Pathshala Fastrack NEET (2025) Major Test - 01 PDF

Pathshala Fastrack NEET (2025) Major Test - 01 DURATION DURATION ::200 90 Minutes Minutes DATE : 22/12/2024 M. MARKS : 720...

Pathshala Fastrack NEET (2025) Major Test - 01 DURATION DURATION ::200 90 Minutes Minutes DATE : 22/12/2024 M. MARKS : 720 Topics Covered Physics : Basic Maths & Calculus (Full Chapter), Vector (Full Chapter), Motion in a Straight line (Full Chapter) Chemistry : Mole Concept (Full Chapter), Atomic Structure (Full Chapter) Biology : (Botany): Cell: The Unit of Life (Full Chapter) (Zoology): Breathing and Exchange of gases (Full Chapter), Structural Organisation in Animals (only frog), Body Fluids and Circulation (Full Chapter) General Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet. 2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration. 3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720. 4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics from question number 1 to 50), Section-II (Chemistry: from question number 51 to 100), Section-III (Botany: from question number 101 to 150) & Section IV (Zoology: from question number 151 to 200), having 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions are compulsory) and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory). 5. There is only one correct response for each question. 6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response. 7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall. 8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. OMR Instructions: 1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens. 2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software. 3. Never use pencils to mark your answers. 4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process. 5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may create problems during the evaluation. 6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses. 7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR). Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________ Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________ OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________ Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________  NEET Practice Test-01 Fastrack NEET (2025) Q1 SECTION - A (PHYSICS) Speed of A motor car moving with a uniform speed of 10 object m/s comes to stop after time t by the application becomes (C) (III) 20 of brakes after travelling a distance of 10 m. The zero after value of t is: (Assume uniform retardation) time (in (1) 1s (2) 2s second) (3) 3s (4) 4s Magnitude of Q2 If y dy will be: 1 2 = sin(x ), 2 dx acceleration (1) 1 cos(x ) 2 (D) (IV) 10 2 of object at (2) x cos(x2 ) t = 1s (in (3) cos(x2) m/s2) (4) sin(x) Choose the correct answer from the options Q3 Which of the following is a one dimensional given below: motion? (1) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV (1) Motion of snake (2) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV (2) Motion of air particle (3) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I (3) Motion of satellite (4) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II (4) Motion of train running on a straight track Q5 If distance covered by a particle is zero, what can Q4 An object is thrown vertically upward from you say about its displacement? ground with initial velocity 20 m/s. (Take g = 10 (1) It may or maynot be zero m/s2) (2) It cannot be zero Match List-I with List-II. (3) It is negative List-I List-II (4) It must be zero Time taken Q6 Which of the following can be zero, when a by object to particle is in motion for some time? (A) reach the (I) 2 (1) Distance (2) Displacement ground (in (3) Speed (4) None of these second) Q7 A particle moves in straight line in same direction Maximum for 30 s, with velocity 2 m/s and then moves with height velocity 4 m/s for another 30 s, and finally moves (B) attained by (II) 4 with velocity 6 m/s for next 30 s. What is the object (in magnitude of average velocity of the particle? meter) Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s sixth seconds are equal. The value of u is: (g = 10 (3) 5 m/s (4) 6 m/s m/s2) π (1) 25 m/s (2) 50 m/s Q8 Find out value of ∫. (3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s 2 −π sin 2xdx 2 (1) zero (2) –1 Q13 A body starts from rest and travels with constant (3) 1 (4) 2 acceleration. What is the ratio of distances Q9 Given below are two statements: one is labelled travelled by the body during the 4th and 3rd as Assertion A and the other is labelled as second: Reason R: (1) 7 5 Assertion A: The speed of a body moving in (2) 5 7 straight line can be negative. (3) 7 3 Reason R: If a body is moving opposite to the (4) 3 7 direction of +x axis in straight line, then its speed is negative. Q14 The resultant of P ⃗ and Q⃗ is perpendicular to P ⃗. In the light of the above statements, choose the What is the angle between P ⃗ and Q⃗ : correct answer from the options given below: (1) cos−1 (P /Q) (1) A is true but R is false. (2) cos−1 (−P /Q) (2) Both A and R are false. (3) sin−1 (P /Q) (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) sin−1 (−P /Q) explanation of A. Q15 A body travelling in a straight line with uniform (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct acceleration crosses two points A and B with explanation