2022 Biology Past Paper PDF

1. Which substance is responsible for the colour of turmeric? (A) Curcumin (B) Vanillin (C) Both A & B (D) None of these Answer: (A) Curcumin Explanation: Curcumin is the active compound in turmeric that gives it its distinct yellow color. 2. Which of the following is used as a...

1. Which substance is responsible for the colour of turmeric? (A) Curcumin (B) Vanillin (C) Both A & B (D) None of these Answer: (A) Curcumin Explanation: Curcumin is the active compound in turmeric that gives it its distinct yellow color. 2. Which of the following is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation reaction? (A) Ni (B) Pd (C) Pt (D) All of these Answer: (D) All of these Explanation: Nickel (Ni), Palladium (Pd), and Platinum (Pt) are all used as catalysts in hydrogenation reactions. 3. Which of the following causes dry skin when taken in excess amount? (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D Answer: (A) Vitamin A Explanation: Excessive intake of Vitamin A can lead to dry skin among other symptoms of hypervitaminosis A. 4. Skeletal muscle is: (A) Non striated and voluntary (B) Striated and involuntary (C) Non striated and involuntary (D) Striated and voluntary Answer: (D) Striated and voluntary Explanation: Skeletal muscles are striated and under voluntary control. 5. Which of the following processes is not restricted to the mitochondria in eukaryotic cells? (A) The citric acid cycle (B) Substrate-level phosphorylation (C) Electron transport (D) Oxidative phosphorylation Answer: (B) Substrate-level phosphorylation Explanation: Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in both the cytoplasm (during glycolysis) and the mitochondria (during the citric acid cycle). 6. The hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric juice: (A) Renin (B) Gastrin (C) Enterogastrone (D) Enterokinase Answer: (B) Gastrin Explanation: Gastrin is a hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric acid by the stomach. 7. The following substances is/are ketogenic: (A) Fatty acids  (B) Leucine (C) Lysine (D) All of them Answer: (D) All of them Explanation: Fatty acids, leucine, and lysine are all ketogenic substances, meaning they can be converted into ketone bodies. 8. This vitamin is needed to prevent a birth defect called Spina Bifida: (A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin A (C) Folate (D) Vitamin E Answer: (C) Folate Explanation: Folate (Vitamin B9) is crucial in preventing neural tube defects such as spina bifida during fetal development. 9. The percentage of water in the human body is: (A) 65 (B) 70 (C) 40 (D) 80 Answer: (A) 65 Explanation: The human body is composed of approximately 60-70% water, with 65% being a common estimate. 10. Fluid movement across the capillary wall is mediated mainly by: (A) Diffusion (B) Filtration (C) Endocytosis (D) Exocytosis Answer: (B) Filtration Explanation: Filtration is the primary process by which fluid moves across capillary walls, driven by hydrostatic and osmotic pressure differences. 11. Minimum protein required to maintain nitrogen balance for a lactating mother: (A) 1.2gm/KgBw (B) 1gm/KgBw (C) 1.5gm/KgBw (D) 1.6gm Answer: (A) 1.2gm/KgBw Explanation: Lactating mothers require increased protein intake to maintain nitrogen balance and support milk production. 12. One of the following is not an aldose: (A) Glucose (B) Galactose (C) Mannose (D) Fructose Answer: (D) Fructose Explanation: Fructose is a ketose, not an aldose. Aldoses are sugars with an aldehyde group, while fructose has a ketone group. 13. Heavy worker is: (A) Teacher (B) Fisherman (C) Stone cutter  (D) Carpenter Answer: (C) Stone cutter Explanation: Stone cutting is a physically demanding job requiring significant energy expenditure, classifying it as heavy work. 14. Liver is rich in: (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Iron (D) Iodine Answer: (A) Vitamin A Explanation: The liver is a major storage site for Vitamin A in the body. 15. What are the ratio of PUFA & SFA present in breast milk? (A) 1.2:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1.5:2.5 (D) 2.5-1.2 Answer: (A) 1.2:1 Explanation: The ratio of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) to saturated fatty acids (SFA) in breast milk is approximately 1.2:1, promoting healthy development in infants. 