. Question 8: Based on the author's supports and evidence, which of the following is a valid evaluation of the paragraph? Option A: It is a logical argument, proving that it is impossible to write well. Option B: It is part of an essay discussing how poets develop their craft. Option C: It is a scholarly analysis on the business of being a good writer. Option D: It is an entertaining piece based on personal bias and opinion. Correct Answer: D Rationale: The paragraph reflects a personal perspective on writing styles and rules. The author discusses the challenges and preferences of writers, highlighting the contrast between those who adhere to rules and those who break them. The final statement, 'That doesn't make sense. I guess that is why I am not a poet,' indicates a personal bias and opinion, suggesting that the text is more of an entertaining piece rather than a logical argument, a scholarly analysis, or a part of an academic essay. Hey there, Kitchen Utensil aficionados! It's Bob Thurman again, bringing you a brand-new piece of equipment for your home food station! Are you tired of your blocks of premium aged cheddar getting all crumbly when you try to slice them? Don't you hate leaving your fingerprints in that hard stick of butter? Well, worry no more! From the company that brought you the SmackDice comes the dairy McGrabs! You no longer have to worry about your film, sweaty grip destroying your cheeses or you butters. All you have to do is slip on our pated heat-deflecting mitten, complete with a plastic-  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 grip palm pad, and slice you smooth dairy products with no threat of them melting or crumbling from your body heat! Question 9: What is the primary purpose of this infomercial? Option A: To explain how the dairy McGrabs work. Option B: To entertain the audience with enthusiastic rhetoric. Option C: To address common issues with dairy grips. Option D: Not to address common issues with dairy grips. Correct Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. The primary purpose of this infomercial is to explain how the dairy McGrabs work. It focuses on showcasing the features and benefits of the product, such as preventing cheeses and butters from melting or crumbling due to body heat. The infomercial aims to inform the audience about the functionality of the product rather than entertaining them with enthusiastic rhetoric or addressing frustrations with common dairy grips. Question 10: Which one of the following options best describes how Thurman supports his argument? Option A: By addressing his audience at just the right moment Option B: By appealing to a shared sense of community and values Option C: By evoking feelings of annoyance and relief Option D: By presenting evidence and logical explanations Correct Answer: C Rationale: Thurman supports his argument by evoking feelings of annoyance and relief. He addresses common problems the audience may face with cutting cheese and butter, highlighting the frustration (annoyance) and then offering a solution that alleviates this frustration (relief). This emotional appeal is designed to resonate with the audience's experiences and create a sense of empathy and connection, making them more likely to consider the product being promoted. Studies that more than 9 billion metric tons of plastic have been produced since 1950, more than four times the volume of Mt. Everest, and about 75% of it remains in Landfills or has entered the environment as pollution. As material, plastic has many advantages. However, it is difficult to recycle because popular single use and convenience items, such as packaging and water bottles are ;low in  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 quality and value when recycled. part of the magic of plastics is that it seemingly lasts forever. but when it cannot be re-used efficiently, it leads to stark realities like an island of plastic, twice the size of Texas, floating in the pacific ocean. plastic is consumed by fish and birds an is seeping into the air, water and our food. Question 11: Based on the evidence from the passage, which of the following is the most likely inference? Option A: If we increased production of single-use plastic packaging, more plastic would be recycled. Option B: Plastic makes life convenient, but its use has so many drawbacks that its use should be reduced. Option C: The best thing about plastic is that it is recyclable; a renewable resource, most of the plastic that has been produced has been recycled. Option D: A renewable resource, most of the plastic that has been recycled. Correct Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B because the passage highlights the negative impact of plastic on the environment, stating that a significant amount of plastic remains in landfills or has become pollution. It mentions the challenges in recycling plastic due to its low quality when recycled and how it leads to environmental issues like a large island of plastic in the ocean. Therefore, the most likely inference is that while plastic is convenient, its negative consequences outweigh its benefits, suggesting that its use should be reduced to mitigate environmental harm. In 1932, the Australian government lost war against the native emu population. the operation that has since become known as great emu war began as an initiative to combat overpopulation of the crop-destroying birds invading farmland around Chandler and Walgooglan. The initial assault on the flightless avian began November 2 and lasted six days before the military personnel withdrew. efforts resumed on November 12, but by early December, the feathered foes had adopted guerrilla tactics against the targeted wheat fields, rendering military involvement largely ineffective. The Australian government declined further involvement with the ongoing conflict in 1934, 1943, and 1948, despite repeated pleas for assistance by the farmers in the area. Question 12: Which of the following statements is a logical conclusion based on this report? Option A: After losing the support of the Australian government, farmers engaged in guerrilla warfare to combat the emus in 1934, 1943, and 1948. Option B: From 1932 to 1948, the Australian government battled emus on behalf of farmers. After losing the Great Emu War in 1932.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option C: The Australian government provided limited military support to farmers in 1934, 1943, and 1948. Option D: Emus continued to destroy crops in the area through the 1930s and 1940s. Correct Answer: D Rationale: The report details the unsuccessful attempts by the Australian government to combat the emu population from 1932. Despite military involvement in the Great Emu War, the emus adapted guerrilla tactics, rendering the efforts largely ineffective. The government declined further involvement with the ongoing conflict in 1934, 1943, and 1948. Therefore, the logical conclusion based on this report is that emus continued to destroy crops in the area through the 1930s and 1940s, as there is no indication of successful eradication or control of the emu population during this period. Question 13: Which of the following words is a synonym for 'avian' in this passage? Option A: aircraft Option B: aerial Option C: bird Option D: flying Correct Answer: C Rationale: In this context, 'avian' refers to birds. A synonym for 'avian' would be 'bird,' as both terms refer to winged, feathered creatures. 'Aircraft' (choice A) refers to machines that fly, 'aerial' (choice B) refers to things in the air or the sky, and 'flying' (choice D) describes the action of moving through the air. However, 'bird' is the most suitable synonym for 'avian' in this context. You might think the largest animal on earth is the blue whale, and you would be correct. Blue whales can reach can reach a length of 98 ft long can weigh as much as 198 tons. however, in the blue Mountains of eastern Oregon, there is an organism currently covering an area of 3 square miles and estimated to weigh at least 7 500 tons: the Armillaria Ostayae fungus, Though A. Ostoyae is found in other places, such as Michigan and Germany, only Oregon's fungus has grown to such an enormous size. The humongous fungus is estimated to be anywhere from 2000 to 8000 years old, and it continues to grow by 1 to 3 feet every year. Question 14: What is the main purpose of the passage? Option A: To entertain  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option B: To inform Option C: To describe Option D: To persuade Correct Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: To inform.' The passage presents factual information about the Armillaria Ostoyae fungus, its characteristics, and its unique features in Oregon. It aims to educate readers about this remarkable organism and its impressive size and age. There is no attempt to entertain, persuade, or solely describe the fungus without providing informative content, making 'to inform' the most suitable purpose of the passage. You might think the largest animal on earth is the blue whale, and you would be correct. Blue whales can reach can reach a length of 98 ft long can weigh as much as 198 tons. however, in the blue Mountains of eastern Oregon, there is an organism currently covering an area of 3 square miles and estimated to weigh at least 7 500 tons: the Armillaria ostayae fungus, Though A. ostoyae is found in other places, such as Michigan and Germany, only Oregon's fungus has grown to such an enormous size. The humongous fungus is estimated to be anywhere from 2000 to 8000 years old, and it continues to grow by 1 to 3 feet every year. Question 15: Which of the following best describes the theme of the report? Option A: Nature as beauty Option B: Extraordinary natural phenomena Option C: Humankind versus nature Option D: Hierarchy in nature Correct Answer: B Rationale: The theme of the report is focused on the extraordinary natural phenomena, specifically highlighting the