of A. velocities 20 m/s and 30 m/s respectively. The Q10 Value of ∫ 3 (ax 2 + bx + c) dx speed of the body at the mid-point of A and B is: 0 (1) 9a + b + 3c (1) 24 m/s (2) 9a + 9 b + 3c (2) 25 m/s 2 −− (3) a + b + c (3) 5√26 m/s – (4) 2a + 3b + 3c (4) 10√6 m/s Q11 If a train travelling at 20 m/s is to be brought to Q16 If |A ⃗ − B⃗ | ⃗ ⃗ = |A| = |B | , the angle between A ⃗ rest in a distance of 200 m , then its retardation and B⃗ is: should be: (1) 60o (2) 0o (1) 1 m/s 2 (3) 120o (4) 90o (2) 2 m/s 2 Q17 The sum of the series (3) 10 m/s 2 1 + 1/4 + 1/16 + 1/64 + ⋯ ∞ is: (4) 20 m/s 2 (1) 8/7 (2) 6/5 Q12 A body is thrown vertically upward with speed u (3) 5/4 (4) 4/3 such that the distance travelled by it in fifth and Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Q18 A particle is moving such that its position S (3) − √3 2 varies with time t as S = (3t 3 − 3t 2 − 5) m. (4) 1 2 Its speed at the instant when its acceleration is zero will be: Q24 A person starts waking with constant speed in a (1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s straight line and comes back to the initial (3) 6 m/s (4) 1 m/s position with same speed after 60 minute. Which of the following quantity is zero for entire trip? Q19 A particle starts from the origin, goes along the (1) Average velocity only x-axis up to the point (15m, 0) and then returns (2) Distance along the same line to the point (−15m, 0). The (3) Displacement only distance and displacement of the particle during (4) Both (1) and (3) the trip respectively are: (1) 15 m, 15 m (2) 45 m, 15 m Q25 Velocity v of a particle varies with time t as (3) 15 m, -15 m (4) 45 m, -15 m v = (6t)m/s. The displacement of particle between t = 2 s to t = 4 s is: Q20 A person starts walking and comes back to the (1) 24 m (2) 28 m initial position after 25 min, then which of the (3) 36 m (4) 48 m following quantity is non-zero? (1) Average velocity Q26 Position (x) as a function of time (t) of particle (2) Average speed is given as x = (4t 2 + 3t + 3) m. (3) Displacement Choose the correct statement/s. (4) Both (1) and (3) I. Velocity of particle is not constant. II. Acceleration of particle is variable. Q21 log e 48 + log e 3 2 is equal to: III. At t = 0 , speed of particle is 3 m/s. (1) 2 log e 2 − 3 log e 3 (1) II only (2) 2 log e 2 + 3 log e 3 (2) I only (3) 3 log e 2 + 2 log e 3 (3) II and III only (4) 4 log e 2 − 2 log e 3 (4) I and III only Q22 The acceleration a of a particle moving in a Q27 If the position x of a particle varies with time t as straight line varies with its position s as − − √x = t + 7 , then; a = 2s + 1 , velocity of the particle is zero at (1) Velocity of the particle is inversely s = 0. The corresponding v versus s equation is: proportional to t −−−−−− − (1) v = √2s(s + 1) (2) Velocity of the particle is proportional to t2 −−−−−−− (2) v = 2√s(s + 1) (3) Velocity of the particle is proportional to √t (3) v = 2√ s (4) The particle moves with constant acceleration (4) v = 2s Q28 A body moving with uniform retardation covers 3 Q23 The value of cos(420 ∘ ) is: km before its speed is reduced to half of its initial (1) − 2 1 value. It comes to rest in another distance of: (2) √3 (1) 1 km 2 (2) 2 km Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) 2a (3) 3 km 5 (2) 5a (4) 1 km 3 (3) 2 5 ∫ adt 2 7 Q29 Find the value of 10 5 × 10 3 ? (4) 5 ∫ adt 2 (1) 10 6 (2) 10 4 3 (3) 108 (4) 102 Q35 The unit vector along ^ i + j + k is: ^ ^ (1) ^ ^ ^ i + j +k Q30 Two vectors A and ⃗ B ⃗ are such that ⃗ ⃗ A+ B = C ⃗ √2 and A 2 + B 2 = C 2. Which of the following (2) ^ ^ ^ i + j +k √3 statements, is correct? (3) ^ ^ ^ i − j +k (1) A ⃗ is parallel to B⃗ √3 (2) A ⃗ is anti-parallel to B⃗ (4) ^ ^ i+j √3 (3) A ⃗ is perpendicular to B⃗ (4) A ⃗ and B⃗ are equal in magnitude Q36 SECTION - B (PHYSICS) A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed u Q31 The coordinates of the point where the straight from the top of a tower. If it strikes the ground line y = 2x + 7 intersects the x-axis are: with speed 3u, the time taken by the ball from (1) (7, 0) tower to reach the ground is; (g is acceleration (2) ( −7 , 0) due to gravity) 2 (1) u (3) ( 7 , 0) g 2 (2) 2u (4) (-7, 0) g (3) 3u g Q32 Identify the vector quantity among the following: (4) 4u g (1) Distance (2) Angular momentum Q37 Given below are two statements: one is labelled (3) Heat as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (4) Energy Reason R: Assertion A: Position-time graph of a stationary Q33 Let C ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ then: = A+ B object is a straight line parallel to the time axis. (1) |C |⃗ is always greater than |A|⃗ Reason R: For a stationary object, the position of (2) It is possible to have ⃗ ⃗ |C | < |A| and object does not change with time. ⃗ ⃗ |C | < |B | In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) C is always equal to A + B correct answer from the options given below: (4) C is never equal to A + B (1) A is true but R is false. (2) A is false but R is true. Q34 A body is moving with variable acceleration (a) (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct along a straight line, where a is in m/s2. The explanation of A. average acceleration of body in time interval 2 s (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct to 5 s is: explanation of A. Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Q38 Find the value of (27)2/3 + (125) 2/3 ? (4) a maximum value at x = –1. (1) 36 (2) 34 (3) 16 (4) 25 Q43 For the resultant of the two vectors to be Q39 A person goes to hospital, for taking booster maximum, what must be the angle between dose of the vaccination of covid-19 from his them: home, with uniform speed 20 m/s then returns to (1) 0o (2) 60o home with uniform speed of 10 m/s. If the (3) 90o (4) 180o distance between home and hospital is 500 m, Q44 The value of 6 2 log x +log x then average speed of person for complete 4 is: log x journey will be: (1) 6 (2) 4 (1) 0.53 m/s (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 8 (3) 0.33 m/s (4) 13.33 m/s Q45 A body is moving along a straight line path with Q40 Which of the following statements are correct for constant velocity. At an instant of time the distance and displacement. distance travelled by it is S and its displacement A. Distance depends on the path taken between is D, then: two fixed points while displacement is (1) D < S (2) D > S independent of path taken between two fixed (3) D = S (4) D ≤ S points. Q46 A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) B. Infinite distances and displacements are versus time (t) plot is shown in figure. The possible between two fixed points. maximum speed of the particle is: C. Magnitude of displacement may be equal to or greater than the distance covered. (1) A only (2) A and C only (3) A, B and C (4) A and B only Q41 The initial velocity of a particle is u( at t = 0) (1) 50 m/s (2) 25 m/s and the acceleration a is given by αt 3/2. Which (3) 10 m/s (4) 110 m/s of the following relations is valid? ( v is the velocity at any time t and α is positive constant) Q47 Find 1 + 1 2 + 1 4 + 1 8 + … upto ∞. (1) v = u + αt 3/2 (1) ∞ (2) 1 (2) v = u + 3αt 3 (3) 2 (4) 1.925 2 (3) v = u + 2 αt 5/2 5 Q48 If A ⃗ = 4^ ^ ^ i + 2 j − 3k and B⃗ = ^ ^ ^ i + 3 j + 2k (4) v = u + αt 5/2 then find A ⃗ ⋅ B⃗ Q42 If f (x) = −x 2 + 2x + 4 , then f (x) has: (1) 10 (2) 4 (1) a minimum value at x = 1. (3) 3 (4) 14 (2) a maximum value at x = 1. (3) a minimum value at x = –1. Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Q49 Find x-component of vector A.⃗ Q55 The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He+ is; (1) 0.05 (2) 52.9 (3) 26.45 (4) 105.8 Q56 An element, X has the following isotopic composition; (1) 80 (2) 60 200 199 202 X : 90%, X : 8.0%, X : 2.0% (3) 40 (4) None of these The average atomic mass of the naturally Q50 ∫ (x 2 + x + 2) dx =? occurring element X is close to; (1) (1) 200 amu (2) 201 amu 3 2 x x + + 2x + c 3 2 (2) x 2 + x + 2x + c (3) 202 amu (4) 199 amu 2 2 (3) 3 2 x x 3 + 2 + 2 + c Q57 Rutherford's experiment which established the (4) None of these nuclear model of the atom used a beam of; (1) α-particles which impinged on a metal foil Q51 SECTION - A (CHEMISTRY) and got absorbed. In Bohr's model, if atomic radius of the first orbit (2) cathode rays which impinged on a metal foil is ‘r’ then the radius of the 3rd orbit, is; and ejected electrons. (1) r (2) r 3 (3) helium atoms which impinged on a metal foil (3) 3r (4) 9r and got scattered. Q52 According to Avogadro’s law, equal volumes of (4) helium nuclei which impinged on a metal foil all gases at same temperature and pressure and got scattered. contain; Q58 Which of the following is/are correct? (1) equal moles. (1) Gram molecular weight = molecular weight of (2) equal masses. NA molecules (3) equal densities. (2) 1 mole of molecules = 6.022 × 1023 molecules (4) equal number of molecules. (3) 1 Mole = 1 g molecules Q53 Bohr model of atom is contradicted by; (4) All of these (1) Pauli's exclusion principle. Q59 The (e/m) ratio for an electron is; (2) Planck's quantum theory. (1) 9.109 × 1011 C kg–1 (3) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. (2) 1.942 × 1011 C kg–1 (4) All of these (3) 7.542 × 1011 C kg–1 Q54 11.2 L of a gas at STP weights 14 g. The gas could (4) 1.758 × 1011 C kg–1 be; Q60 11 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at (1) H2 STP. The gas is; (2) CO (1) NO (3) NO2 (2) N2O4 (4) N2O (3) CO (4) CO2 Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Q61 Which of the following is not a fundamental Q67 If the mass of electron is doubled, the speed of particle? electron revolving around Li2+ nucleus will (1) Electron (2) Proton (1) remain same. (2) be doubled. (3) Neutron (4) X-rays (3) be halved. (4) be quadrupled. Q68 In compound A, 1.00 g nitrogen combines with Q62 Bohr's model may be applied to 0.57 g oxygen. In compound B, 2.00 g nitrogen (1) Na10+ ion (2) He atom combines with 2.24 g oxygen. In compound C, (3) Be2+ ion (4) C6+ ion 3.00 g nitrogen combines with 5.11 g oxygen. These results obey the following law; Q63 In the reaction, (1) law of constant proportion. N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2N H3 (g), the ratio by (2) law of multiple proportions. volume of N2, H2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. (3) Dalton’s law. This illustrates the law of; (4) law of conservation of mass. (1) de nite proportion. fi (2) multiple proportions. Q69 Which of the following levels of H and He+ have (3) conservation of mass. the same energy respectively? (4) Avogadra's law of gaseous volumes. I. 1, 2 II. 3, 4 Q64 According to Bohr theory, the angular III. 2, 4 momentum for an electron of 5th orbit