16. Pearl millet is called as: (A) Finger millet (B) Jowar (C) Bajra (D) Maize Answer: (C) Bajra Explanation: Pearl millet is commonly known as Bajra in India and is a staple grain in many regions. 17. The ducts of liver and pancreas unite into a common duct and open into: (A) Ileum (B) Caecum (C) Colon (D) Duodenum Answer: (D) Duodenum Explanation: The common bile duct from the liver and the pancreatic duct unite and open into the duodenum, the first segment of the small intestine. 18. Which of the following does NOT stimulate insulin secretion? (A) Acetoacetate (B) Glucagon (C) Hypokalaemia (D) Acetylcholine Answer: (C) Hypokalaemia Explanation: Hypokalaemia (low potassium levels) does not stimulate insulin secretion, whereas the other substances can influence insulin release. 19. Which spice is used for toothache? (A) Asafoetida (B) Cloves (C) Mustard seed (D) Turmeric Answer: (B) Cloves  Explanation: Cloves contain eugenol, which has analgesic properties and is commonly used to relieve toothache. 20. The functionally active form of vitamin D is: (A) Cholecalciferol (B) Ergocalciferol (C) Dehydrocholesterol (D) Calcitriol Answer: (D) Calcitriol Explanation: Calcitriol is the active form of Vitamin D, essential for calcium absorption and bone health. 21. Which of the following groups would be most at risk for potassium deficiency? (A) Lactating mothers (B) Pregnant women (C) Anorexics (D) Infants and young children Answer: (C) Anorexics Explanation: Individuals with anorexia are at high risk for potassium deficiency due to inadequate dietary intake and potential purging behaviors. 22. Which type of amino acid is totally absent in breast milk? (A) Glycine (B) Methionine (C) Tryptophan (D) Cysteine Answer: (B) Methionine Explanation: Breast milk contains very low levels of methionine, focusing on other essential amino acids for infant growth. 23. Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase causes: (A) Neonatal tyrosinemia (B) Phenylketonuria (C) Primary hyperoxaluria (D) Albinism Answer: (B) Phenylketonuria Explanation: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder caused by the absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to the accumulation of phenylalanine. 24. Which one of the following is responsible for expending 50% of total energy in infants? (A) Activity (B) Growth (C) Cognitive development (D) Basal metabolism Answer: (D) Basal metabolism Explanation: Basal metabolism accounts for about 50% of an infant's total energy expenditure, essential for maintaining vital functions. 25. Fatigue in muscle does not occur because of: (A) Long refractory period (B) Short refractory period (C) Long absolute period (D) Short absolute period Answer: (B) Short refractory period  Explanation: Muscles have a short refractory period, allowing them to contract repeatedly without fatigue under normal conditions. 26. Dietary fats are transported as: (A) Chylomicrons (B) Liposomes (C) Lipid globules (D) Oil droplets Answer: (A) Chylomicrons Explanation: Chylomicrons are lipoprotein particles that transport dietary fats from the intestines to other locations in the body. 27. Folic acid antagonists used in the treatment of cancer: (A) Methotrexate (B) Trimethoprim (C) Sulfonamide (D) All of them Answer: (A) Methotrexate Explanation: Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist commonly used in cancer treatment to inhibit DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells. 28. The end product(s) of anaerobic catabolism of glucose in muscle tissue is(are): (A) Carbon dioxide and water (B) Lactate (C) Sucrose (D) Ethanol Answer: (B) Lactate Explanation: Under anaerobic conditions, glucose is converted to lactate in muscle tissue during glycolysis. 29. Which of the following is an amphipathic lipid? (A) Phospholipids (B) Fatty acid (C) Bile salts (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above Explanation: Amphipathic lipids contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions, which include phospholipids, fatty acids, and bile salts. 