PH&LM Questions PDF

PH&LM Questions 01 1. Ratio can be defined as: a. (N/P)×P b. (N–P)×K c. (N/P)×K d. (P/N)×K 2. Which of the following is not an indicator of results and process of screening? a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Relative risk d. Positive predictive value e. Negative predictive...

PH&LM Questions 01 1. Ratio can be defined as: a. (N/P)×P b. (N–P)×K c. (N/P)×K d. (P/N)×K 2. Which of the following is not an indicator of results and process of screening? a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Relative risk d. Positive predictive value e. Negative predictive value 3. Alma Ata date a. 6–12 September 1978 b. 1–7 January 1989 c. 2–13 September 2001 d. 20–28 February 1957 4. Among undesirable substances possibly present in drinking water we find nitrates. What are they indicative of? a. Possible industrial pollution b. Possible sewage pollution c. Excessive mineralisation d. None of the above e. All of the above 5. In drinking water, wrong statement: a. Total coliforms up to 5CFU/dL b. Absent total coliforms c. Faecal coliforms up to 5CFU/dL d. Absent faecal streptococci 6. Wastewater of civil origin (2 correct answers): a. Classified as intermediate is pH 6.9–7.5 b. Strong if 6.5–8 c. Strong if 7.5–8 d. Intermediate if BOD (biochemical oxygen demand)/mL >300 e. Strong if COD (chemical oxygen demand)/mL 600–1,000 f. Strong if COD/mL 400–600 Weak Intermediate Strong pH 6.9–7.5 7.1–7.8 7.5–8.0 BOD/mL 100–200 200–300 >300 COD/mL 165–400 400–600 600–1,000 Sediment (mg/L) 150 300 500 7. Air effects: mark the wrong definition a. III-degree frostbite: tissue alterations with necrosis b. Heatstroke: organism cannot give away heat due to elevated T and humidity c. II-degree frostbite: stasis and cyanotic oedema d. Heatstroke: organism cannot give away heat due to elevated T and humidity and null wind speed e. I-degree frostbite: ischaemia followed by vasodilation and hyperaemia 8. Waste product classified as dangerous contains: Page 1 of 46  a. Substances toxic for reproduction >0.5% b. Carcinogenic substances >0.1% c. Flash point 25% e. None of the above 9. Which of the following is correct about particulate? a. Particulate matter 0.01–500µm b. Aerosol only solid c. Smog d. Particulate 0.01–400µm 10. Infection and diseases definition: a. Reservoir b. Carrier c. Source d. Healthy carrier e. Chronic carrier 11 f. All of the above 11. Mark the two correct definitions: a. LD50 is the minimal lethal dose b. Secondary attack rate is equal to: (secondary cases)/(susceptible − primary cases) c. Attack rate is equal to: (secondary cases)/(susceptible – primary cases) d. Virulence does not depend on host e. Contagiousness is the ability of a pathogen to go from one subject to another 12. Vectors: mark the wrong answer a. Bilharziasis — Glossina palpalis b. Leishmaniasis — Phlebotomus spp. c. Trypanosomiasis — Glossina palpalis d. Yellow fever — Aedes aegypti e. Malaria — Anopheles 13. Infectious disease in community: a. Sporadic: occasional appearance at high time and distance intervals b. Endemic: stably present with constant incidence in a population c. Absence: disease never appeared or disappeared for a long time in a population d. Epidemic: sudden increase of disease incidence e. All of the above 14. Which of the following diseases has man as reservoir? a. Typhus b. Shigellosis c. Syphilis d. TBC e. Brucellosis 15. Wrong statement: a. Staph toxin is heat-resistant b. Salmonella on foods is destroyed by cooking, boiling, pasteurising c. Salting and sausage making are sufficient to destroy salmonella d. HAV transmission is oro-faecal e. Staph toxin does not alter organoleptic characteristics 16. Heavy metals in toxic quantities in food: a. Mercury: nephrotoxic b. Cadmium: nephrotoxic c. Lead: nephrotoxic Page 2 of 46 17. Intervention is required if at surveillance you find legionella in water: a. 1,000 CFU/L b. 10 CFU/L c. 100 CFU/L d. 50 CFU/L e. 0 CFU/L 18. Elimination of transient flora and reduction of resident flora is obtained with: a. Aseptic handwashing b. Social handwashing c. Surgical handwashing d. Antiseptic handwashing e. Wearing gloves 19. In TBC you don’t do: a. Tuberculin test and XR in positive cases b. Chemoprophylaxis of skin-positive close contacts c. Isolation of skin-positive