immense size and age of the Armillaria ostoyae fungus in Oregon. The report emphasizes the exceptional characteristics of this fungus, such as its massive size, estimated age, and continuous growth, showcasing it as an extraordinary natural phenomenon. Therefore, the most suitable choice that encapsulates the essence of the report is 'B: Extraordinary natural phenomena'. Bessie Coleman, the first civilian licensed black pilot in the world, was born in 1892 to sharecroppers in Texas, where she attended a segregated school and worked with her family in the cotton fields. She dreamed of becoming a pilot but no flight school in America would accept her, so she moved to France to earn her pilot's license. When she returned to the U.S, she wanted to open a flight school for Black students. She became a stunt flier and performance for paying audiences, which she insisted be desegregated. Following her death in a plane crash in 1926, the Bessie Coleman Aero  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Club was established in Los Angeles in 1929. She was inducted into the National Aviation Hall of Fame in 2006 Question 16: Which of the following statements correctly identifies the sequence of events in the reading? Option A: After life as a sharecropper, Bessie Coleman raised money as a stunt pilot to attend flight school in France. Option B: Bessie Coleman's parents were sharecroppers who sent her to France to become a pilot, after which she returned and opened a flight school. Option C: Bessie Coleman was a pilot, then a sharecropper, who lived in France, where she was inducted into the National Aviation Hall of Fame. Option D: Born to a sharecropper, Bessie Coleman moved to France to take flight training and then returned to the United States as a stunt pilot. Correct Answer: D Rationale: The correct sequence of events in Bessie Coleman's life, as described in the extract, is that she was born to sharecroppers in Texas, moved to France to earn her pilot's license, and then returned to the U.S as a stunt pilot. Choice D accurately reflects this sequence. Bessie Coleman did not raise money as a stunt pilot to attend flight school in France (Choice A), she was not sent to France by her parents as a child to become a pilot and then open a flight school (Choice B), and she was not a pilot before being a sharecropper and living in France (Choice C). Therefore, Choice D is the correct answer. Don't Look Back Now is the story of Keisha (Joy Taylor) a woman who has moved across the country to escape her creepy ex-boyfriend stalker, Tom (Kevin Highsmith) however, mysterious things keep happening to the people in Keisha's life- she got a secret that will make anyone coming to harm her regret it - especially tom this thriller is an exciting roller coaster that constantly keeps the audience guessing. director Juliette Che knows exactly how to manipulate the camera to capture every shadow and peripheral movement. keeping the viewer on edge. the close-up shots feel claustrophobic like the perspective is skewed. for another movie, this might be annoying. but for this one, it helps put the viewer in Keisha's suspicious shoes very well. with a running time of 98 minutes, the pacing is quick and efficient, and Cho uses cinematography deftly to show the quick and jerky passage of time from Keisha's perspective. The performance are rocks solid all the way through joy Taylor is brittle and violent simmering below the surface with rage. you can see the toll this stalking experience has had on her in every twitch of her eye and clench of her jaw. the strength she displays once the film shifts into the darker, triumphant second act is a wonder to behold. Kevin Highsmith gives off just the right vibe of charming and sinister as Tom, effortlessly shifting his enter performance between sweet and suddenly dangerous. This is a tense thrill ride that will not disappoint fans of Joy Taylor or this genre general you can find don't look back now at the Main Street Metroplex 12 and the movie Palace 20 starting Friday. Question 17:  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Which sentence best summarizes the second paragraph of the passage? Option A: The direction and cinematography are key elements in creating the film's suspenseful tone. Option B: The film mostly occurs in darkness, emphasizing the significance of lighting and camera angles. Option C: Close-up shots play a crucial role in revealing a character's state of mind. Option D: Joy Taylor's performance evokes sympathy towards her character, Keisha. Correct Answer: A Rationale: The second paragraph emphasizes the importance of the director's (Juliette Che) manipulation of the camera and cinematography in creating a suspenseful tone in the film. The passage mentions how the director knows how to capture every shadow and peripheral movement, keeping the audience on edge. It also highlights the use of close-up shots to make the viewer feel claustrophobic and put them in Keisha's suspicious shoes. Therefore, choice A, 'The direction and cinematography are key elements in creating the film's suspenseful tone,' accurately summarizes the second paragraph. Question 18: What conclusion could a reader make from this passage? Option A: Juliette Che is an experienced director. Option B: There is a big twist in the second half of the movie. Option C: The film has a sad ending. Option D: Tom is unable to protect Keisha from her stalker. Correct Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'There is a big twist in the second half of the movie.' The passage describes the film 'Don't Look Back Now' as a thriller that constantly keeps the audience guessing, with a dark and triumphant second act. The performance of the characters, particularly Keisha and Tom, is highlighted for creating tension and suspense. The passage suggests that there is a significant plot development or twist in the second half of the movie, making option B the most appropriate conclusion that a reader could draw from the provided text. Don't Look Back Now is the story of Keisha (Joy Taylor) a woman who has moved across the country to escape her creepy ex-boyfriend stalker, Tom (Kevin Highsmith) however, mysterious things keep happening to the people in Keisha's life- she got a secret that will make anyone coming to harm her regret it - especially tom this thriller is an exciting roller coaster that constantly keeps the audience  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 guessing. Director Juliette Che knows exactly how to manipulate the camera to capture every shadow and peripheral movement. Keeping the viewer on edge. The close-up shots feel claustrophobic like the perspective is skewed. For another movie, this might be annoying. However, for this one, it helps put the viewer in Keisha's suspicious shoes very well. With a running time of 98 minutes, the pacing is quick and efficient, and Cho uses cinematography deftly to show the quick and jerky passage of time from Keisha's perspective. The performance are rocks solid all the way through joy Taylor is brittle and violent simmering below the surface with rage. you can see the toll this stalking experience has had on her in every twitch of her eye and clench of her jaw. the strength she displays once the film shifts into the darker, triumphant second act is a wonder to behold. Kevin Highsmith gives off just the right vibe of charming and sinister as Tom, effortlessly shifting his enter performance between sweet and suddenly dangerous. This is a tense thrill ride that will not disappoint fans of Joy Taylor or this genre general you can find don't look back now at the Main Street Metroplex 12 and the movie Palace 20 starting Friday. Question 19: Which of the following information from the passage contains an opinion? Option A: Starting Friday, the movie will be showing at the Main Street Metroplex 12 and the Movie Palace 20. Option B: Juliette Che's close-up shots make the viewer feel claustrophobic and frightened. Option C: The movie, starring Joy Taylor and Kevin Highsmith, lasts a little longer than an hour and a half. Option D: The plot of the movie is about a woman who has moved across the country to escape her boyfriend. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Choice B contains an opinion because it expresses a subjective viewpoint about Juliette Che's close-up shots making the viewer feel claustrophobic and frightened. This statement reflects the personal interpretation or feeling of the individual making the statement, rather than presenting a factual detail. The other options, A, C, and D, provide factual information such as the movie showtimes, duration, and the plot, without injecting any personal perspective or judgment. Question 20: Which of the following sentences from the passage presents a fact? Option A: You can see the toll this stalking experience has had on her in every twitch of her eye and clench of her jaw. Option B: With a running time of 98 minutes, the pacing is quick and efficient.