Biology Final Exam PDF

1.. Which type of tissue is responsible for secretion and absorption? A. Connective B. Epithelial C. Muscle D. Nervous 2. Which type of tissue includes tendons and holds organs in place? A. Connective B. Epithelial C. Muscle D. Nervous 3. Which type of tissue is involved in contra...

1.. Which type of tissue is responsible for secretion and absorption? A. Connective B. Epithelial C. Muscle D. Nervous 2. Which type of tissue includes tendons and holds organs in place? A. Connective B. Epithelial C. Muscle D. Nervous 3. Which type of tissue is involved in contraction? A. Connective B. Epithelial C. Muscle D. Nervous 4. Which type of tissue is responsible for communication within the body? A. Connective B. Epithelial C. Muscle D. Nervous 5. What is an example of a negative feedback loop? A. Blood clotting B. Childbirth contractions C. Thermoregulation D. Digestion  6. What is an example of a positive feedback loop? A. Blood clotting B. Thermoregulation C. Blood pressure regulation D. Blood sugar regulation 7. What does homeostasis refer to? A. The body's ability to increase its internal temperature B. The body's way of maintaining a constant internal state despite external changes C. The process of cell division D. The body's response to infection 8. Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries D. Lymphatic vessels 9. Which blood vessels are involved in the exchange of materials by diffusion with nearby cells? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries D. Lymphatic vessels  10. Which blood vessels carry blood back to the heart and have one-way valves to prevent backflow? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries D. Lymphatic vessels 11. Which circuit involves the right ventricle pumping blood to the lungs to get rid of carbon dioxide and pick up oxygen? A. Systemic circuit B. Pulmonary circuit C. Coronary circuit D. Lymphatic circuit 12. Which circuit involves pumping blood throughout the whole body? A. Systemic circuit B. Pulmonary circuit C. Coronary circuit D. Lymphatic circuit 13. What is the primary function of the circulatory system? A. Brings oxygen in and expels carbon dioxide B. Removes excess fluids and waste products C. Coordinates muscle functions D. Moves oxygen from the lungs to the heart and pumps nutrients to the rest of the body  14. What is the primary function of the respiratory system? A. Moves oxygen from the lungs to the heart B. Brings oxygen in and expels carbon dioxide C. Removes excess fluids and waste products D. Coordinates muscle functions 15. What is the primary function of the urinary system? A. Moves oxygen from the lungs to the heart B. Brings oxygen in and expels carbon dioxide C. Removes excess fluids and waste products D. Coordinates muscle functions 16.. What is the primary function of the nervous system? A. Moves oxygen from the lungs to the heart B. Brings oxygen in and expels carbon dioxide C. Removes excess fluids and waste products D. Coordinates muscle functions 17. What is blood composed of? A. 60% plasma and 40% cells B. 55% plasma and 45% cells C. 45% plasma and 55% cells D. 50% plasma and 50% cells  18. During which phase is blood pressure at its highest? A. Systolic B. Diastolic C. Both systolic and diastolic D. Neither systolic or diastolic 19.. During which phase is blood pressure at its lowest? A. Systolic B. Diastolic C. Both systolic and diastolic D. Neither systolic or diastolic 20. What is the primary function of red blood cells? A. Carry carbon dioxide B. Act as immune cells C. Carry oxygen D. Remove waste products 21.. What is the primary function of white blood cells? A. Carry carbon dioxide B. Act as immune cells C. Carry oxygen D. Remove waste products 22. Which of the following best describes a negative feedback loop? A. The result of a process causes it to speed up B. The result of a process causes it to slow down or stop C. The process continues at a constant rate D. The process reverses direction  23. What is the primary function of blood platelets? A) Transport oxygen B) Fight infections C) Help prevent and stop bleeding D) Regulate blood pressure 24. What happens when the diaphragm contracts? A) It moves upward B) It moves downward C) It remains stationary D) It moves sideways 25. When does the diaphragm contract? A) During exhalation B) During inhalation C) During swallowing D) During speech 26. What happens when the diaphragm relaxes? A) It moves upward B) It moves downward C) It remains stationary D) It moves sideways 27. When does the diaphragm relax? A) During inhalation B) During exhalation C) During swallowing D) During speech 28. What is the job of the atria and where are they located? A) Pump blood; the two lower larger chambers B) Receive blood; the two upper chambers C) Transport oxygen; throughout the body D) Regulate blood pressure; in the arteries 29. What is the job of the ventricles and where are they located? A) Pump blood; the two lower