30. The temperature applied in slow freezing process to preserve fruits and vegetables: (A) -15°C to -21°C (B) -20°C to -25°C (C) -5°C to -10°C (D) -18°C to -25°C Answer: (A) -15°C to -21°C Explanation: Slow freezing of fruits and vegetables typically occurs within this temperature range to maintain quality and extend shelf life. 31. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) are the principal transport vehicle for: (A) Cholesterol (B) Phospholipids (C) Triglycerides (D) Free fatty acids Answer: (A) Cholesterol  Explanation: LDL is responsible for transporting cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues. 32. The simplest hydrophilic moiety present in the membrane lipid is: (A) Phosphate group (B) Hydroxyl group (C) Amino group (D) Glucose Answer: (A) Phosphate group Explanation: The phosphate group is a hydrophilic part of membrane lipids like phospholipids, contributing to the amphipathic nature of these molecules. 33. Browning of potatoes is due to the presence of: (A) Anthoxanthins (B) Flavones (C) Tannins (D) None of these Answer: (D) None of these Explanation: The browning of potatoes is primarily due to the oxidation of phenolic compounds by polyphenol oxidase, not directly related to anthoxanthins, flavones, or tannins. 34. Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition: (A) ICSH (B) Prolactin (C) ACTH (D) LH Answer: (B) Prolactin Explanation: Prolactin stimulates the mammary glands to produce milk after childbirth. 35. Which of the following polysaccharides is composed of β-glycosidic bonds? (A) Starch (B) Glycogen (C) Dextrin (D) Cellulose Answer: (D) Cellulose Explanation: Cellulose is a polysaccharide consisting of β-glycosidic bonds, providing structural support in plant cell walls. 36. Which of the following minerals is lacking in milk? (A) Calcium (B) Sodium (C) Iron (D) Potassium Answer: (C) Iron Explanation: Milk contains very low levels of iron, making it insufficient to meet the iron needs, especially in infants. 37. The enzyme superoxide dismutase: (A) To overcome the effects of taking large doses of antacids, which alters blood pH (B) To protect whole grain cereals from rancidity (C) As an important scavenger of free radicals, thus protecting the lipid components of the cell (D) To increase serum cholesterol levels Answer: (C) As an important scavenger of free radicals, thus protecting the lipid  components of the cell Explanation: Superoxide dismutase protects cells by scavenging harmful free radicals. 38. The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrum secreted from mammary gland: (A) IgD (B) IgA (C) IgM (D) IgE Answer: (B) IgA Explanation: IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin in colostrum, providing immune protection to newborns. 39. The composition of dextrose which is prepared from starch is: (A) Glucose + Maltose + Higher saccharide (B) Fructose + Glucose + Higher saccharide (C) Maltose + Maltose + Fructose (D) Maltose + Fructose + Sucrose Answer: (A) Glucose + Maltose + Higher saccharide Explanation: Dextrose is derived from the enzymatic breakdown of starch into glucose, maltose, and higher saccharides. 40. The lipid which accumulates in fatty liver is: (A) Free fatty acids (B) Triglycerides (C) Cholesterol (D) Lipoprotein Answer: (B) Triglycerides Explanation: Triglycerides are the main lipids that accumulate in the liver, leading to fatty liver disease. 41. The number of double bonds present in arachidonic acid: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Answer: (D) 4 Explanation: Arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid with four double bonds. 42. Glycosidic bond in sucrose is: (A) α 1-4 (B) β 1-4 (C) α 1-2 (D) β 1-2 Answer: (C) α 1-2 Explanation: Sucrose is formed by an α-1,2-glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose. 43. Physiological changes associated with scurvy (hemorrhages, joint pain fractures) are caused by: (A) Faulty collagen synthesis (B) Inadequate production of the hormone, thyroxine (C) Failure to synthesize neurotransmitters (D) Failure to absorb sufficient amounts of dietary iron  Answer: (A) Faulty collagen synthesis Explanation: Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C, leading to impaired collagen synthesis and resulting in symptoms like hemorrhages and joint pain. 44. Which of the following definitions describes anorexia nervosa? (A) Irrational fear of obesity & weight gain (B) Extreme weight loss (C) Distorted body image (D) A, B & C Answer: (D) A, B & C Explanation: Anorexia nervosa is characterized by an irrational fear of gaining weight, extreme weight loss, and a distorted body image. 