close contacts d. Chemoprophylaxis in skin-negative close contacts with high risk of developing disease e. Strict sanitary surveillance for cohabitants and contacts 20. Scabies prophylaxis, wrong statement: a. No measures need to be taken for cohabitants and contacts b. Disease is contagious until mites and eggs have been destroyed c. Sheets and covers need to be washed at 60° 21 d. Clinical surveillance for contacts and cohabitants 21. Pressure sterilisation with vapour is influenced by: a. Pressure, humidity, temperature, volume b. Pressure, humidity, temperature, time c. Pressure, humidity, temperature d. Pressure, humidity, time, load e. Pressure and temperature 22. Mark the wrong statement: a. Ionising radiations are used for foods b. Ionising radiations are used for plastic instruments c. Millipore cellulose filtration has threshold 0.22µm d. Filtration stops bacteria and viruses e. UV are non-penetrant and their effect is limited to surface 23. What does the Bowie–Dick test assess? (2 correct answers) a. Reached temperature b. Air removal c. Vapour penetration d. Excess humidity e. Bacillus stearothermophilus killing 24. Alcohols are active on: a. Gram + and – bacteria and spores b. Gram + and – bacteria c. Gram – bacteria d. Gram + and – bacteria and mycobacteria e. Gram + bacteria 25. Penitentiary doctor intervenes on judgement of incompatibility with jail: a. When health status of convict doesn’t allow jailing b. When therapeutic needs are irreconcilable with confinement Page 3 of 46  c. When the expert witness asks for it d. All of the above 26. Number of deaths for pancreatic cancer / number of deaths for all tumours is: a. Proportional mortality b. Standardised mortality c. Specific mortality d. Crude mortality 27. Survival to melanoma is estimated to be 5 years: if incidence is 20/100,000/y, how many people out of 1,000 must be affected by the disease? a. 2 b. It can’t be determined c. 10 d. 1 28. Exposure odds for healthy: a. a/b b. b/d c. a+c d. b+d e. a/c 29. Odds ratio: a. >1 indicates greater probability of exposure to risk factors in cases than in controls b. 200L of waste should be monitored for 120 days d. In the hospital, faeces and urine, eliminated through the sewer system, are similar to general… e. Containers of 40 L for the collection of hospital special waste are used 104. Identify the incorrect definition a. Measure of the sick of scarlet fever: isolation at home 48 hours after the start of adequate antibiotic therapy b. Measure of the sick of pertussis: isolation at home Page 12 of 46  c. Measure of the sick of rubella: cannot attend school/work for 7 days after the onset of the rash d. Measure of the sick of varicella: isolation at home for at least 5 days after the onset of first vesicle e. Measure of the sick of measles: isolation at home for at least 5 days after the onset of first vesicle 105. In health education the evaluation criteria are (identify the incorrect answer) a. Evaluation of transferability b. Evaluation of the produced change c. Effectiveness evaluation d. Assessment of the efficiency e. Assessment of the perceived success 106. Prerequisites for swimming water include: a. All of the following b. Salmonella absent in 1,000mL c. Total coliforms 120°C d. >80°C e. >100°C 150. Generally noted among advantages of cohort studies: (1) possibility of calculating incidence of disease under investigation, (2) precise measurement of exposure to risk factors, (3) relatively low costs a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2 c. 1, 2 d. 1, 3 e. 1 150 151 151. The Italian NHS was established in: a. 1934 b. 1978 c. 1956 d. 1999 e. 1992 152. Which of the following vaccinations are included in the new vaccine prevention plan 2017–19? (1) polio, (2) HAV, (3) measles a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 1 d. 2 e. 1, 3 153. Which of the following are considered central organs of Italian NHS? (1) ASL districts, (2) superior health council (CSS), (3) USL agency a. 2, 3 b. 2 c. 1, 2 d. 1, 2, 3 e. 1 154. A risk factor for a chronic disease (e.g. smoking, obesity) is generally: a. Necessary but not sufficient to cause the disease b. Sufficient but not necessary to cause the disease c. Neither sufficient nor necessary to cause the disease d. Necessary and sufficient to