larger chambers B) Receive blood; the two upper chambers C) Transport oxygen; throughout the body D) Regulate blood pressure; in the arteries 30. Which of the following is part of the cardiovascular system? A) Digestive system B) Pulmonary and systemic circuit C) Nervous system D) Muscular system  31. What is the correct order of air traveling through the respiratory system starting with the trachea? A) Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli B) Trachea, alveoli, bronchi, bronchioles C) Bronchi, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli D) Alveoli, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea 32. Why are capillaries present in the alveoli and what do they do there? A) They transport nutrients B) They filter air particles C) They enable the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the bloodstream and respiratory system D) They produce mucus to trap dust and germs 33. Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system? A) Filtration B) Reabsorption C) Secretion D) Respiration 34. What is the primary function of filtration in the urinary system? A) Reabsorbs water and valuable solutes B) Actively transports excess quantities of substances C) Cleanses blood of metabolic wastes D) Produces urine  35. Which process in the urinary system involves reabsorbing water and valuable solutes before they leave the kidney? A) Filtration B) Secretion C) Reabsorption D) Excretion 36. Which process actively transports excess quantities of substances from the blood into the liquid passing through the kidney? A) Filtration B) Secretion C) Reabsorption D) Circulation 37. What is the functional unit of the kidney? A) Nephron B) Glomerulus C) Tubule D) Capillary 38. What is the job of a nephron? A) Producing hormones B) Filtering plasma, reabsorbing water and solutes, and conserving water while concentrating urine C) Regulating blood pressure D) Storing urine  39. Which of the following best describes the Central Nervous System (CNS)? A) Nerves; receives information B) Brain and spinal cord; processes information and creates responses C) Nerves; transmits information to muscles D) Brain and nerves; receives and processes sensory information 40. Which of the following best describes the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)? A) Brain and spinal cord; processes information B) Nerves; receives sensory information C) Spinal cord; creates responses D) Brain; processes and stores information 41. Which type of receptor is responsible for detecting chemicals involved in taste and smell? A) Photoreceptor B) Mechanoreceptor C) Thermoreceptor D) Chemoreceptor 42. Which type of receptor responds to light and is involved in vision? A) Chemoreceptor B) Photoreceptor C) Mechanoreceptor D) Thermoreceptor  43. Which type of receptor detects physical changes such as touch, hearing, and proprioception? A) Chemoreceptor B) Photoreceptor C) Mechanoreceptor D) Thermoreceptor 44. Which type of receptor is responsible for detecting heat and cold? A) Chemoreceptor B) Photoreceptor C) Mechanoreceptor D) Thermoreceptor 45. Which part of a neuron picks up information from other neurons or cells? A) Axon B) Cell body (soma) C) Axon terminal D) Dendrites 46. Which part of a neuron processes information? A) Axon B) Cell body (soma) C) Axon terminal D) Dendrites 47. Which part of a neuron transmits the electrical message? A) Axon B) Cell body (soma) C) Axon terminal D) Dendrites 48. Which part of a neuron allows the message to exit the cell or neuron? A) Axon B) Cell body (soma) C) Axon terminal D) Dendrites 49. What is gray matter in the brain and spine composed of? A) Axons and axon terminals B) Dendrites and cell bodies of neurons (soma) C) Myelin sheath D) Synapses 50. What is white matter in the brain and spine composed of? A) Dendrites and cell bodies of neurons (soma) B) Axons and axon terminals C) Neurotransmitters D) Glial cells 51. What is neural plasticity? A) The ability of neurons to produce new neurons B) The ability of neurons to form more connections with other neurons C) The degeneration of neurons with age D) The ability of neurons to change their size and shape 52. Which type of muscle is voluntary? A. Cardiac muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Skeletal muscle D. None of the above  53. Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle? A. It has striations B. It is voluntary C. It is found in the heart D. It is found in the stomach 54. Which muscle type is found in the heart and has striations? A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. None of the above 55. What is the basic unit of contraction in a muscle called? A. Myosin B. Actin C. Sarcomere D. Filament 56. Which filament is considered the thick filament in a sarcomere? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Troponin D. Tropomyosin 57. What is the role of myosin in muscle contraction? A. To provide tensile strength B. To pull actin using ATP C. To link muscle to bone D. To link bone to bone 58. Which of the following describes compact bone? A. Honeycomb inner bone B. Hard white outer region C. Found at the tips of bones where joints are located D. Provides flexibility  59. Where is spongy bone typically found? A. In the hard white outer region of bones B. Inside muscles C. At the tips of bones where joints are located D. Connecting muscle to bone 60. Which connective tissue links muscle to bone? A. Ligament B. Tendon C. Cartilage D. Fascia 61. Which connective tissue links bone to bone? A. Ligament B. Tendon C. Cartilage D. Fascia 62. What is the function of synovial fluid in joints? A. Absorbs shock B. Provides structural support C. Generates heat D. Produces red blood cells 63. Which part of the skeleton supports the long axis of the body and protects vital organs? A. Appendicular skeleton B. Skull C. Ribs D. Axial skeleton 64. What is the main function of the appendicular skeleton? A. Supports the long axis of the body B. Protects vital organs C. Allows for movement D. Provides shock absorption  65. What is the correct order of the layers of the skin, from outermost to innermost? A. Hypodermis, Dermis, Epidermis B. Dermis, Hypodermis, Epidermis C. Epidermis, Dermis, Hypodermis D. Epidermis, Hypodermis, Dermis 66. What are microvilli and villi primarily responsible for in the digestive system? A. Producing enzymes B. Absorbing nutrients from digested food C. Secreting bile D. Breaking down food particles 67. Where are villi located in the digestive system? A. Large intestine B. Stomach C. Esophagus D. Small intestine 68. Which type of muscle tissue is responsible for involuntary contractions of the stomach and intestines? A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. Striated muscle 69. Which layer of the skin contains elastic and dense connective tissue? A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Hypodermis D. Subcutaneous layer 70. What is the function of ligaments in the skeletal system? A. Provide flexibility B. Protect internal organs C. Connect muscle to bone D. Connect bone to bone  71. Which part of the nervous system controls involuntary functions like heartbeat and digestion? A. Central nervous system B. Peripheral nervous system C. Autonomic nervous system D. Somatic nervous system 72. What is the primary function of synovial sacs in joints? A. Absorb shock B. Provide structural support C. Generate heat D. Produce red blood cells 73.. What is the primary role of teeth in the digestive system? A. Absorb nutrients B. Produce enzymes C. Mechanical breakdown of food D. Store bile 74. What is the function of saliva in the digestive process? A. Absorb nutrients B. Produce enzymes C. Chemical breakdown of food D. Mechanical breakdown of food 75. Where does most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the digestive system? A. Stomach B. Esophagus C. Large intestine D. Small intestine 76. What is the role of the pancreas in digestion? A. Produces bile B. Stores nutrients C. Absorbs water D. Secretes digestive enzymes 77. What fluid helps digest fats and is stored in the gallbladder? A. Saliva B. Bile C. Pancreatic juice D. Gastric juice 78. What type of relationship exists between humans and the microbiome in the large intestine? A. Parasitic B. Commensal C. Mutualistic D. Competitive 79. What is the final segment of the digestive tract where helpful bacteria break down fiber and produce certain vitamins? A. Small intestine B. Stomach C. Esophagus D. Large intestine 80. Which part of the digestive system primarily breaks down food and transports it to other parts for further digestion and absorption? A. Large intestine B. Small intestine C. Stomach D. Esophagus 81. What distinguishes the roles of the large and small intestines from the rest of the digestive system? A. They produce enzymes for chemical digestion. B. They primarily absorb nutrients and water. C. They mechanically break down food particles. D. They store bile for fat digestion. 82. What defines a biosphere? A. The study of living organisms B. All living and nonliving components on Earth C. The study of ecosystems D. The highest level of biological organization  83.. What is the primary distinction between biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem? A. Biotic components are non-living, while abiotic components are living. B. Biotic components are producers, while abiotic components are consumers. C. Biotic components are living, while abiotic components are non-living. D. Biotic components are decomposers, while abiotic components are recyclers. 84.. What is the fundamental difference between weather and climate? A. Weather changes rapidly, while climate remains constant. B. Weather is short-term, while climate is long-term. C. Weather occurs in the atmosphere, while climate occurs in the oceans. D. Weather affects living organisms, while climate affects non-living entities. 