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option C: This is a tense thrill ride that will not disappoint fans of Joy Taylor or this genre in general. Option D: The close-up shots feel claustrophobic, like the perspective is skewed. Correct Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B because it presents a verifiable piece of information about the movie, stating its running time as 98 minutes and describing the pacing as quick and efficient. This is a fact that can be objectively confirmed. In contrast, choices A, C, and D express opinions or subjective interpretations rather than factual statements. Therefore, option B is the only sentence that includes a fact in the passage. Question 21: In which of the following genres would Don't Look Back Now most likely be classified? Option A: Action-Adventure Option B: Drama Option C: Romance Option D: Suspense Correct Answer: D Rationale: Don't Look Back Now, as described in the extract, is a thriller that keeps the audience guessing with mysterious occurrences and a sense of constant tension. The narrative revolves around a woman trying to escape her stalker ex-boyfriend, portraying a dark and suspenseful atmosphere. The director's skillful camera work and the intense performances contribute to creating a thriller that grips the viewer. Hence, the most suitable genre for this movie would be 'Suspense,' making choice D the correct answer. On February 2 of each year, the United States observes the unusual holiday of Groundhog Day of hope that winter is over and spring is beginning. this tradition has been officially observed in the US since the 1800s and is believed to have developed from European folk traditions in which a bear, fox badger or even hedgehog would serve as the symbolic meteorologist, although other cultures and towns observe Groundhog Day ( or something similar) the town of Punxsutawney, Pennsylvania takes special pride in being home to the one true forecasting groundhog, Punxsutawney Phil. At the turn of the twentieth century, townspeople formed the Punxsutawney GroundHog Day. Over the years, these events have come to include a scavenger hunt, a talent show, and a ball. Legend has it that on Groundhog Day official weather forecasting grounding awakens from hibernation and comes out of his burrow to look for his shadow. If he sees his shadow, six more weeks of winter are to come, and Punxsutawney Phill takes this as a sign that spring has arrived, and he remains above ground. of course, common sense tells us that February 2 is too early for spring to begin and that while humans might learn, they are unlikely to act on their instincts based on a schedule set by the Gregorian Calendar, nevertheless, a visit to Pennsylvania to see Punxsutawney Phil and all of the fun he inspires each year might just provide the touch of hope needed to reach the end of writer.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Question 22: Which of the following pairs of search terms entered into a search engine with the phrase 'Groundhog Day' is likely to produce information about the origin of Groundhog Day? Option A: History and folklore Option B: Holiday and festivities Option C: Habitat and diet Option D: Weather and farming Correct Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: History and folklore.' When researching the origin of Groundhog Day, terms related to history and folklore are likely to yield information about the traditions, beliefs, and historical background associated with the holiday. In this context, understanding the historical and folkloric aspects of Groundhog Day can shed light on how and why the tradition originated and evolved over time. Terms like 'holiday and festivities' (choice B) may focus more on the celebration aspects, 'habitat and diet' (choice C) on the animal itself, and 'weather and farming' (choice D) on related but different topics, making them less relevant to uncovering the origin of Groundhog Day. Question 23: Which of the following evidence from the passage supports the inference that Groundhog Day is an entertaining tradition? Option A: On February 2 of each year, the United States observes the unusual holiday of Groundhog Day, a day of hope that winter is over and spring is beginning. Legend has it that on Groundhog Day. Option B: The official weather forecasting groundhog awakens from hibernation and comes out of his burrow to look for his shadow. Option C: Over the years, these events have come to include a scavenger hunt, a talent show, and a ball. Option D: This tradition has been officially observed in the U.S since the 1800s and is believed to have developed from European Folk Traditions. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Choice C provides evidence that Groundhog Day is an entertaining tradition as it mentions the addition of activities like a scavenger hunt, a talent show, and a ball over the years. These events are typically associated with entertainment and fun, indicating that Groundhog Day has evolved into a festive and enjoyable celebration. Choices A, B, and D do  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 not directly support the inference that Groundhog Day is entertaining; rather, they provide background information about the holiday's origins, rituals, and historical significance. Grandma Harry 30 minutes Cookies/Desserts Makes 1 Dozen 1 egg white 3/4 sugar 1 cup peanut Vanilla 1/2 cup flour Beat egg white until foamy. Stir in sugar, beat again until stiff peaks form. gently fold in peanut butter and vanilla. Add flour in small increments until dough forms. Chill dough for at least 2 hours. rolls into ball, Roll in sugar, press down with a fork, and bake at 350 degrees F for 10 to 12 minutes. let cool on cookie sheet. these are very fragile. Question 24: Which of the following statements is true? Option A: When beating the eggs and sugar, you shouldn't stop until stiff peaks form. Option B: After adding flour, the cookies are baked for 10 to 12 minutes. Option C: The egg white and vanilla are beaten together in a bowl. Option D: Each ball of dough must be pressed down with a fork before baking. Correct Answer: D Rationale: In the given recipe, the step that requires each ball of dough to be pressed down with a fork before baking is essential to create the classic crisscross pattern on the cookies. This step helps the cookies bake more evenly and also gives them a traditional appearance. The other statements are incorrect based on the provided recipe instructions. When beating the egg white and sugar, the goal is to reach stiff peaks, not soft peaks. After adding flour, the dough is chilled before being rolled into balls and baked for 10 to 12 minutes. The egg white and sugar are beaten first, followed by the addition of peanut butter and vanilla, not all ingredients together in the bowl. Question 25: Which conclusion can be drawn from the passage? Option A: The cookies made from this recipe would be good to serve at a large party. Option B: The cookies made with this recipe are especially good for midnight snacks. Option C: The cookies made with this recipe would be good to send to college students. Option D: The cookies made with this recipe may have been handed down in a family. Correct Answer: D Rationale: The passage mentions Grandma Harry and provides a detailed recipe for making cookies. The reference to Grandma Harry implies a familial connection, suggesting that the recipe may have been passed down in a family from generation to generation. This  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 conclusion is supported by the traditional nature of the recipe and the absence of any indication that it is specifically suited for parties, midnight snacks, or college students. Question 26: Which of the following statements about the passage is true? Option A: These cookies can be baked in a microwave oven. Option B: Folding in peanut butter can be done by hand. Option C: Beating egg whites involves stirring them vigorously. Option D: These cookies should be cooled on a cookie sheet. Correct Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C. Beating egg whites involves stirring them vigorously until they form stiff peaks, which is a crucial step in making these cookies. The other statements are incorrect. A: Cookies should be baked in an oven, not a microwave. B: Folding in peanut butter can be easily done manually without the need for an electric appliance. D: The instructions specifically mention cooling the cookies on a cookie sheet, not a baking rack. Question 27: Considering that the high school football team's equipment is missing, which of the following pieces of evidence suggests what happened to the equipment? Option A: Many of the players' parents have raised concerns over the potential for head injuries in contact football. Option B: The equipment has failed a recent safety inspection. Option C: The football team often exchanged pranks with their biggest rival, a high school team from the next town. Option D: The school board has instituted budget cuts to the football program. Correct Answer: C Rationale: The most plausible explanation for the missing equipment could be related to a prank exchange between the football team and their rival team from the neighboring town. Since the equipment is missing and there is a history of pranks between the teams, it is likely that this rivalry led to the disappearance of the equipment. The other options, such as parents' concerns about head injuries, failed safety inspection, or budget cuts, do not directly relate to the sudden disappearance of the equipment. Question 28:  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Which of the following is the best source to consult for information about the famous Jazz Saxophonist Charlie 'Yardbird' Parker's childhood in Kansas City in the 1940s? Option A: The 'ARTS' section of the 1940 issue of a Kansas City newspaper Option B: Photographs of Jazz Clubs in Kansas City from 1941 Option C: A greatest hits album of Charlie Parker's most popular songs Option D: A published magazine interview with Charlie Parker Correct Answer: D Rationale: The best source to consult for information about Charlie 'Yardbird' Parker's childhood in Kansas City in the 1940s would be a published magazine interview with him. This source is likely to provide firsthand insights and details about his life and experiences during that time, offering more personalized and accurate information compared to other options like general newspaper sections, photographs of Jazz Clubs, or greatest hits albums. Question 29: Which of the following areas of a textbook includes supplemental materials and additional information to the text? Option A: Index Option B: Bibliography Option C: Appendix Option D: Glossary Correct Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is C, Appendix. An appendix in a textbook includes supplemental materials and additional information to the main text. It usually contains data, charts, graphs, images, or detailed explanations that support the content provided in the main body of the text. Appendices are typically located at the end of the book and are referenced within the text for further elaboration or clarification. Question 30: Which of the phrases on the label serves as a subheading? Option A: Trans fat Option B: Nutrition Facts  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option C: Amount per Serving Option D: Serving Per container Correct Answer: C Rationale: A subheading is a secondary heading that provides more specific information under a main heading. In this case, 'Amount per Serving' is a subheading because it gives details about the serving size, while the other options are either main headings or information categories on a nutrition label. 