45. Choose the element that prevents the development of dental caries: (A) Fluorine (B) Calcium (C) Phosphorus (D) Sodium Answer: (A) Fluorine Explanation: Fluorine (fluoride) helps to prevent dental caries by strengthening tooth enamel and making it more resistant to acid attacks. 46. Pernicious anemia results due to deficiency of: Options: o (A) Vitamin B1. o (B) Vitamin A. o (C) Vitamin B12. o (D) Iron. Answer: (C) Vitamin B12. Explanation: Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 is crucial for red blood cell production and neurological health. 47. An example of a sulfur-containing amino acid is: Options: o (A) 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid. o (B) 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoic acid. o (C) 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid. o (D) Amino acetic acid. Answer: (A) 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid. Explanation: This is commonly known as cysteine, a sulfur-containing amino acid crucial for protein structure and function. 48. The pregnant woman needs: Options: o (A) The same amount of protein needed by a lactating mother. o (B) Less amount of protein needed by a lactating mother. o (C) Less amount of protein needed by a non-pregnant woman. o (D) None of the above.  Answer: (A) The same amount of protein needed by a lactating mother. Explanation: Protein needs increase during pregnancy to support fetal growth and development, similar to the increased needs during lactation. 49. Which of the following groups contains all polysaccharides? Options: o (A) Maltose, lactose, fructose. o (B) Sucrose, glucose, fructose. o (C) Glycogen, cellulose, starch. o (D) Glycogen, sucrose, maltose. Answer: (C) Glycogen, cellulose, starch. Explanation: Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates composed of multiple monosaccharide units. Glycogen (in animals), cellulose (in plants), and starch (in plants) are all polysaccharides. 51. Select the incorrect statement: (A) Amino acids are substituted methane. (B) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane. (C) Lysine is a neutral amino acid. (D) Lecithin is a phospholipid. Answer: (A) Amino acids are substituted methane. Explanation: Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group (- NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH), not substituted methane. 52. What is the calorie requirement of an Indian reference pregnant woman as per ICMR 2010? (A) 1900 C. (B) 2850 C. (C) 2250 C. (D) None of them. Answer: (B) 2850 C. Explanation: According to ICMR 2010 guidelines, the calorie requirement for an Indian reference pregnant woman is 2850 kilocalories per day. 53. The metabolite excreted in urine in thiamine deficiency: (A) Pyruvate. (B) Glucose. (C) Xanthurenic acid. (D) FIGLU. Answer: (C) Xanthurenic acid. Explanation: Xanthurenic acid is excreted in urine in cases of thiamine deficiency, indicating impaired tryptophan metabolism. 54. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is following type of enzyme: (A) An oxidoreductase. (B) A transferase. (C) A hydrolase.  (D) A lyase. Answer: (A) An oxidoreductase. Explanation: Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is an oxidoreductase enzyme involved in the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetate in alcohol metabolism. 55. Osteoclastic resorption activity of bone increases during: (A) Osteoporosis. (B) Rickets. (C) Craniotabes. (D) Gout. Answer: (A) Osteoporosis. Explanation: Osteoclastic activity increases in osteoporosis, leading to bone resorption and decreased bone density. 56. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid: (A) Lysine. (B) Isoleucine. (C) Glycine. (D) Tryptophan. Answer: (C) Glycine. Explanation: Glycine is a non-essential amino acid because it can be synthesized by the human body. 57. Ornithine cycle completes in: (A) Kidney. (B) Heart. (C) Muscles. (D) Liver. Answer: (D) Liver. Explanation: The ornithine cycle (urea cycle) occurs primarily in the liver, where ammonia is detoxified to urea. 58. The major proteins of blood plasma are: (A) Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen. (B) Collagen, elastin, and fibrinogen. (C) Albumin, glutelin, and p-protein. (D) Actin, myosin, and tubulin. Answer: (A) Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen. Explanation: Albumin, globulin (including immunoglobulins), and fibrinogen are the major proteins found in blood plasma. 59. Stachyose is one of the: (A) Trisaccharide. (B) Tetrasaccharide. (C) Pentasaccharide. (D) Disaccharide. Answer: (B) Tetrasaccharide. Explanation: Stachyose is a tetrasaccharide found in beans and some other vegetables. 60. Source of caproic acid is: (A) Butter. (B) Palm oil. (C) Beef fat.  (D) Olive oil. Answer: (A) Butter. Explanation: Caproic acid, also known as hexanoic acid, is found in butter among other sources. 61. Which out of the following food stuffs has a shortage of lysine? (A) Cereals. (B) Pulses. (C) Milk. (D) Fish. Answer: (A) Cereals. Explanation: Cereals are typically low in lysine content compared to pulses, milk, and fish. 62. Adults with a body mass index (BMI) value of considered obese: (A) 15. (B) 20. (C) 30. (D) 40. Answer: (C) 30. Explanation: A BMI of 30 or more is considered obese in adults. 63. Alkaline-ash diet is given to patients suffering from: (A) Renal uric acid crystal stone. (B) Cholelithiasis. (C) Cirrhosis of liver. (D) Fatty liver. Answer: (A) Renal uric acid crystal stone. Explanation: An alkaline- ash diet is prescribed for patients with renal uric acid crystal stones to reduce the acidity of urine. 64. Which of the following kills bacteria that enter along with food? (A) Pepsin. (B) Mucin. (C) HCl. (D) Lipase. Answer: (C) HCl. Explanation: Hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach kills bacteria that enter along with food, contributing to the body's defense against ingested pathogens. 65. Increased urinary indole acetic acid is diagnostic of: (A) Maple syrup urine disease. (B) Hartnup disease. (C) Homocystinuria. (D) Phenylketonuria. Answer: (B) Hartnup disease. Explanation: Increased urinary excretion of indole acetic acid is characteristic of Hartnup disease, a disorder affecting tryptophan metabolism. 66. Which type of lipid is most specific as a risk factor to develop coronary heart disease? (A) HDL.  (B) LDL. (C) Triglyceride. (D) Chylomicrons. Answer: (B) LDL. Explanation: LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol is most strongly associated with the risk of developing coronary heart disease. 67. Which test is undertaken to differentiate between glucose and fructose? (A) Molisch test. (B) Benedict test. (C) Iodine test. (D) Seliwanoff test. Answer: (D) Seliwanoff test. Explanation: The Seliwanoff test is used to differentiate between glucose and fructose based on the rate of color change in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid. 68. Calorie requirement of boys 10-12 years is: (A) 2010. (B) 2190. (C) 2750. (D) 3020. Answer: (B) 2190. Explanation: The calorie requirement for boys aged 10-12 years is approximately 2190 kilocalories per day. 69. Bile salt acts as an activator of which enzyme: (A) Pepsinogen. (B) Trypsinogen. (C) Lipase. (D) Pancreatic amylase. Answer: (C) Lipase. Explanation: Bile salts help in the emulsification of fats and act as activators for pancreatic lipase, aiding in fat digestion. 70. In diabetes mellitus, the patient drinks more water as there is urinary loss of: (A) Salt. (B) Insulin. (C) Protein. (D) Glucose. Answer: (D) Glucose. Explanation: In diabetes mellitus, excess glucose in the blood spills into the urine (glucosuria), leading to increased urinary output (polyuria) and thirst (polydipsia). 71. Which of the following converts carbohydrates into maltose and glucose? (A) Lipase. (B) Amylase. (C) Trypsin. (D) Pepsin. Answer: (B) Amylase. Explanation: Amylase enzymes break down starches (carbohydrates) into maltose and glucose during digestion. 