85.. What is responsible for the Earth's seasons? A. Variation in the Earth's distance from the sun B. Changes in the Earth's rotation speed C. Tilt of the Earth's axis D. Fluctuations in solar radiation 86. Where on Earth is the hottest due to direct sunlight? A. Poles B. Equator C. Tropics D. Deserts 87. How is climate primarily determined? A. By the movement of air currents B. By the angle at which the Earth's axis tilts C. By the rotation of the Earth D. By the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere  88. What is the biosphere defined as? A. All living organisms on Earth B. The entire Earth's crust C. All living and nonliving components of Earth D. The uppermost layer of the atmosphere 89. Which activity primarily contributes to the release of Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) into the atmosphere? A. Deforestation B. Mining operations C. Agricultural activities D. Burning of fossil fuels 90. What is the main source of Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) emissions? A. Industrial processes B. Oceanic emissions C. Agricultural activities D. Residential heating 91. Which agricultural practice is a significant contributor to Methane (CH₄) emissions? A. Use of synthetic fertilizers B. Irrigation practices C. Crop rotation D. Enteric fermentation in ruminant animals 92. Where do greenhouse gases like CO₂, N₂O, and CH₄ primarily accumulate? A. Stratosphere B. Troposphere C. Mesosphere D. Thermosphere 93. Which sector releases CO₂ from transportation and industrial processes? A. Residential B. Commercial C. Agricultural D. Industrial  94. What is transpiration in plants? A. Absorption of sunlight through leaves B. Release of water vapor through leaves C. Conversion of carbon dioxide into oxygen D. Uptake of nutrients from the soil 95. What percentage of freshwater is available on Earth, and how much of that is fresh, liquid, and on the surface? A. 1.5% freshwater; 0.01% fresh, liquid, and on the surface B. 2.4% freshwater; 0.02% fresh, liquid, and on the surface C. 3.5% freshwater; 0.05% fresh, liquid, and on the surface D. 4.8% freshwater; 0.1% fresh, liquid, and on the surface 96. What is the primary function of ocean currents like the global ocean conveyor belt? A. Distributing equatorial rainfall B. Regulating marine biodiversity C. Moving nutrients through the oceans D. Distributing heat around the Earth 97. What does the term "rotation" refer to? A. Earth's movement around the sun B. Moon's orbit around the Earth C. Earth's movement on its axis D. Sun's movement through the galaxy 98. What do greenhouse gases do in the atmosphere? A. Reflect sunlight away from Earth B. Absorb ultraviolet radiation C. Absorb heat radiating from Earth's surface D. Create ozone layers in the stratosphere 99. What is convection in relation to heat transfer? A. Transfer of heat through solids B. Transfer of heat through fluids due to molecular motion C. Transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves D. Transfer of heat through chemical reactions 100. How did fossil fuel burning contribute to global warming during the industrial revolution in the 1900s? A. By releasing oxygen into the atmosphere B. By increasing oceanic acidity C. By trapping heat in the atmosphere D. By depleting the ozone layer 101. What does the term "revolution" refer to in astronomy? A. Rotation of the Earth on its axis B. Movement of planets in their orbits C. Earth's orbit around the Sun D. Moon's orbit around the Earth 102. What type of extreme weather events are associated with climate change? A. Blizzards and hailstorms B. Tornadoes and hurricanes C. Melting of polar ice and glaciers, changes in rainfall patterns D. Heatwaves and volcanic eruptions 103. How does global warming exemplify a positive feedback system destabilizing Earth's climate? A. Increased cloud cover reducing solar radiation B. Melting of ice caps releasing carbon dioxide C. Enhanced oceanic cooling through thermal expansion D. Reduction in greenhouse gas emissions 104.. What does species richness indicate about a biological community? A. Total number of individuals in the community B. Total biomass of all species C. Number of different species present D. Percentage of invasive species 105. According to the Competitive Exclusion Principle, what happens when two species compete for the same resources? A. They both thrive B. They coexist indefinitely C. One species outcompetes the other D. They form a symbiotic relationship  106. What does a species' niche describe? A. Its population density B. Its reproductive strategy C. Its role and resources used in its habitat D. Its geographic distribution 107. Which type of species is better adapted to changing environments due to its broad niche? A. Generalists B. Specialists C. Extremophiles D. Invasive species 108. What does commensalism (+/0) signify in ecological terms? A. Both species benefit B. One species benefits, the other is unaffected C. One species benefits, the other is harmed