cause the disease e. None of the above 155. The main mode of transmission of legionella is via: a. Water b. Blood c. Objects d. Saliva e. Faeces 156. Ideal health state is defined by WHO as: a. Complete physical and mental wellbeing b. Complete physical wellbeing c. Complete physical, mental, and social wellbeing d. Complete psychological wellbeing e. None of the above 157. Disadvantages of case–control studies a. Cannot estimate prevalence of disease Page 19 of 46  b. They’re observational → don’t provide same level of evidence as randomised controlled trials c. It’s harder to establish the timeline of exposure to disease outcome (since they’re retrospective) d. Inadequate for rare exposures e. Selection and information bias f. All of the above 158. Cerebral death definition (according to Singer, Harvard committee, and others) a. According to Italian law: irreversible cessation of all functions of the brain, including brainstem b. Harvard ’68 committee moved the definition from ‘higher-brain approach’ (capacity for consciousness) to ‘whole-brain approach’ (lack of brainstem activity) c. A + B 159. AIDS prevention measures: a. Healthcare workers education b. Young education c. Vaccine d. A+ B are correct 160. Definition of burnout: a. Syndrome linked to long-term unresolved work-related stress b. Develops in three steps: enthusiasm, adjustment crisis, maladjustment c. Some authors identify 12 steps, starting with compulsion to prove oneself 161 d. All of the above 161. Infanticide can be committed by: a. Mother b. Father c. Grandmother d. All of the above 162. Fundamental characteristics of a screening test: a. Possibility of early intervention on a disease b. Low cost c. High sensitivity d. All of the above 163. Topographic criterion for evaluation of causal link consists in: a. Evaluating congruity between lesion found in a certain anatomical region and used means (weapon) b. Verifying the aptitude of injurious action to cause damaging effect c. Verifying correspondence between anatomical region involved in injurious action and the site of onset of disease d. Eliminating every other possible cause e. Judging the time interval from injurious action 164. HPV vaccine is foreseen in PNPV 2017–19: a. For all new births in 1st year of life b. For 26y/o women c. For 12y/o women d. For all new births in 2nd year of life e. For 12y/o males and females 165. Assisted suicide in Italy is: a. A crime b. Formally banned, but de facto tolerated c. Legitimate, but only for people of age Page 20 of 46  d. Legitimate, but only if performed by a medical doctor 166. Included among the global objectives for sustainable development: (1) defeating poverty, (2) infrastructural innovation, (3) peace and justice a. 1 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 3 e. 1, 2 167. Which of the following clinical signs is suggestive of alveolitis? a. Crackles b. Disappearance of vesicular murmur c. Ronchi d. Stridor e. Wheezes 168. Which mental tests are more commonly used in Italy for assessment of mental defects? a. Millon’s b. Rey c. MMPL-2 d. Rorschach (76%), MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Index, 36%) in criminal law e. Rorschach (79%) MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Index, 49%) in civil law 169. Which of these juridical qualifications is not ascribable to a physician? a. Public officer (pubblico ufficiale) b. Judiciary police auxiliary c. Public servant (incaricato di pubblico servizio) d. Public minister e. Public necessity service provider (esercente un servizio di pubblica necessità) 170. Which of the following is essential for a certificate? a. Precision b. Specialty c. Truthfulness d. Simplicity 171 e. Intuitiveness 171. The report of a crime (referto): a. Concerns all those crimes (both delitti and contravvenzioni) which are prosecutable ex officio b. Must be filed without delay c. Is filed even when you’ve simply come to know of a crime which is prosecutable ex officio d. Is the duty of any public officer (pubblico ufficiale) or public servant (incaricato di pubblico servizio) e. All of the above 172. Regarding informed consent: a. Only situations of therapeutic urgency allow the doctor to legally disregard patient’s will b. Is legally restricted to particular forms of expression c. In case