'Trans fat' and 'Serving Per container' are specific details and 'Nutrition Facts' is the overall category of information provided on the label. Basic breadmaking steps: first, the ingredients are mixed and kneaded to create a smooth, springy dough. Next comes the first rising stage, or bulk fermentation. The once-fermented dough is then cut and shaped before a second rising step, called proofing. This can take as little as an hour or as long as several hours. finally, the proofed dough is baked until a crispy golden crust forms and the interior is cooked through. Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following phrases clarifies the order of the steps in basic breadmaking? Option A: as little as an hour Option B: until a crispy golden crust forms Option C: once-fermented dough is then cut Option D: To create a smooth, springy dough Correct Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: once-fermented dough is then cut' because it specifies a step that occurs after the first rising stage, which is the bulk fermentation. Cutting and shaping the once-fermented dough comes before the second rising step, known as proofing, effectively clarifying the order of the breadmaking process as outlined in the passage. copy editor needed for a new corporate magazine. All applicants must have four years of editorial experience. AA college degree in journalism or English is required. The job requires full-time hours with competitive benefits offered. the starting salary is $30, 0000 per year. Contact Human Resources at 555-5555 to apply. Question 32: Based on the employment advertisement above, which of the following applicants could meet the requirements of this job?  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option A: A teacher who has four years of teaching experience. Option B: A newspaper reporter who has 2 years of editing experience. Option C: A writer willing to work 40 hours a week. Option D: A college graduate who majored in layout design. Correct Answer: B Rationale: The correct answer is B. The job advertisement specifies that applicants must have four years of editorial experience. The newspaper reporter with 2 years of editing experience could potentially qualify for the job based on this requirement. Option A, a teacher with four years of teaching experience, does not fulfill the editorial experience requirement. Option C, a writer willing to work full-time, does not mention the required editorial experience. Option D, a college graduate with a major in layout design, also does not meet the specified editorial experience criteria. Therefore, only option B partially fulfills the stated requirement of having editorial experience. Question 33: Which of the following sources would provide relevant information about the cost of property destruction following a natural disaster? Option A: A newspaper article about the natural disaster Option B: A pamphlet about local food and shelter resources Option C: A speech celebrating community first responders Option D: A photograph of damage taken by a bystander Correct Answer: A Rationale: A newspaper article about the natural disaster would likely contain information about the cost of property destruction following the event. Newspapers often cover such details, including estimates of property damage, insurance claims, and overall economic impact. This source would be more relevant compared to a pamphlet on local resources, a speech about community responders, or a photograph of damage taken by a bystander, which may not necessarily focus on the cost aspect. Question 34: An employee at a local coffee house is asked by a manager to clean the restrooms before clocking out and deliver used coffee grounds to the community garden for compost after lunch. Which of the following steps should the employee perform third? Option A: Eat lunch  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option B: Deliver used coffee grounds Option C: Clock out Option D: Clean the restrooms Correct Answer: C Rationale: The correct sequence of steps for the employee to follow is as follows: 1. Clean the restrooms, 2. Eat lunch, 3. Clock out, and 4. Deliver used coffee grounds to the community garden. Clocking out should be the third step as it signifies the completion of work before engaging in any additional tasks or responsibilities. Question 35: In what way were zip codes labeled in 1938? Option A: Postal service in the age of digital communication Option B: The Pony Express: Postal service of the American frontier Option C: Postal code zones of the U.S Postal Service Option D: Postmasters General of the U.S. Postal Service Correct Answer: C Rationale: Zip codes were labeled as postal code zones of the U.S Postal Service in 1938. The introduction of zip codes by the U.S. Postal Service in 1963 aimed to improve mail efficiency. The term 'ZIP' stands for 'Zone Improvement Plan' and suggests that mail will move more efficiently when postal customers use the code. Understanding the history and purpose of zip codes can help individuals appreciate the system's significance in mail delivery. Question 36: Where can you find copyright information for a given book? Option A: Table of contents Option B: Index Option C: Publication page Option D: Title page Correct Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is the publication page. The publication page typically contains essential copyright information such as the publication date, copyright holder, and  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 other legal details related to the book. While the table of contents, index, and title page offer valuable information, copyright details are specifically located on the publication page where important legal information about the book is presented. St. Francis Hospital 200 Hospital Drive, Mapleton, Vermont duties include: Filling medication carts for each nursing station, filling TPNs, preparing surgical drips, and maintaining anesthesia trays for 6 ORs. Five years of Hospital Experience and certification required. FT/rotating schedule Question 37: Which of the following applicants best fits the advertised job position based on their qualifications? Option A: Carole has been an ER nurse in the St. Francis Hospital system for 7 years. She just passed her certification exam, but she has no pharmacy experience. Option B: Dash has been the only pharmacy tech at Johnson Hospital for 6 years. He recently took continuing education credits to update his certification. He prefers to work days but can work around a flexible schedule as needed. Option C: Jane has been an ER nurse in the St. Francis Hospital for a considerable time but she is not certified. Option D: She just passed her certification exam, but she has no pharmacy experience. Correct Answer: B Rationale: The best-suited applicant for the position would be Dash (Choice B) as he has relevant experience as a pharmacy tech for 6 years, updated his certification recently, and is flexible with his work schedule. Carole (Choice A) lacks pharmacy experience despite her nursing background and newly acquired certification. Jane (Choice C) lacks certification, which is a requirement for the position. Choice D is a partial duplicate of Choice A with no added information. Question 38: A parent is researching the type of sunscreen for their child to wear to swim lessons. Which of the following resources would be the most reliable for the parent to consult? Option A: A recommendation from the child's swim instructor Option B: An advertisement for sunscreen in a parenting magazine Option C: A published interview with a well-known heart surgeon Option D: A review of sunscreens from a skin cancer research foundation Correct Answer: D Rationale: When choosing a sunscreen for a child, it is important to rely on credible sources.