72. Types of cells in taste buds:  (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. Answer: (B) 3. Explanation: Taste buds contain three types of cells: gustatory cells (taste receptor cells), supporting cells, and basal cells. 73. Fat digestion is facilitated by: (A) Bile juice. (B) Pancreas juice. (C) Gastric juice. (D) Intestinal juice. Answer: (A) Bile juice. Explanation: Bile juice, produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, emulsifies fats to aid in their digestion by pancreatic lipase. 74. One of the following enzymes in glycolysis catalyzes an irreversible reaction: (A) Isomerase. (B) Phosphofructokinase. (C) Phosphoglycerate kinase. (D) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. Answer: (B) Phosphofructokinase. Explanation: Phosphofructokinase catalyzes an irreversible step in glycolysis, regulating the overall rate of glucose metabolism. 75. The absorbed fat in the form of chylomicrons appears first in the: (A) Portal vein. (B) Lymphatic system. (C) Subclavian vein. (D) Capillaries. Answer: (B) Lymphatic system. Explanation: Chylomicrons, carrying absorbed fats, first enter the lymphatic system (through lacteals) before eventually reaching the bloodstream. 76. Most digestion takes place in the: (A) Stomach. (B) Large intestine. (C) Small intestine. (D) Pancreas. Answer: (C) Small intestine. Explanation: The majority of digestion and nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine, facilitated by enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver. 77. Which one of the vitamin A functions as a steroid hormone? (A) Retinal. (B) Retinol. (C) Provitamin A. (D) Beta-carotene. Answer: (B) Retinol. Explanation: Retinol (vitamin A) can function as a steroid hormone, influencing gene expression and cellular functions. 78. Which is the most common precipitant of alcoholic ketoacidosis? (A) Pancreatitis. (B) GI bleed. (C) Alcohol withdrawal without precipitating illness. (D) Infection. Answer: (C) Alcohol withdrawal without precipitating illness. Explanation: Alcoholic ketoacidosis can occur during alcohol withdrawal without an acute precipitating illness, due to metabolic changes. 79. Amylase in saliva begins with the breakdown of carbohydrates into: (A) Fatty acids. (B) Simple sugars. (C) Polypeptides. (D) Amino acids. Answer: (B) Simple sugars. Explanation: Salivary amylase begins the digestion of carbohydrates (starches) into simple sugars like maltose and glucose. 80. The first substance produced in the citric acid cycle is: (A) Acetyl CoA. (B) Oxaloacetate. (C) ATP. (D) Citrate. Answer: (D) Citrate. Explanation: The citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) begins with the formation of citrate from acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate. 81. The nitrogenous base not present in DNA structure: (A) Adenine. (B) Guanine. (C) Cytosine. (D) Uracil. Answer: (D) Uracil. Explanation: Uracil is present in RNA but not in DNA, where thymine (not listed) pairs with adenine. 82. Uric acid is formed by the breakdown of: (A) Purines. (B) Pyrimidines. (C) Urea. (D) All of the above. Answer: (A) Purines. Explanation: Uric acid is a product of purine metabolism in humans, primarily derived from adenine and guanine. 83. Trypsin inhibitors are present in: (A) Cheese. (B) Potato. (C) Beans. (D) Mango. Answer: (C) Beans. Explanation: Trypsin inhibitors, which interfere with protein digestion by inhibiting trypsin enzyme activity, are found in beans and some other legumes. 84. Caloric value of carbohydrate per gram is: (A) 9.45 kcal. (B) 5.65 kcal. (C) 4.1 kcal. (D) 9.0 kcal. Answer: (C) 4.1 kcal. Explanation: Carbohydrates provide approximately 4.1 kilocalories of energy per gram. 85. Choose the element that prevents the development of dental caries: (A) Fluorine. (B) Calcium. (C) Phosphorus. (D) Sodium. Answer: (A) Fluorine. Explanation: Fluorine, typically in the form of fluoride, helps prevent dental caries by strengthening tooth enamel and reducing acid erosion. 86. Which one of the following contains the highest amount of protein? (A) Bengal gram. (B) Green gram. (C) Red gram. (D) Black gram. Answer: (D) Black gram. Explanation: Among the options listed, black gram (urad dal) has the highest protein content per serving. 