is; IV. 3, 6 (1) 5h π (2) 2.5h π (1) I and IV (2) I and II (3) 0.5h π (4) 25h π (3) III and IV (4) I, III and IV Q65 The total mass of reactants is always equal to the Q70 For n = 3 energy level, the number of possible total mass of products in a chemical reaction”. orbitals is; This statement is known as; (1) 1 (2) 3 (1) law of conservation of mass. (3) 4 (4) 9 (2) law of definite proportions. Q71 5.6 litre of oxygen at STP contains; (3) law of equivalent weights. (1) 6.022 × 1023 atoms. (4) law of combining masses. (2) 3.011 × 1023 atoms. Q66 According to Bohr's model, the radius of Ne9+ ion (3) 1.505 × 1023 atoms. in ground state should be (4) 0.7525 × 1023 atoms. (1) o 0.529 A Q72 Given below are two statements. (2) o Statement I: An orbital cannot have more than 0.0529 A one electron. (3) o 5. 29 A Statement II: Number of orbitals present in L- (4) o shell in two. 52. 9 A In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. Q79 How many significant figures are in the number (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 0.00150? incorrect. (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) 6 (4) 2 correct. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are Q80 A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and incorrect. then emits two photons. One photon has a wavelength 400 nm then the wavelength of Q73 If n = 3, then which value of ‘l’ is correct? second photon (in nm) is; (1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 1200 (2) 1600 (3) 2 (4) All of these (3) 800 (4) 400 Q74 The molarity of pure water is: Q81 Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur by mass. What will (1) 100 M (2) 55.6 M be the minimum molar mass of insulin? (3) 50 M (4) 18 M (1) 94.117 g Q75 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an (2) 1884 g atom is determined by the following; (3) 941.2 g 2 (1) 2n (4) 976 g (2) 4l + 2 Q82 As the orbit number increases, the difference in (3) 2l + 1 two consecutive energy levels (4) 4l – 2 (1) remain constant Q76 Which one of the following is not a mixture? (2) increases (1) Tap water (3) decreases (2) Distilled water (4) is unpredictable (3) Salt in water Q83 The number of molecules in 1 mL of CO2 at STP (4) Oil in water is; Q77 The frequency of a photon of wavelength 7500Å (1) 1.12 × 1020 will be; (2) 2.16 × 1020 (1) 4 × 1014 Hz (3) 3.12 × 1021 (2) 4 × 1015 Hz (4) 2.69 × 1019 (3) 0.4 × 1016 Hz Q84 The uncertainty in measuring the speed of a (4) 0.9 × 1014 Hz particle is zero. Uncertainty in measuring its Q78 The law of multiple proportions is illustrated by position will be: the pair of compounds; (1) zero (2) h 4π (1) NaCl and NaBr (3) h (4) infinite 4πm (2) H2O and D2O (3) SO2 and SO3 (4) Mg(OH)2 and MgO Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Q85 Out of X-rays, infrared rays, visible rays and microwaves, the largest frequency is of; Assertion A: Dalton’s theory states that an atom (1) X-rays. (2) IR rays. is indivisible. (3) visible. (4) microwaves. Reason R: An atom is made up of electrons, protons and neutrons. Q86 SECTION - B (CHEMISTRY) In the light of the above statements, choose the Given below are two statements: one is labelled correct answer from the option given below; as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (1) A is true but R is false. Reason R: (2) A is false but R is true. Assertion A: The characteristics of cathode rays (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct do not depend upon the material of electrodes explanation of A. and the nature of the gas present in the cathode (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct ray tube. explanation of A. Reason R: Cathode rays consist of positively charged particles, called electrons. Q90 If an electron in H-atom jumps from one orbit to In the light of the above statements, choose the other, its angular momentum doubles. The correct answer from the options given below: distance of electron from nucleus becomes (1) A is true but R is false. ______ times the initial distance. (2) A is false but R is true. (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) 1 2 (4) 1 4 explanation of A. Q91 The law of definite proportions is not applicable (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct to nitrogen oxide because; explanation of A. (1) nitrogen atomic weight is not constant. Q87 The total number of valence electron in 4.2 g of (2) nitrogen molecular weight is variable. N 3 − ion is; (NA is the Avogadro’s number) (3) nitrogen oxidation number is variable. (1) 1.6 NA (4) oxygen atomic weight is variable. (2) 3.2 NA Q92 Energy of H-atom in the ground state is –13.6 eV, (3) 2.1 NA hence energy in the second excited state is; (4) 4.2 NA (1) –6.8 eV Q88 According to Aufbau principle, the correct (2) –3.4 eV increasing order of energy for multi electron (3) –1.51 eV atom of 3d, 4s and 4p orbitals is; (4) – 4.53 eV (1) 4p < 3d < 4s Q93 Arrange the following in the order of increasing (2) 4s < 4p < 3d mass (atomic mass; O = 16, Cu = 63.5, N = 14). (3) 4s < 3d < 4p I. One atom of oxygen (4) 3d < 4s < 4p II. One atom of nitrogen Q89 Given below are two statements: one is labelled III. 1 ×10–10 moles of oxygen as Assertion A and the other is labelled as IV. 1×10–10 moles of copper Reason R: Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Choose the most appropriate answer from the (4) Electron revolves around the nucleus in option given below; definite orbits. (1) II < I < III < IV Q97 The number of molecules of CO2 present in 44 g (2) I < II < III < IV of CO2 is; (3) III < II < IV < I (1) 6.022 × 1023 (4) IV < II < III < I (2) 12. 