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 A review of sunscreens from a skin cancer research foundation would provide evidence- based information on the effectiveness and safety of various sunscreens. This information is likely to be more reliable than a recommendation from a swim instructor, an advertisement, or an interview with an unrelated medical professional. Question 39: A student is researching women's roles in literature. To access a list of sources related to this topic, the student should consult which of the following? Option A: an atlas Option B: a thesaurus Option C: a biography Option D: a bibliography Correct Answer: D Rationale: When conducting research on a specific topic, a bibliography serves as a crucial resource by providing a comprehensive list of sources that have been referenced or consulted. In the context of researching women's roles in literature, consulting a bibliography would assist the student in accessing a wide range of relevant sources. This resource not only aids in identifying key works but also helps in further exploration and understanding of the topic by offering a collection of valuable references. Question 40: If a user of this phone system wants to find the most recently deleted message, listen to it, and record a reply, which of the following sequences of numbers will the user select? Option A: 4, 7, 2 Option B: 1, 6, 7, 1 Option C: 3, 2, 2 Option D: 2, 4, 7, 2 Correct Answer: A Rationale: To find the most recently deleted message, listen to it, and record a reply, the user should first select the number associated with finding the deleted message (4), then proceed to listen to it (7), and finally record a reply (2). Hence, the correct sequence is 4, 7, 2, as presented in option A. Alice was not scared. Not at all. Maybe a little bit. But she was determined to confront the ghost in her house. Alice lived in a farmhouse built in 1921. All of the floors and doors were original; the  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 doors even had skeleton key locks. But by far the most terrifying part of the house was the basement. She kept that door locked and ignored the thumps, crashes, and cries that came from below the house. What made Alice determined to confront the ghost today was the especially loud crashes the previous night. She'd gotten no sleep, convinced the ghost was going to break through the door and do something horrible. What, she wasn't sure, but the ghost would do something. Alice hadn't seen the ghost, but what else could be making loud noises in an old house? The one time she had been down in the basement was after buying the house unseen. Once she saw the shelves with old glass jars, she was a little put off. But what made her keep the door shut and locked was the abrupt end of the concrete floor halfway across the room. Because nothing good ever happened in a basement with a dirt floor. Alice had seen enough horror movies to know that. Alice stared at the basement door, trying to gather enough confidence to open it and march down the stairs like she owned the place. Because she did-or she would, once she finished paying her mortgage in 30 years. Alice took a deep breath and yanked the door open. She marched down the stairs, only to stop abruptly at the bottom. Because she was face to face with not a ghost at all. It was a calico cat, one who looked utterly unimpressed by her brave journey into the basement. Question 41: Which of the following phrases from the passage added humor to an otherwise fearful mood? Option A: Because she did—or she would, once she finished paying her mortgage in 30 years. Option B: She'd gotten no sleep, convinced the ghost was going to break through the door and do something horrible. Option C: But what made her keep the door shut and locked was the abrupt end of the concrete floor halfway across the room. Option D: All of the floors and doors were original; the doors even had skeleton key locks. Correct Answer: A Rationale: Choice A adds humor to the otherwise fearful mood by injecting a touch of reality and practicality into the situation. The mention of finishing paying the mortgage in 30 years in the midst of a ghostly encounter lightens the tone of the narrative, creating a moment of comic relief for the reader. This phrase introduces a sense of normalcy and mundane responsibilities amidst the eerie setting, providing a contrast that can be amusing to the reader. Question 42: Which one of the following is misleading information that Alice uses to support her argument that the house is “terrifying”? Option A: The basement has a dirt floor Option B: There are glass jars on the shelves in the basement  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option C: The doors and floors are original to the home Option D: The doors and floors are original to the home Correct Answer: A Rationale: Alice associates the dirt floor in the basement with horror movies, leading her to conclude that the house is terrifying, though this is not necessarily a logical reason. An Ode to Naps The rain is tapping footsteps on the roof It sounds a lovely dance inside my head This peaceful aura only serves as proof That I should dodge my work to lie in bed The pillows pull me in with their behest A trap that I do not want to escape The blankets form a most enticing nest They wrap me in a shroud that won't undrape I'm tempted further by my furry friends They've taken o'er the mattress in a pile Oh, how I want to nestle in with them! But first, I know that I must work awhile I promise, bed, I will be back for you I'll surely nap before the day is through Question 43: What of the following explains the effect that word choice has on the meaning of the passage? Option A: The author selects negative words like "trap" and "escape" to demonstrate that sleeping is a challenge. Option B: The author selects threatening words like "tempted" and "undrape" to inform on the dangers present. Option C: The author selects contrasting words like "peaceful" and "dodge" to compare two unlike activities. Option D: The author selects rhyming words like "pile" and "awhile" to create a lyrical moment in an informative writing. Correct Answer: C Rationale: The contrasting words "peaceful" and "dodge" emphasize the tension between relaxation and work. This contrast highlights the author’s desire to avoid responsibilities and embrace rest, effectively illustrating the internal conflict between these two opposing actions. Question 44: Which of the following statements about a thesis statement is correct? Option A: It is the secondary idea in a piece of writing. Option B: It is the central idea in a piece of writing. Option C: It is the primary idea in a piece of writing.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option D: It is a fact that has been proven by the scientific community. Correct Answer: B Rationale: A thesis statement is the central idea or main point that a writer puts forward in a piece of writing. It serves as a roadmap for the reader, outlining the purpose and direction of the text. The thesis statement is crucial in guiding the content and structure of the writing, making option B the correct choice in this context. knitting is my hobby. I feel such a sense of accomplishment when I finish a sweater or a pair of socks. A ball of wool holds so much potential and is also a sustainable resource. The repetition of stitch after stitch is so relaxing. researchers say it can have the same benefits as medication. there are other health benefits of knitting too. the craft can slow cognitive decline and improve symptoms of arthritis. I started knitting when I was in college and liked to knit during class. Knitting is very portable hobby. it helped me play pay attention to lecture if you're looking for a fun hobby, perhaps you should give knitting a try. Question 45: Which sentence does not align with the theme of personal experiences and benefits related to knitting? Option A: It helped me pay attention during lectures. Option B: The repetition of stitch after stitch is so relaxing. Option C: A ball of wool holds so much potential and is also a sustainable resource. Option D: There are other health benefits of knitting too. Correct Answer: C Rationale: The paragraph primarily focuses on personal experiences and benefits associated with knitting, such as relaxation, attention improvement, and health benefits. Sentence C stands out as it shifts the focus to the material aspect of wool, which doesn't directly relate to personal experiences or benefits. The other sentences align more closely with the theme by discussing the personal enjoyment and advantages of knitting.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 MATHEMATICS Question 1: Translate the phrase 'Five less than twice the number' into a mathematical expression. Option A: 5x-2 Option B: 2x-5 Option C: 2-5x Option D: 5-2x Correct Answer: B Rationale: To translate 'Five less than twice the number' into a mathematical expression, you first calculate twice the number (2x) and then subtract 5 from it. This gives you 2x-5. Therefore, choice B, 2x-5, accurately represents the mathematical expression for 'Five less than twice the number.' The phrase 'Five less than' implies subtraction, and 'twice the number' is represented by 2x. Thus, when you subtract 5 from twice the number, the correct expression is 2x-5. Question 2: A couple dining at a restaurant receives a bill for $38.40. They wish to leave a 15% gratuity. What is the estimated gratuity amount? Option A: $6.00 Option B: $5.00 Option C: $4.00 Option D: $7.00 Correct Answer: A Rationale: To calculate the 15% gratuity on a $38.40 bill, you multiply the bill amount by 0.15 (15%): $38.40 x 0.15 = $5.76. Since gratuity amounts are typically rounded up, the estimated gratuity would be $6.00, making choice A the correct answer. In this case, rounding up to the nearest whole dollar is common practice in gratuity calculations to simplify tipping and ensure a fair amount for the service provided. Question 3: After spending 80% of her $60, Lana is left with how much money when she invests the remaining amount and earns an 80% profit?  