of explicit dissent from the patient, the healthcare worker is criminally prosecutable d. Only A and B e. Only A and C Page 21 of 46 173. Which of the following is the most common site for healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) in Italy? a. Endocarditis b. Neonatal sepsis c. UTI d. Surgical site infections e. Bloodstream infections 174. In order for an act to be considered battery (percosse): a. Natural offence means must have been used b. Disease must have duration 2.5µm b. Fine: 5% b. 100% disability c. 67–99% disability d. None of the above 283. Invalido INPS: a. >5% b. 100% disability c. 67–99% disability d. None of the above 284. NGO examples include: a. Save the Children b. Red Cross c. Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation d. Rotary e. All of the above 285. They are considered mass screenings of proven effectiveness: (1) mammography for breast cancer, (2) pap-test for cervical tumour, (3) FOBT for CRC a. 1 b. 2 Page 35 of 46  c. 1, 2 d. 2, 3 e. 1, 2, 3 286. Evidence-based medicine takes into account: a. Clinical experience b. Patient values and expectations c. Best scientific evidence d. All of the above 287. Epidemic curves are useful to: a. Assess prevalence of disease b. Estimate mortality c. Assess magnitude of outcome d. Assess economic impact of an infectious disease e. None of the above 288. Risk factors for skin tumours: (1) UV light, (2) arsenic compounds, (3) leather dust, (4) polycyclic hydrocarbons a. 1 b. 1, 3 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 e. 3, 4 289. Scarlet fever prevention: a. Obligatory notification b. Surveillance of roommates for 7 days starting from last contact with pt c. All of the above d. None of the above 290. Prevention of rubella: a. Obligatory notification, no isolation b. No obligatory notification, no isolation c. Obligatory notification and isolation 291 d. No obligatory notification but isolation 291. Domestic accident accesses to ER: a. 3,000,000 total cases b. 1,500,000 come to ER c. 250,000 hospital admissions d. 4,000 deaths. e. All of the above 292. The infant mortality rate in Italy is approximately: a. 3/100 b. 3/1,000 c. 30/1,000 d. 0.3/1,000 e. 15/1,000 293. What are the 10 obligatory vaccines in Italy? a. MMRV + Rota + influenza + HPV b. MMRV + hexavalent vaccines c. Hexavalent vaccine + Rota + HPV d. Hexavalent vaccine + HAV + Rota + HPV 294. Which one is not a food safety determinant? a. Individual behaviour Page 36 of 46  b. Surveillance c. Communication d. Vaccine coverage e. Regulation f. Policy 295. Parameter common to all rates? a. Population b. Time c. Number of new cases d. Number of deaths e. At risk population 296. HAV vaccine: a. Is not part of the PNVP b. Is part of PNVP for children 75y/o) d. Is part of PNPV in endemic regions 297. Invalidità civile: (1) Loss of working potential >33% + >18y/o; (2) Loss of working ability >66%; (3) Loss of working capacity >33%; (4) 65y/o unable to perform all activities typical of their age a. 1 b. 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 4 e. 2, 4 f. 3, 4 298 (no options) 298. Which of the following is perinatal mortality? a. 2.9 perinatal deaths per 1,000 total births b. = (Stillbirths [after 28th gestational week] + death in first week of life)/(live births+ stillbirths) 299. Raw mortality rate: a. 10.52 deaths per 1000 population b. = (Total N of deaths)/(Total population) 300. Definition of late neonatal mortality a. death of a live-born baby after 7 days until before 28 days 301. Question about population and people affected by pulmonary neoplasm, calculate lethality (AKA. Case fatality rate) a. number of deaths/number of sick with a specific disease.. 302. Calculate disease duration given the data above: a. Prevalence/incidence should give duration in years. 303. Which of the following is not a Wilson and Junger criterion for screening? a. Things that are included are: important health problem, treatable, latent and diagnosable stage, natural hx understood, case-finding is continuous. 