87. Insulin activates: (A) Lipolysis. (B) Ketogenesis. (C) Gluconeogenesis. (D) Glycolysis. Answer: (D) Glycolysis. Explanation: Insulin promotes glucose uptake by cells and activates glycolysis, leading to the breakdown of glucose for energy production. 88. Which of the following does NOT increase plasma calcium? (A) Parathyroid hormone. (B) Vitamin D. (C) Thyroxine. (D) Calcitonin. Answer: (C) Thyroxine. Explanation: Thyroxine (thyroid hormone) does not directly influence plasma calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone and vitamin D increase calcium levels, while calcitonin decreases calcium levels. 89. Largest leukocyte is: (A) Neutrophil. (B) Lymphocyte. (C) Basophil.  (D) Monocyte. Answer: (D) Monocyte. Explanation: Monocytes are the largest type of leukocytes (white blood cells) and are important in immune response and inflammation. 90. Deficiency of oxidation of fatty acids causes: (A) Pulmonary hypersecretion. (B) Cardiomyopathy. (C) Cirrhosis. (D) Glomerulonephritis. Answer: (B) Cardiomyopathy. Explanation: Deficiency in fatty acid oxidation can lead to cardiomyopathy, a condition affecting the heart muscle. 91. What is a good source of bacteria? (A) Yogurt. (B) Ice cream. (C) Soymilk. (D) Goat's milk. Answer: (A) Yogurt. Explanation: Yogurt is a good dietary source of probiotic bacteria, which are beneficial for gut health. 92. In 2011, the concept of "Food Pyramid" was replaced by: (A) My Plate. (B) My Portion. (C) Food List. (D) Diet Portion. Answer: (A) My Plate. Explanation: The "Food Pyramid" was replaced by "My Plate" in 2011 as a visual guide for healthy eating. 93. Which of the following is a sulfur-containing essential amino acid? (A) Methionine. (B) Cystine. (C) Cysteine. (D) All of them. Answer: (D) All of them. Explanation: Methionine, cystine, and cysteine are all sulfur-containing amino acids, with methionine and cysteine being essential. 94. In which of the following disorders does blood have defective hemoglobin? (A) Hematoma. (B) Hematuria. (C) Hemophilia. (D) Sickle cell anemia. Answer: (D) Sickle cell anemia. Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is characterized by defective hemoglobin (hemoglobin S), which distorts red blood cells into a sickle shape. 95. Which of the following pairs of minerals are commonly involved in the development of dental caries?  (A) Fluorine and calcium. (B) Calcium and phosphorus. (C) Fluorine and phosphorus. (D) Fluorine and magnesium. Answer: (C) Fluorine and phosphorus. Explanation: Fluorine (fluoride) and phosphorus are both involved in dental health, with fluoride helping to prevent caries and phosphorus supporting tooth structure. 96. What is the composition of cow's milk? (A) 75% water, 13% protein, 6% fat, 3% lactose, and 3% minerals. (B) 90% water, 5% protein, 4% fat, 1% lactose, and trace minerals. (C) 80% water, 10% protein, 5% fat, 4% lactose, and 1% minerals. (D) 85% water, 15% protein, 5% fat, 4% lactose, and 1% minerals. Answer: (D) 85% water, 15% protein, 5% fat, 4% lactose, and 1% minerals. Explanation: Cow's milk typically contains approximately 85% water, 15% protein, 5% fat, 4% lactose (milk sugar), and 1% minerals. 97. The substances which do not contain proteins: (A) Amino acids. (B) Casein. (C) Gelatin. (D) Nucleoproteins. Answer: (C) Gelatin. Explanation: Gelatin is derived from collagen but does not contain complete proteins as found in amino acids, casein, or nucleoproteins. 98. Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble? (A) Vitamin B. (B) Vitamin C. (C) Vitamin D. (D) Vitamin C and D. Answer: (C) Vitamin D. Explanation: Vitamin D is fat soluble, meaning it can be stored in the body's fat tissues. Vitamins B and C are water soluble. 99. Which vitamin is not fat soluble? (A) Vitamin A. (B) Vitamin D. (C) Vitamin E. (D) Vitamin K. Answer: (D) Vitamin K. Explanation: Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin, essential for blood clotting and bone health, but not as widely stored in body fat as vitamins A, D, and E. 100. Copper is necessary for the enzyme activity of: - (A) Cytochrome oxidase. - (B) Lipase. - (C) Catalase. - (D) Amylase. Answer: (A) Cytochrome oxidase. Explanation: Copper is a cofactor for the enzyme cytochrome oxidase, involved in cellular respiration and energy production.