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option A: $21.60 Option B: $9.60 Option C: $86.40 Option D: $60.00 Correct Answer: A Rationale: After spending 80% of $60, Lana spends $48, leaving her with $12. When she invests this remaining amount and earns an 80% profit on $12, it amounts to $21.60 ($12 + 80% of $12 = $12 + $9.60 = $21.60). Therefore, Lana now has $21.60 in total. Question 4: Which of the following percentages is equivalent to the fraction 5/8? Option A: 160% Option B: 65.25% Option C: 62.50% Option D: 1.60% Correct Answer: C Rationale: To convert a fraction to a percentage, divide the numerator by the denominator and then multiply by 100. For the fraction 5/8, it equals 0.625 when divided, which when multiplied by 100 results in 62.50%. Therefore, choice C, 62.50%, is the correct percentage equivalent to the fraction 5/8. Question 5: A student performs the following estimations: 24 + 190 = 210, 151 + 319 = 470, 974 + 1022 = 1990. Based on these estimations, what is the student's estimate of 452 + 5017? Option A: 5430 Option B: 5470 Option C: 5500 Option D: 5400 Correct Answer: B Rationale: The student's pattern involves rounding numbers to the nearest tens or hundreds to simplify calculations. By analyzing the given examples, it is evident that the student tends to round numbers up or down, leading to slight variations from the exact sum. Applying the  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 same strategy to 452 and 5017, we can estimate 450 + 5020 = 5470. Therefore, choice B is the correct estimate for the sum of 452 + 5017. Question 6: Which of the following expressions has the greatest value? Option A: 34 + 96 Option B: 0.372 Option C: 3/9 Option D: 37% Correct Answer: A Rationale: To determine the greatest value among the given expressions, we need to evaluate each one. When we calculate 34 + 96, the result is 130. Option B is a decimal less than 1, option C is in date format, and option D is a percentage. Comparing the values obtained, 130 (option A) is greater than 0.372, 03-Aug, and 37%. Therefore, the correct answer is A since it has the greatest value, which is 130. Question 7: Which of the following relationships represents a positive correlation between two variables? Option A: As the amount of water a plant receives increases, Option B: As the number of hours a person exercises decrease Option C: As a student class attendance decreases, the stude Option D: As the number of mile driven increases, the amount Correct Answer: A Rationale: A positive correlation means both variables increase together. As the amount of water a plant receives increases, the plant's health typically improves. Question 8: Four friends are sharing a pizza. One friend eats half of the pizza. The other three friends equally divide the rest among themselves. What portion of the pizza did each of the other three friends receive? Option A: 1/6 Option B: 1/4  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option C: 1/3 Option D: 1/6 Correct Answer: D Rationale: After one friend eats half of the pizza, half of the pizza remains to be divided among the other three friends. Dividing this remaining half equally among three friends means each friend receives 1/6 of the pizza (1/2 ÷ 3 = 1/6). Therefore, each of the other three friends receives 1/6 of the pizza. Question 9: 2.50 ÷ 0.25 Simplify the expression above. Which of the following is correct? Option A: 6.25 Option B: 0.0625 Option C: 6.025 Option D: 0.625 Correct Answer: D Rationale: Multiplying 2.50 by 0.25 gives 0.625. Question 10: What is the equivalent weight of 50 kg in pounds (1 kg = 2.2 lb)? Option A: 110 lb Option B: 220 lb Option C: 52.2 lb Option D: 22.7 lb Correct Answer: A Rationale: To convert 50 kg to pounds, we multiply by the conversion factor 2.2 lb/kg. Therefore, 50 kg × 2.2 lb/kg = 110 lb. The correct answer is A, which is 110 lb. The provided conversion factor (1 kg = 2.2 lb) is used to convert kilograms to pounds. By multiplying 50 kg by the conversion factor, we find the equivalent weight in pounds, which is 110 lb. Question 11: A farmer grows apple, orange, lemon, banana, and pear trees. The number of trees planted this year is shown in the table above. Which of the following would best display the data?  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option A: Bar graph Option B: Scatter plot Option C: Stem-and-leaf plot Option D: Line graph Correct Answer: A Rationale: A bar graph is the most appropriate way to display categorical data like the number of each type of tree planted by the farmer. In a bar graph, each type of tree can be represented by a separate bar, allowing for easy visual comparison of the quantities. Scatter plots are used to illustrate relationships between two sets of data, which is not the case here. Stem-and-leaf plots are more suitable for displaying numerical data in a grouped format, not categorical data like types of trees. Line graphs are typically used to portray trends or changes over time, making them less suitable for this scenario. Question 12: If X represents the width of a rectangle and the length is four less than three times the width, which of the following expressions represents the length of the rectangle in terms of X? Option A: 3x - 4 Option B: 4x - 3 Option C: 4 - 3x Option D: 3 - 4x Correct Answer: A Rationale: To determine the expression for the length of the rectangle in terms of X, we need to consider that the length is four less than three times the width. This can be mathematically represented as 3 times X minus 4, which simplifies to 3x - 4 (choice A). Therefore, choice A correctly represents the length of the rectangle in terms of X, making it the correct answer. Question 13: When the weights of newborn babies are graphed, the distribution of weights is symmetric with the majority of weights centered around a single peak. Which of the following describes the shape of this distribution? Option A: Skewed right Option B: Bimodal Option C: Uniform  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option D: Bell-shaped Correct Answer: D Rationale: The described distribution, where the majority of weights are centered around a single peak and symmetric, is referred to as bell-shaped. In a bell-shaped distribution, the data is symmetric around the mean, with most values clustering near the peak and tapering off towards the extremes. This pattern is commonly seen in normal distributions, such as the distribution of birth weights in newborns. The bell-shaped curve represents a typical symmetric distribution, indicating that most newborn weights fall close to the average weight with fewer extreme values. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Bell-shaped'. Question 14: A sweater that normally sells for $87 is marked 25% off. Which of the following estimates the sale price of the sweater? Option A: $36 Option B: $65 Option C: $51 Option D: $22 Correct Answer: B Rationale: To calculate the sale price after a 25% discount, you need to find 25% of the original price and subtract it from the original price. 25% of $87 is $21.75 ($87 x 0.25 = $21.75). Subtracting this from the original price gives you $87 - $21.75 = $65, which is the estimated sale price of the sweater. Question 15: What is the area of a circle with a diameter of 16 inches in terms of pi (π)? Option A: 32π in squared Option B: 64π in squared Option C: 256π in squared Option D: 16π in squared Correct Answer: B Rationale: To calculate the area of a circle, you use the formula A = πr², where r is the radius of the circle. Since the diameter is given as 16 inches, the radius (r) is half of that, which is 8 inches. By substituting r = 8 into the formula, you calculate the area as A = π(8)² = 64π square  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 inches. Therefore, the correct answer is 64π in² (Choice B). This calculation is derived from the concept of the radius being half of the diameter in the circle formula. Question 16: A worker earns $8000.00 per week before any tax deductions. The following taxes are deducted each week: $83.00 federal income tax, $38.00 state income tax, and $79.00 social security tax. How much will the worker make in 4 weeks after taxes are deducted? Option A: $31,200.00 Option B: $29,200.00 Option C: $26,000.00 Option D: $24,000.00 Correct Answer: A Rationale: To determine the worker's earnings in 4 weeks after taxes are deducted, start by calculating the total weekly tax deductions: $83.00 + $38.00 + $79.00 = $200.00. Subtract the total weekly tax deductions from the weekly earnings: $8000.00 - $200.00 = $7800.00. Now, to find the total earnings after 4 weeks, multiply the weekly earnings after deductions by 4: $7800.00 x 4 = $31,200.00. Therefore, the worker will make $31,200.00 in 4 weeks after taxes are deducted. Question 17: An athlete runs 4 miles in 28 minutes and then changes pace to run the next 4 miles in 32 minutes. Overall, what is the average time in minutes it takes the athlete to run 1 mile? Option A: 7.5 minutes Option B: 7 minutes Option C: 8.5 minutes Option D: 8 minutes Correct Answer: A Rationale: To calculate the average time per mile, we add the total time taken for both parts (28 minutes + 32 minutes = 60 minutes) and divide it by the total distance covered (8 miles). This gives us 60 minutes / 8 miles = 7.5 minutes per mile. Therefore, the correct answer is 7.5 minutes, representing the average time it takes the athlete to run 1 mile. Question 18: How should the frequency for each day of the week that students get up after 8 a.m. be best displayed from a class survey?  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option A: Bar graph Option B: Scatter plot Option C: Histogram Option D: Pie chart Correct Answer: A Rationale: A bar graph is the most appropriate way to display the frequency of students getting up after 8 a.m. on each day of the week. Bar graphs are well-suited for comparing discrete categories, making them ideal for showing the frequency distribution of responses for each day. Each day of the week can be represented on the x-axis, and the frequency of students getting up after 8 a.m. on the y-axis. This allows for a clear visual comparison between the days, making it easy to see which days have a higher frequency of students waking up after 8 a.m. In this case, a bar graph is preferred over other options like scatter plots, histograms, or pie charts, as it provides a simple and effective way to visualize and compare the data across different days of the week. Question 19: When a person increases cycling speed, the rate of calories burned, distance traveled, and energy expended also increase. Which of the following is the independent variable? Option A: Speed Option B: Energy Option C: Distance Option D: Calories Correct Answer: A Rationale: In the context of this scenario, the independent variable is the factor that is deliberately altered or controlled to observe its impact on other variables. When a person adjusts their cycling speed, it directly influences the rate of calories burned, distance traveled, and energy expended. Speed is the independent variable because it is manipulated to study its effects on the dependent variables - calories burned, distance traveled, and energy expended. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Speed.' Question 20: One gallon of cleaning solution requires 6 oz of ammonia. If the maintenance department needs 120 gallons of solution to clean all the floors, how much ammonia is needed? Option A: 20 oz  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option B: 20 gallons Option C: 720 oz Option D: 720 gallons Correct Answer: C Rationale: To calculate the total amount of ammonia needed, you must multiply the amount of ammonia required for one gallon of solution by the total number of gallons needed. With 6 oz of ammonia per gallon, multiplying 6 oz by 120 gallons gives you a total of 720 oz of ammonia needed. Therefore, 720 oz of ammonia are required to clean all the floors. Question 21: If a box of 35 syringes costs $560.00, what is the cost for two syringes? Option A: $8.00 Option B: $16.00 Option C: $15.00 Option D: $32.00 Correct Answer: D Rationale: To determine the cost for two syringes, you first need to calculate the cost per syringe by dividing the total cost of the box by the total number of syringes in the box: $560.00 ÷ 35 syringes = $16.00 per syringe. Therefore, each syringe costs $16.00. To find the cost of two syringes, you multiply the cost per syringe by 2: $16.00 × 2 = $32.00. Hence, the correct answer is option D, which is $32.00 for two syringes. Question 22: Which of the following is the correct decimal placement for the product of 1.3 × 0.47? Option A: 0.611 Option B: 6.11 Option C: 0.00611 Option D: 0.0611 Correct Answer: A Rationale: Multiplying 1.3 by 0.47 gives 0.611. Question 23:  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 How many milliliters are in 0.5 liters? Option A: 5,000 Option B: 5 Option C: 500 Option D: 50 Correct Answer: C Rationale: To convert liters to milliliters, you need to know that 1 liter is equal to 1,000 milliliters. Therefore, to find out how many milliliters are in 0.5 liters, you multiply 0.5 by 1,000, which gives you 500 milliliters. Hence, the correct answer is 500 milliliters. Remember, when converting between units, you must use the correct conversion factor to ensure the accuracy of your calculations. Question 24: A bucket can hold 3L. How many milliliters can the bucket hold? Option A: 300ml Option B: 3000ml Option C: 0.003ml Option D: 30ml Correct Answer: B Rationale: To convert liters to milliliters, you need to multiply by 1000 since 1 liter is equal to 1000 milliliters. Therefore, to determine how many milliliters a 3-liter bucket can hold, you multiply 3 by 1000, resulting in 3000ml. Hence, a bucket that can hold 3L is capable of holding 3000ml. Question 25: How many feet are in 6 yards? Option A: 2 feet Option B: 9 feet Option C: 36 feet Option D: 18 feet Correct Answer: D  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Rationale: To convert yards to feet, remember that 1 yard is equal to 3 feet. To find how many feet are in 6 yards, you multiply 6 by 3, which equals 18 feet. Therefore, the correct answer is 18 feet. Understanding this conversion is essential for accurate measurements in various situations such as construction, crafting, or any activity involving distance calculations. Question 26: A recipe calls for 2.5 teaspoons, which equals approximately 4.93 ml. What is the correct amount of vanilla in ml? Option A: 7.43 ml Option B: 0.507 ml Option C: 5.33 ml Option D: 12.325 ml Correct Answer: D Rationale: To find the correct amount of vanilla in ml, you need to multiply the required teaspoons by the conversion factor. 2.5 teaspoons × 4.93 ml = 12.325 ml. Therefore, the correct amount of vanilla required is 12.325 ml. Question 27: Solve the equation 4(X-5)=8 for x. Which of the following is the correct answer? Option A: 7 Option B: 3/4 Option C: 3 1/4 Option D: -3 Correct Answer: A Rationale: To solve the equation 4(X-5)=8 for x, first distribute the 4: 4X - 20 = 8. Next, add 20 to both sides to isolate X: 4X = 28. Finally, divide by 4 to solve for X: X = 7. Therefore, the correct answer is A as X equals 7. Question 28: What is the length of the unknown leg of a right triangle that has one leg measuring 8 feet and a hypotenuse of 12 feet? (Round to the nearest tenth)  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option A: 40 feet Option B: 4 feet Option C: 14.4 feet Option D: 8.9 feet Correct Answer: D Rationale: To find the length of the unknown leg of a right triangle, you can use the Pythagorean theorem. The theorem states that the square of the length of the hypotenuse (12 feet) is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides. Let x be the length of the unknown leg. So, 12^2 = 8^2 + x^2. Solving for x gives x = √(12^2 - 8^2) = √(144 - 64) = √80 ≈ 8.9 feet. Therefore, the length of the unknown leg is approximately 8.9 feet. Question 29: In the graph above, which represents the amount of rainfall in a particular state by month, what is the total rainfall for the first 3 months of the year? Option A: 3 1/2 inches Option B: 2 inches Option C: 4 inches Option D: 1 1/2 inches Correct Answer: A Rationale: To calculate the total rainfall for the first 3 months of the year, you need to add the rainfall amounts for January (1 inch), February (1/2 inch), and March (2 inches) together. This sum gives a total of 3 1/2 inches, making choice A the correct answer. Question 30: Solve the equation 2(4x + 3) = 7x + 5 for x. Which of the following is correct? Option A: -1 Option B: 1 Option C: 11 Option D: 2 Correct Answer: A Rationale: To solve the equation, first distribute the 2 on the left side: 2(4x + 3) = 7x + 5. Next, move all terms involving x to one side by subtracting 7x from both sides: 8x + 6 = 7x + 5. Then, subtract 6 from both sides to isolate x: x = -1. Therefore, the correct answer is A, -1,  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 as it satisfies the equation 2(4(-1) + 3) = 7(-1) + 5. Substituting x = -1 back into the original equation gives 2(4(-1) + 3) = 7(-1) + 5, which simplifies to 2(-4 + 3) = -7 + 5, leading to 2(-1) = -2, proving that -1 is indeed the correct solution. Question 31: Which of the following translates the phrase '5 less than 2 times a number' into a mathematical expression? Option A: 5 - 2x Option B: 5x - 2 Option C: 2x - 5 Option D: 2 - 5x Correct Answer: C Rationale: To translate the phrase '5 less than 2 times a number' into a mathematical expression, you first express '2 times a number' as 2x. Then, '5 less than' indicates subtracting 5 from the result, leading to 2x - 5. Therefore, choice C, 2x - 5, correctly represents the given phrase in a mathematical expression. Question 32: Which of the following values is the greatest? Option A: 4.25 Option B: 2/9 Option C: 3/10 Option D: 4.4 Correct Answer: C Rationale: By comparing these values, it is clear that 4.4 is greater than both 4.25 and the fractions 2/9 and 3/10 Therefore, Option D (4.4) is the greatest value among the options provided. Question 33: A couple dining at a restaurant receives a bill for $38.40. They wish to leave a 15% gratuity. What is the estimated gratuity amount? Option A: $4.00  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option B: $5.76 Option C: $5.00 Option D: $7.00 Correct Answer: B Rationale: To calculate a 15% gratuity on a $38.40 bill, you multiply $38.40 by 0.15 (15%). This calculation results in $5.76, which is the estimated gratuity amount. Therefore, the correct answer is $5.76 (Choice B). Leaving a 15% gratuity is a common practice to show appreciation for the service provided by the restaurant staff. Question 34: In a local community college, there are 800 students enrolled in four allied programs as illustrated in the pie chart. What is the number of students enrolled in the respiratory care program? Option A: 336 Option B: 168 Option C: 152 Option D: 144 Correct Answer: C Rationale: To find the number of students in the respiratory care program, you need to calculate 19% of 800, which represents the proportion of students in this program. To do this, multiply 0.19 by 800 to get 152. Therefore, there are 152 students enrolled in the respiratory care program. The pie chart visually represents the distribution of students among the programs, with the respiratory care program accounting for 19% of the total student population. Question 35: A baker is using a cookie recipe that calls for 2 1/4 cups of flour to yield 36 cookies. How much flour will the baker need to make 90 cookies using the same recipe? Option A: 6 1/4 cups Option B: 4 3/4 cups Option C: 5 5/8 cups Option D: 10 1/8 cups Correct Answer: C Rationale: To determine how much flour is needed for 90 cookies using the same recipe, start  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 by calculating the amount of flour required per cookie in the original recipe. The original recipe uses 2 1/4 cups of flour for 36 cookies. To find the amount per cookie, divide the total flour by the number of cookies: 2 1/4 / 36 = 1/16 cup per cookie. Next, multiply the amount per cookie by the new number of cookies: 1/16 × 90 = 5 5/8 cups. Therefore, the baker will need 5 5/8 cups of flour to make 90 cookies following the same recipe. Question 36: What is the equivalent weight in pounds of 50 kg? (1 kg = 2.2 lb) Option A: 110 lb Option B: 52.2 lb Option C: 22.7 lb Option D: 220 lb Correct Answer: A Rationale: To convert kilograms to pounds, you multiply by the conversion factor 2.2 (1 kg = 2.2 lb). Therefore, 50 kg * 2.2 lb/kg = 110 lb. The correct answer is A because 50 kg is equivalent to 110 lb when using the conversion factor. Question 37: A temporary gauge reads 95F. Which of the following is the correct conversion to degrees Celsius ( Note: C = 5/9 (F = 32)) Option A: 21°C Option B: 113°C Option C: 63°C Option D: 35°C Correct Answer: D Rationale: Using the formula C = 5/9(F - 32): 95°F - 32 = 63; 63 × 5/9 = 35°C. Question 38: A baker is using a cookie recipe that calls for 2 ½ cups of flour to yield 36 cookies. How much flour will the baker need to make 90 cookies using the same recipe? Option A: 5 ½ cups Option B: 6 ½ cups Option C: 4 ½ cups Option D: 10 ½ cups  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Correct Answer: B Rationale: To find the amount of flour needed for 90 cookies, first calculate the flour per cookie: (2 ½ cups / 36 cookies) = (8/36) = (2/9) cups per cookie. Then multiply by 90: (2/9) × 90 = 20 cups.  