304. BOD and COD (2 correct answers): a. BOD 5 days and COD 2h b. BOD proportional to quantity of organic substances 305. Chlorination: a. Acts via formation of hypochlorous acid (HOCl) Page 37 of 46 306. Which of these indicates excessive water hardness? a. All of the above b. (Consider that water is too hard if >15 French degrees) 307. BOD and COD definition a. BOD: Biochemical Oxygen Demand or Biological Oxygen Demand, is a measurement of the amount of dissolved oxygen (DO) that is used by aerobic microorganisms when decomposing organic matter in water. b. COD: Chemical Oxygen Demand is the total measurement of all chemicals (organics & in-organics) in the water 308. Given a definition, indicate which substance we’re dealing with: a. Noxious—harmful, poisonous, or very unpleasant b. Corrosive—tending to cause corrosion c. Carcinogenic—tending to cause cancer d. Etc… 309. Which of the following doesn’t have a vector? a. Listeriosis 310. Matching disease and type of transmission: a. Homonymous heterogeneous (malaria) and heteronymous homogeneous (toxoplasmosis) transmission 311. Which of the following is transmitted via vector? a. Brucellosis 312. Legionella question about dos and don’ts after isolation from hospital a. No special precautions are necessary. The disease is transmitted via drinking water, not by infected persons. People catch Legionnaires' disease by inhaling small droplets of tainted water, but not from drinking it. 313. Definition of sanitary surveillance: a. the continuous, systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of health-related data needed for the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice 314. Quarantine: a. Done to healthy people 315. Containment: a. Done for sick people 316. Pediculosis prophylaxis: a. Avoid head-to-head contact and sharing combs b. Over-the-counter permethrin 1% lotion and a mousse containing pyrethrins and piperonyl butoxide (RID foam). Lindane shampoo (1%) is second-line treatment 317. What do you do in close cohabitants of HBV patient? a. Vaccination 318. Prophylaxis for contacts in meningitis a. Rifampin 319. Disinfectant resistance in decreasing order a. Spores, alcohol-acid-resistant bacilli, hydrophilic viruses without surface lipoproteins (polio, rhinovirus), mycetes, lipophilic bacterial and viruses with lipoprotein envelope (Herpes, HIV, HBV, CMV) 320. Wrong statement about disease regression: a. Functional immune system 321. Definition of disinfection and antisepsis Page 38 of 46  a. Disinfection: process of cleaning something, especially with a chemical, in order to destroy bacteria b. Antisepsis: practice of using antiseptics to eliminate the microorganisms that cause disease 322. Definition of procedure according to ISO9000 a. A procedure is a “specified way to carry out an activity or a process”, a process is a “set of interrelated or interacting activities which transforms inputs into outputs”, and a system is a “set of interrelated or interacting elements” 323. Which of the following is a specific mortality: a. Uterine tumour mortality / women 324. Likely causal factor: a. Association strength and plausibility 325. Periodic prevalence: a. = punctual prevalence + incidence 326. When is screening economically justified a. Unit prevention cost/unit assistance cost < incidence 327. Definition of cost-saving prevention a. Preventive care that decreases costs. 328. Dengue: a. Voluntary house isolation 329. When is there obligation to report? a. Whenever a healthcare worker is in a public environment when in front of an intentional crime or any kind that can be prosecuted ex officio (e.g. unintentional injuries in violation of work safety regulations) 330. Definition of damage compensation a. Damage is loss of something from an original state. Matter of civil law. Can be temporary or permanent b. Compensation must be equitable and complete 331. Question on expedited trial a. Suspect is judged solely based on what the GIP is given at the end of the preliminary investigation and on what the defence provides. This is helpful in the event that you realise the preliminary investigations have been carried out improperly. Is a right of the suspect. It must be granted upon request if unconditional (non vincolato) 332. Who needs to report a crime? a. Public servant 333. Concept of culpa: a. Committing a crime without resolution to do so 334. If severe injury result from battery (percosse) we speak of: a. Voluntary injury 335. 2 crimes not prosecutable ex officio: a. Rape from unknown on 19y/o women b. Sexual act on