D. Both species are harmed 109. What is predation in an ecological context? A. Mutualistic relationship between species B. Competition for resources within a species C. Consumption of one organism by another D. Symbiotic interaction between predators and prey 110. How is energy primarily lost in ecosystems? A. Absorption by plants B. Conversion to chemical energy C. Conversion to kinetic energy D. Release as heat 111. What happened to the populations of Paramecium aurelia and Paramecium caudatum when they competed for resources? A. Both populations thrived B. Both populations coexisted indefinitely C. One population outcompeted and eliminated the other D. Both populations formed a mutualistic relationship  112. How does predator-mediated coexistence relate to ecological dynamics? A. Predators help prey populations grow excessively B. Predators limit prey population growth C. Predators and prey form mutualistic relationships D. Predators consume only specific prey species 113. What does resource partitioning involve? A. Sharing resources equally among all species B. Evolution of species to use different resources or habitats C. Competition between species for limited resources D. Conversion of resources into energy 114. What defines symbiosis in ecology? A. Competition for resources B. Intimate living together of different species C. Aggressive behavior between species D. Invasive species interactions 115. What characterizes a keystone species in a community? A. High abundance and small ecological impact B. Disproportionate impact on community relative to its abundance C. Small size and wide geographic distribution D. Low dependency on other species 116. Which type of mimicry involves a harmless species mimicking the warning signals of a harmful species? A. Batesian mimicry B. Mullerian mimicry C. Camouflage mimicry D. Aggressive mimicry 117. What characterizes Mullerian mimicry in ecology? A. Harmless species mimicking the warning signals of a harmful species B. Coevolution of two species to share identical physical characteristics C. Convergence of multiple dangerous species on similar morphology D. Adaptation of prey species to blend into their environment  118. What characterizes parasitism in ecology? A. Mutualistic relationship between species B. Consumption of one organism by another C. Host organism benefits, while parasite benefits D. Predatory behavior between species 119. Which of the following organisms is an example of parasitism? A. Lion hunting a zebra B. Cuckoo bird laying eggs in another bird's nest C. Bee pollinating a flower D. Deer grazing on grass 120. What defines an apex predator in a food chain? A. Organism that consumes producers B. Organism at the top of the food chain without natural predators C. Primary consumer in the food chain D. Decomposer breaking down organic matter 121. How much energy is typically lost at each trophic level as you move up the food chain? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 90% 122. Why is energy lost as you move up trophic levels in a food chain? A. Conversion to chemical energy B. Heat loss through cellular respiration C. Increased efficiency of energy use D. Photosynthetic processes 123. What do decomposers primarily do in an ecosystem? A. Prey on other organisms B. Produce oxygen C. Break down dead organic matter D. Absorb sunlight  124. Which of the following represents a simple, linear sequence of who eats whom in an ecosystem? A. Food chain B. Food web C. Trophic level D. Energy pyramid 125. What regulates the population size of apex predators in an ecosystem since they lack natural predators? A. Disease outbreaks B. Climate change C. Bottom-up control D. Top-down control 126. What describes bottom-up control in trophic systems? A. Regulation of lower trophic levels by higher trophic levels B. Regulation of higher trophic levels by lower trophic levels C. Control of energy flow from producers to consumers D. Control of nutrient supply from decomposers to producers 127. What characterizes top-down control in trophic systems? A. Control of energy flow from producers to consumers B. Regulation of lower trophic levels by higher trophic levels C. Regulation of energy flow by decomposers D. Control of nutrient supply from producers to decomposers 128. Which trophic level includes organisms that are primarily herbivores, consuming producers? A. Producer B. Primary consumer C. Secondary consumer D. Tertiary consumer 129. Which trophic level is defined as a photosynthetic organism that forms the base of the food chain? A. Producer B. Primary consumer C. Secondary consumer D. Tertiary consumer  130. What characterizes organisms at the secondary consumer/tertiary consumer trophic level? A. They primarily consume producers B. They are photosynthetic organisms C. They are herbivores D. They are carnivores or omnivores 131. In an experiment testing the effect of caffeine intake on hamster running speed, which variable is the dependent variable? A. Hamsters given high levels of caffeine B. Running speed C. Hamsters given no caffeine D. Caffeine intake 132. What is missing from the experimental study of aspirin as a pain reliever for headaches described? A. A dependent variable B. A control group C. An experimental group D. An independent variable 133. What is the fundamental nature and key characteristic of scientific experimentation that involves the ability to disprove a hypothesis? A. Published B. Measurability C. Falsifiability D. Controllability 134. Which of the following is a TRUE factor that differentiates prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Eukaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles B. Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles like a nucleus C. Prokaryotic cells use DNA as genetic material D. Eukaryotic cells are physically smaller  135. Which form of transport across a cellular membrane does not use energy and flows with a concentration gradient of high to low? A. Exocytosis B. Facilitated diffusion C. Passive transport/Diffusion D. Active transport 136. How does a homozygous recessive trait look like in a Punnett square? A. Bb B. BB C. bb D. BbBb 137. You cross a red and white flower. Some of the offspring are red, some are white but interestingly, many of them are pink. Which of the following explains why the offspring were pink? A. Complete dominance B. Incomplete dominance C. Polygenic inheritance D. Codominance 138. The crystalline gene produces crystalline protein in humans, which is crucial for the eye but also expressed in other organs. If a mutation in this gene results in multiple phenotypic impacts, what is the correct term for this type of gene? A. Incomplete dominance B. Pleiotropy C. Epistasis D. Polygenic traits 139. What does "diploid" mean in genetics, and how many alleles does a diploid cell have for a given gene, and from what type of chromosomes? A. Haploid state; one allele from autosomes B. Single set of chromosomes; multiple alleles C. Two sets of chromosomes; one allele from homologous chromosomes D. Tetraploid state; two alleles from sex chromosomes  140. Why do males tend to exhibit X-linked genetic diseases more frequently than females? A. Males lack Y chromosomes B. Males have XY chromosomes C. Females have two X chromosomes D. Males have one X and one Y chromosome 141. What is an allele? A. A variant of a gene found on a chromosome B. A protein synthesized by genes C. A type of chromosome D. A genetic disorder 142. What is the most common force behind evolution where alleles/traits that allow organisms to survive and reproduce at a higher rate become more common in the population? A. Artificial selection B. Homology C. Natural selection D. Gene flow 143. Whales have tiny thighbones embedded in the skin next to their pelvis. This is a structure that has lost its function through evolution and is an example of: A. Genetic drift B. An analogous structure C. A vestigial structure D. Fossilization 144. How does mutation relate to evolution? A. Nonrandom mating B. Allele frequency C. Genetic drift D. Mutation  145. Two populations of lizards live in the same area. Which of the following evidence would convince you that they are two distinct species? A. The two populations are capable of interbreeding and producing fertile hybrid offspring. B. Individuals in one population display a different color pattern than individuals in the second population. C. The two populations are not capable of interbreeding, or if they do, they produce infertile/nonviable offspring. D. Individuals in one population are noticeably larger than individuals in the second population. 146. Which of the following allowed reptiles to be able to reproduce on land and not return to bodies of water? A. Claws B. Vascular system C. Amniotic Egg D. Waxy cuticles 147. Which of the following describes the rock structures that give us evidence that prokaryotes were the first organisms to live by the secretions & impressions they left behind? A. Strobelight rocks B. Stromatolites C. Fossils D. Chromatolites ### Answers 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. D 34. C 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. B 41. D 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. C 53. D 54. C 55. C 56. B 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. B 61. A 62. A 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. D 68. B 69. B 70. D 71. C 72. A 73. C 74. C 75. D 76. D 77. B 78. C 79. D 80. C 81. B 82. B 83. C 84. B 85. C 86. B 87. D 88. C 89. D 90. C 91. D 92. B 93. D 94. B 95. B 96. D 97. C 98. C 99. B 100. C 101. C 102. C 103. B 104. C 105. C 106. C 107. A 108. B 109. C 110. D 111. C 112. B 113. B 114. B 115. B 116. A 117. C 118. C 119. B 120. B 121. D 122. B 123. C 124. A 125. D 126. B 127. B 128. B 129. A 130. D 131. B 132. B 133. C 134. B 135. C 136. C 137. B 138. B 139. C 140. D 141. A 142. C 143. C 144. D 145. C 146. C 147. B