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 SCIENCE Question 1: Which of the following are the major parts of the nervous system? Option A: PNS and Somatic Nervous System Option B: Autonomic Nervous System and CNS Option C: PNS and CNS Option D: Autonomic Nervous System and Somatic Nervous System Correct Answer: C Rationale: The nervous system comprises two major parts: the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and the central nervous system (CNS). The PNS includes nerves outside the brain and spinal cord, while the CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord. Choice C (PNS and CNS) correctly identifies the primary divisions of the nervous system, encompassing both the peripheral and central components. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Question 2: Which of the following substances is responsible for donating H+ ions to act as a buffer when blood pH rises? Option A: Carbon Monoxide Option B: Oxygen Option C: Carbon Dioxide Option D: Carbonic Acid Correct Answer: D Rationale: Carbonic acid is a pivotal buffer in blood that plays a key role in maintaining pH balance. When blood pH rises, indicating increased alkalinity, carbonic acid releases hydrogen ions (H+) to counterbalance the excess base, thereby preventing significant changes in pH levels. This mechanism highlights the essential function of carbonic acid in regulating the acid-base equilibrium in the blood. Question 3: Which substance protects the body from ultraviolet rays? Option A: Keratin  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option B: Sebum Option C: Perspiration Option D: Melanin Correct Answer: D Rationale: Melanin is the pigment responsible for skin color and serves as a natural defense against ultraviolet (UV) rays. When the skin is exposed to UV rays, melanin production increases to absorb and dissipate the radiation, acting as a protective mechanism. This helps prevent DNA damage, reducing the risk of skin cancer and other UV-induced skin issues. Therefore, melanin is the substance that effectively shields the body from the harmful effects of UV radiation. Question 4: Which of the following substances is excreted by the sweat glands in response to the breakdown of proteins and the formation of ammonia? Option A: Lysozymes Option B: Water Option C: Urea Option D: Sebum Correct Answer: C Rationale: The correct answer is Urea. Sweat glands excrete urea in response to the breakdown of proteins and the formation of ammonia. Urea is a waste product formed in the liver by the breakdown of amino acids. It is then excreted by the kidneys in urine and by sweat glands through perspiration. Urea plays a vital role in the excretory process by helping eliminate nitrogenous wastes from the body and maintaining proper physiological balance. Question 5: Which of the following organs is covered by the pleura, a connective tissue sheath? Option A: spleen Option B: lungs Option C: heart Option D: liver Correct Answer: B Rationale: The pleura is a protective membrane that covers the lungs. It consists of two  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 layers: the visceral pleura (inner layer) and the parietal pleura (outer layer). The pleural space between these layers contains a small amount of fluid that helps reduce friction during breathing movements. The spleen, heart, and liver are not covered by the pleura. Therefore, the correct answer is the lungs. Question 6: In a phase diagram, what term is used for a substance held at a temperature and pressure where solid, liquid, and gaseous states of a substance exist simultaneously? Option A: critical temperature Option B: triple point Option C: absolute zero Option D: critical point Correct Answer: B Rationale: The point described in the question is called the triple point. At the triple point, all three phases of a substance (solid, liquid, and gas) coexist in equilibrium. The critical temperature is the highest temperature at which a distinct liquid phase can form, while absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature. The critical point is the point on a phase diagram that represents the highest temperature and pressure at which a distinct liquid and gas phase can coexist. Therefore, the correct answer is the triple point, where all three phases coexist. Question 7: In a specific scenario, red flowers are dominant over white flowers. A plant heterozygous for red flowers and a plant with white flowers are crossed. What is the expected proportion of phenotypes in the next generation? Option A: 2 red, 2 white Option B: 3 red, 1 white Option C: 4 red, 0 white Option D: 1 red, 3 white Correct Answer: A Rationale: When a plant heterozygous for red flowers (Rr) is crossed with a plant having white flowers (rr), according to Mendelian genetics, the Punnett square predicts a 1:1 ratio of red (Rr) to white (rr) flowers in the offspring. This means that the expected proportion in the next generation would be 2 red flowers and 2 white flowers. Question 8:  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the pH scale? Option A: A substance with a pH of 3 is more acidic than a substance with a pH of 4. Option B: A substance with a pH of 3 is two times more alkaline than a substance with a pH of 4. Option C: A substance with a pH of 3 is 10 times more alkaline than a substance with a pH of 4. Option D: A substance with a pH of 3 is 10 times more acidic than a substance with a pH of 4. Correct Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D. The pH scale measures the acidity or basicity of a substance on a scale of 0 to 14. Each whole pH value below 7 is ten times more acidic than the next higher value. Therefore, a substance with a pH of 3 is 10 times more acidic than a substance with a pH of 4. The difference in pH values indicates the concentration of hydrogen ions in the substance, with lower pH values representing higher acidity and higher pH values representing higher basicity. Question 9: Which of the following physiological responses is caused by the release of anti-diuretic hormone? Option A: Decrease in water reabsorption in the collecting duct Option B: Decrease in the concentration of calcium in the glomerulus Option C: Increase in the concentration of calcium in the glomerulus Option D: Increase in water reabsorption in the collecting duct Correct Answer: D Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increase in water reabsorption in the collecting duct. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption in the collecting ducts, leading to the concentration of urine and conservation of water in the body. This hormone helps regulate water balance by decreasing urine output and increasing blood volume and pressure when needed. Question 10: What is essential for new scientific findings to be published? Option A: To prevent other scientists from performing similar tests Option B: For other scientists to validate or disapprove of findings  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 Option C: Publishing findings to help scientists become more biased Option D: Scientists being paid if their findings are published Correct Answer: B Rationale: For new scientific findings to be published, it is essential for other scientists to validate or disapprove of the findings. This validation process, known as peer review, ensures the credibility and reliability of the research. Peer review allows for critical evaluation, verification, and identification of any potential errors or biases in the study, thereby upholding the integrity and quality of scientific knowledge. Without this validation by peers, the scientific community cannot confidently accept the findings as accurate and trustworthy, making the peer review process a crucial step in the dissemination of scientific knowledge. Question 11: What summarizes a change that occurs as solids transition into liquids? Option A: Particles become less ordered Option B: Particles increase in mobility Option C: Particles move further apart Option D: Intermolecular forces between particles weaken Correct Answer: A Rationale: The correct answer is A. When solids transition into liquids, particles become less ordered. In a solid state, particles are arranged in a fixed, orderly pattern due to strong intermolecular forces. As the solid transitions into a liquid, these forces weaken, allowing the particles more freedom of movement. Consequently, the particles become less ordered in a liquid compared to a solid, where they have more mobility and are not bound in a fixed structure. Question 12: Which of the following is the process in which an ovarian follicle matures and releases a reproductive egg? Option A: Menstruation Option B: Ovulation Option C: Fertilization Option D: Oogenesis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Ovulation is the correct answer as it is the process where an ovarian follicle  ACTUAL TEAS 7 EXAM SETs 1,2,3 matures and releases a reproductive egg. Menstruation refers to the shedding of the uterine lining, fertilization is the union of sperm and egg, and oogenesis is the formation of female gametes. Ovulation is a crucial step in the reproductive cycle as it allows for the release of a mature egg from the ovary, which can then potentially be fertilized during its journey through the fallopian tube. Understanding these definitions is essential for comprehending the sequence of events in the female reproductive system. Question 13: What is the function of sodium bicarbonate released by the pancreas? Option A: Sodium bicarbonate neutralizes the acidity of chyme. Option B: Sodium bicarbonate stimulates th