044 × 1023 Q94 Match List-I with List-II. (3) 18. 066 × 1023 List-I List-II (4) 3.011 × 1023 De-Broglie A. Δx.Δp ≥ h I. Q98 Which of the following de-Broglie equations is 4π equation correct? Heisenberg (1) h = pλ B. mvr = nh 2π II. uncertainty (2) h = pλ –1 principle (3) h = λp –1 2 Bohr’s radius of H- (4) h = p + λ C. rn = 52.9 n pm III. Z atom Q99 Which of the following has highest mass; Angular (1) 50 g of iron D. λ= IV. momentum is h p (2) 5 moles of nitrogen gas quantized (3) 0.1 g of silver Choose the correct answer from the options (4) 1023 atoms of carbon given below: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I Q100 Given below are two statements: (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I Statement I: Avogadro’s number is a (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV dimensionless quantity. (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I Statement II: Avogadro’s number is equal to the number of atoms or molecules in one mole. Q95 Which of the following contains the largest In the light of the above statements, choose the number of oxygen atoms? most appropriate answer from the option given (1) 1.0 g of O atoms below; (2) 1.0 g of O2 (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) 1.0 g of O3 incorrect. (4) All have the same number of oxygen atoms (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Q96 Which of the following is not a conclusion of correct. Rutherford's atomic model? (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (1) Most of the part inside an atom is empty. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) Almost all mass of an atom is concentrated in incorrect. the nucleus. Q101 SECTION - A (BOTANY) (3) The size of nucleus is very small in comparison Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. fimbriae to the size of atom. of bacteria? Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) They are composed of protein. Smooth Helps in (2) They may be used for attachment. (C) endoplasmic (III) osmoregulation (3) They are small bristle like fibres sprouting out reticulum and excretion of the bacterial cell. Contractile (D) (IV) Synthesis of lipids (4) They contain photosynthetic pigments. vacuole Choose the correct answer from the options Q102 Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a genetic given below: trait, it is normally carried by the: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) centromere. (2) plasmid. (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) chromosome. (4) mesosome. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Q103 _____ is the main arena of cellular activities in (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II both plant and animal cells. Q108 Protein and lipid percentage in erythrocytes (1) Cell Wall membrane is: (2) Cytoplasm (1) 52, 40. (2) 40, 55. (3) Cell Membrane (3) 70, 25. (4) 60, 70. (4) Mitochondria Q109 Cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cell includes all Q104 Ribosomes are the sites of: except: (1) fat synthesis. (1) axoneme. (2) lipid synthesis. (2) microtubules. (3) protein synthesis. (3) microfilaments. (4) carbohydrate synthesis. (4) intermediate filaments. Q105 Elaioplasts are types of leucoplasts that store: Q110 Infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane (1) oils and fats. (2) starch. are called: (3) proteins. (4) nucleic acids. (1) cristae. Q106 In a typical plant cell, maximum volume is (2) thylakoids. occupied by: (3) stroma lamellae. (1) vacuole. (4) lumen. (2) nucleus. Q111 Number of chloroplasts per cell present (3) chloroplast. in mesophyll cell is: (4) endoplasmic reticulum. (1) 20-40. (2) 10-15. Q107 Match List-I with List-II. (3) 15-20. (4) 60-100. List-I List-II Q112 Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of Golgi Power houses of plasma membrane? (A) (I) apparatus the cell (1) Camillo Golgi Packaging of (2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (B) Mitochondria (II) (3) Singer and Nicolson materials (4) Robert Brown Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Q113 Given below are two statements: (3) fission Statement I: Matthias Schleiden and Theodore (4) trapping light energy Schwann together formulated the cell theory. Q117 All are the examples of eukaryotic cells, except: Statement II: Cell theory however, did not (1) protists. (2) plants. explain as to how new cells were formed. (3) animals. (4) bacteria. In the light of the above statements, choose the Q118 The correct sequence of layers of bacterial most appropriate answer from the options given cell envelope from outside to inside is: below: (1) Cell Membrane → Glycocalyx → Cell Wall. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II (2) Glycocalyx → Cell Wall → Cell Membrane. is incorrect. (3) Cell Wall → Glycocalyx → Cell Membrane. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) Glycocalyx → Cell Membrane → Cell Wall. correct. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Q119 The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are cilia and flagella is: incorrect. (1) 9+2. (2) 9+0. (3) 9+1. (4) 9+7. Q114 Which one of the following cell organelle is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system? Q120 Given below are some characters of a cell (1) Golgi complex (2) Mitochondria organelle. Identify the organelle which shows all (3) Vacuoles (4) Lysosomes the characters described below. I. It is a membrane bound space found in the Q115 Given below are two statements: one is labelled cytoplasm. as Assertion A and the other is labelled as II. It contains water, sap,excretory products and Reason R: other materials not useful to the cell. Assertion A: Camillo Golgi first observed III. It has higher concentration of ions than the densely stained reticular structures near the cytoplasm. nucleus. Choose the most appropriate answer from the Reason R: The cis and the trans faces of the options given below. Golgi body are entirely same, but interconnected. (1) Golgi apparatus In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) Lysosome correct answer from the options given below. (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) A is true but R is false. (4) Vacuole (2) A is false but R is true. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the Q121 Match List-I with List-II. correct explanation of A. List-I List-II (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (A) Mycoplasmas (I) Elongated cell explanation of A. (B) Egg of an ostrich (II) Longest cells Q116 Mitochondria divide by: (C) Nerve cells (III) Largest single cell (1) fusion. (D) Tracheid (IV) The smallest cells (2) peripheral doublets. Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Choose the correct answer from the options Q126 Identify the feature not related with the prokaryotes. given below: (1) DNA is associated with histones. (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) Nuclear membrane is absent. (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) Mitochondria is absent. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) Chromatophores are present. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Q127 Identify the longest portion of the bacterial Q122 Movement and accumulation of ions across flagellum. a cell membrane against their concentration gradient is called as: (1) Hook (2) Filament (1) diffusion. (3) Basal body (4) Fimbriae (2) passive transport. Q128 The flat, disc shapes sacs of Golgi apparatus (3) active transport. are called as: (4) osmosis. (1) cristae. (2) tubules. (3) cisternae. (4) vesicles. Q123 Choose the incorrect w.r.t the function of the cell wall. Q129 Centrosome is an organelle usually containing (1) It gives shape to the cell. _______ cylindrical structures called centrioles. (2) It helps in cell-to-cell interaction. (1) three. (2) four. (3) It protects the cell from mechanical damage. (3) two. (4) one. (4) It helps in the formation of intercellular Q130 In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are junctions. synthesised in: Q124 Which of the following cell organelle are not (1) rough endoplasmic reticulum. membrane bound? (2) mitochondria. (1) Vacuoles (3) lysosomes. (2) Ribosomes (4) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. (3) Lysosomes (4) Endoplasmic reticulum Q131 Robert Brown discovered the: (1) endoplasmic reticulum. Q125 Given below are two statements: (2) cytoplasm. Statement I: Thylakoids are arranged in stacks (3) ribosomes. like the piles of coins called grana. (4) nucleus. Statement II: Chlorophyll pigments are not Q132 Identify the organelle in the figure given below present in the thylakoids. and correctly match its function in the options In the light of the above statements, choose the given below. most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) Golgi apparatus - protein synthesis (1) Mitochondria and lysosomes (2) Golgi apparatus - formation of glycolipids (2) Chloroplast and vacuoles (3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum - protein (3) Lysosomes and vacuoles synthesis (4) Nuclear envelope and mitochondria (4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum - formation of Q138 Given below are two statements: glycoproteins Statement I: All eukaryotic cells are not identical. Q133 Match List-I with List-II. Statement II: Plant and animal cells are different List-I List-II as the former possess cell walls. (A) Cis face (I) Mitochondria In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given (B) Trans face (II) Lysosomes below: Maturing face of (C) Lipases (III) (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is the Golgi body incorrect. Sausage Forming face of the (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (D) (IV) correct. shaped Golgi body (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are given below: incorrect. (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV Q139 Given below are two statements: one is labelled (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Reason R: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Assertion A: Cilia and flagella are hair-like Q134 Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the outgrowths of the cell membrane. ______ particles. Reason R: The prokaryotic bacteria also possess (1) food (2) water flagella and these are structurally same like that (3) minerals (4) excretory of the eukaryotic flagella. Q135 Sedimentation coefficient in ribosomes is In the light of the above statements, choose the indirectly a measure of: (1) density and size. correct answer from the options given below. (2) shape and size. (1) A is true but R is false. (3) density and shape. (2) A is false but R is true. (4) only structure. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Q136 SECTION - B (BOTANY) The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in many (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct functions, except: explanation of A. (1) mechanical support. (2) motility. Q140 Which of the following is not an example of (3) maintenance of the shape of the cell. inclusion bodies in prokaryotes? (4) synthesis of carbohydrates. (1) Phosphate granules (2) Cyanophycean granules Q137 Identify the pair of cell organelles that does not contain DNA. (3) Glycogen granules (4) Polysomes Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) cellulose. (2) galactans. Q141 Depending on the ease of extraction, cell (3) mannans. (4) All of these. membrane proteins can be classi ed as: fi (1) only integral. Q147 Each mitochondrian is a double membrane (2) only peripheral. bound structure with the outer membrane and (3) only glycoprotein. the inner membrane dividing its _____ distinctly (4) Both (1) and (2) into two ______ compartment. (1) stroma, aqueous Q142 Gas vacuoles are found in: (2) lumen, aqueous (1) blue-green photosynthetic bacteria. (3) lumen, solid (2) purple and green photosynthetic bacteria. (4) stroma, solid (3) all bacteria. Q148 The endoplasmic reticulum often shows (4) Both (1) and (2) ribosomes attached to their: (1) inner surface. Q143 A cell organelle 'X' is divided into two types on (2) outer surface. the basis of a cell organelle 'Y', that helps in the (3) lumen. protein synthesis. Identify 'X' and 'Y' (4) intracellular space. respectively. (1) X Y Q149 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are: Golgi complex ribosome. (1) specialised granules responsible for food (2) Smooth storage within the cells. (2) structures responsible for maintaining the endoplasmic Mitochondria. shape of the organism. reticulum (3) lying free inside the cells for carrying out (3) Endoplasmic ribosome. various metabolic activities. reticulum (4) membranous extensions into the cytoplasm (4) endoplasmic Lysosome which contain pigments. reticulum. Q150 Microbodies are present in: Q144 The ribosomes of a polysome translate the (1) both plant and animal cells. mRNA into: (2) only plant cells. (1) proteins. (2) fats. (3) only animal cells. (3) carbohydrates. (4) lipids. (4) only fungi. Q145 Omnis cellula-e-cellula’. Q151 SECTION - A (ZOOLOGY) The above statement was given by: Which of the following disorders is characterised (1) Robert Brown. by the proliferation of fibrous tissue? (2) Matthias Schleiden. (1) Asthma (3) Rudolf Virchow. (2) Emphysema (4) Theodore Schwann. (3) Pneumonia (4) Occupational respiratory disorders Q146 Algae have cell wall made of: Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) 20 - 25 times lesser Q152 Given below are two statements: (2) slightly higher Statement I: The urinary bladder of frogs is thin- (3) slightly greater walled and present dorsal to the rectum. (4) 20 - 25 times higher Statement II: Frogs possess a renal portal Q156 Match List I with List II. system. In the light of the above statements, choose the List I List II most appropriate answer from the options given 70 mL of (A) Cardiac cycle (I) below: blood (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Stroke (B) (II) 70-75 min–1 incorrect. volume (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Maximum correct. action 5000 mL per (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (C) potential (III) minute correct. generated by (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are SAN incorrect. Cardiac (D) (IV) 0.8 seconds output Q153 The closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves Choose the correct answer from the options during ventricular systole is due to: given below: (1) increased pressure in the ventricles. (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) increased pressure in the atria. (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (3) closure of the semilunar valves. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) contraction of the atria. (4) A- I, B-IV, C-II, D-III Q154 Read the following statements (I-IV). Q157 In which of the following conditions does a frog I. In frogs, the hind limbs end in five digits and primarily rely on skin for respiration? are membranous. (1) During hibernation II. In frogs, feet have webbed digits that help in (2) During aestivation swimming. (3) When in the water III. Frogs are homeothermic animals. (4) All of these IV. Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism. Choose the option with the incorrect statements. Q158 Given below are two statements: one is labelled (1) I and II only as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (2) II and III only Reason R: (3) III and IV only Assertion A: Heart failure is sometimes called (4) I and III only congestive heart failure. Reason R: Congestion of the lungs is one of the Q155 The solubility of CO2 is ________than that of the main symptoms of heart failures. solubility of O2 in the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. correct answer from the options given below: Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) A is true but R is false. Statement II: Lymph has the same mineral (2) A is false but R is true. distribution as that in plasma. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct In the light of the above statements, choose the explanation of A. most appropriate answer from the options given (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct below: explanation of A. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Q159 Receptors associated with the aortic arch and (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is carotid artery can recognise changes in: correct. (1) the concentration of oxygen and hydrogen (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are ions. correct. (2) the concentration of carbon dioxide and (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are hydrogen ions. incorrect. (3) the concentration of carbon dioxide and oxygen. Q163 Select the incorrect option. (4) concentration of oxygen and temperature. (1) pO2 of tissues = 40 mmHg (2) pCO2 of alveoli = 40 mm Hg Q160 Which of the following statements is incorrect? (3) pO2 of oxygenated blood = 95 mmHg (1) Hypertension is the term for blood pressure (4) pCO2 of tissues = 0.3 mmHg that is higher than normal (120/80). (2) The ECGs obtained from different individuals Q164 Read the following statements (I-V). have roughly different shapes for a given lead I. The walls of the ventricles are much thicker configuration. than that of the atria. (3) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with II. The nodal musculature of the human heart has the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid the ability to generate action potentials only by valves. stimulation with external stimuli. (4) The cardiac output of an athlete will be much III. The heart is endoodermally derived organ higher than that of an ordinary man. only. IV. The heart sounds can be easily heard through Q161 In frogs, the _______ is a small, median chamber a stethoscope. that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and V. ECG is a graphical representation of the sperms to the exterior. electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. cycle. (1) testes (2) cloaca Choose the option with the incorrect statements. (3) rectum (4) kidney (1) I, II and III only Q162 Given below are two statements: (2) II and III only Statement I: Certain factors released by the (3) III, IV and V only tissues at the site of injury can initiate (4) I, IV and V only coagulation. Q165 In frogs, testes are found adhered to the upper part of kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called: Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET (1) camouflage. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) foramen magnum. explanation of A. (3) nasal epithelium. (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (4) mesorchium. explanation of A. Q169 Which of the following equations is correct? Q166 Match List I with List II. (1) CO2 ⟶ H2 CO3 ⟶ HCO − + + H List I List II 3 (2) Carbonic Tracheal anhydrase (A) (I) Amphibians CO2 + H2 O −−−−−→ H2 CO3 respiration Carbonic Branchial anydrase (B) (II) Insects − + −−−−−→ HCO + H respiration 3 (3) CO2 + H2 O ⟶ CH4 + 2O2 Pulmonary Aquatic (C) (III) (4) CO2 + H2 O ⟶ CO + H2 O2 respiration arthropods Cutaneous Terrestrial Q170 Which of the following statements is correct? (D) (IV) (1) The tunica media is an inner lining of respiration organisms Choose the correct answer from the options squamous endothelium. given below: (2) The QRS complex in ECG represents the repolarisation of the ventricles. (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) The systemic circulation takes CO2 and other (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III harmful substances away for elimination. (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) The stroke volume multiplied by the cardiac (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I output gives the heart rate. Q167 Sino-atrial node (SAN) is present in: Q171 Male frogs are distinguished from female frogs (1) left upper corner of the right atrium. by: (2) right upper corner of the left atrium. (1) the presence of sound-producing vocal sacs. (3) right upper corner of the right atrium. (2) possessing a copulatory pad on the first digit (4) left lower corner of the right atrium. of the forelimbs. (3) by webbed digits in feet that help in Q168 Given below are two statements: one is labelled swimming. as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (4) Both (A) and (B) Reason R: Assertion A: Development in frogs is direct. Q172 Given below are two statements: Reason R: Development involves the larval stage Statement I: Each terminal bronchiole gives rise in frogs called tadpoles. to a number of bronchi. In the light of the above statements, choose the Statement II: For inspiration, the intra pulmonary correct answer from the options given below: pressure should be less than the atmospheric (1) A is true but R is false. pressure. (2) A is false but R is true. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: Android App | iOS App | PW Website  NEET Expiratory IRV + ERV + (D) (IV) (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is capacity TV inco