2021 A Level Past Paper PDF

2021.600.1A 1. Which of the following is a function of integumentary system A.​ To delivery oxygen to cells B.​ To produce hormone C.​ To maintain body temperature D.​ To regulate blood pressure 2. What layer of skin is avascular A.​ Epidermis...

2021.600.1A 1. Which of the following is a function of integumentary system A.​ To delivery oxygen to cells B.​ To produce hormone C.​ To maintain body temperature D.​ To regulate blood pressure 2. What layer of skin is avascular A.​ Epidermis B.​ Endodermis C.​ Hypodermis D.​ dermis 3. which type of sweat gland produces an only lipid secretion A.​ apocrine B.​ eccerine C.​ gland D.​ sweat gland 4. transitional epithelium is located in the lining of what tissue A.​ stomach B.​ ovary C.​ check D.​ Bladder 5. which of the following epithelial tissues consists of a single layer of that cell A.​ simple squamous B.​ simple cuboidal C.​ stratified columnar  D.​ stratified squamous 6 fibroblast activity increases during what physiological activity A.​ sweating B.​ digesting C.​ exercising D.​ scaring 7. Which of the following is a result of using a superficial-to-deep-to-superficial approach to treat A.​ decreased parasympathetic nervous system firing B.​ increased post treatment soreness C.​ decreased post treatment soreness 8. Which of the following is one of the body’s natural defenses against pathogen A.​ exfoliation B.​ maturation C.​ perspiration D.​ potation 9. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing skin cancer A.​ Skin color B.​ Hair color C.​ Height D.​ weight 10. what skin pathology featured a pigmented lesion with an irregular asymmetrical border A.​ melanoma B.​ contact dermatitis C.​ herpes  D.​ lupus erythematosus 11. Cancer that has metastasized to distal organs is defined as being in stage A.​ I B.​ II C.​ III D.​ IV 12. If a client asks a practitioner if a mole looks cancerous. The practitioner should A.​ Refer the client to a dermatologist and offer no opinion B.​ Offer an opinion and tell the client to follow up with a doctor C.​ Check reference materials to compare moles for the client D.​ Reassure the client that moles are normal skin variations 13. Vitamin D metabolism occurs in the skin when the skin is exposed to A.​ Sunlight B.​ Keratin C.​ Water D.​ sebum 14. A second degree of burn is best described as A.​ Require grafting , regeneration impossible B.​ Epidermal and dermal damage, regeneration possible C.​ Full thickness burn, skin is blanched D.​ Pain is absent, nerves are damaged 15. Massage is locally contraindicated for A.​ Keloid scar B.​ Eclampsia C.​ Ichthyosis  D.​ Plantar warts 16. While performing massage on an elderly client, it is important for the practitioner to remember that A.​ Aging causes skin to harden B.​ Bone density increases with age C.​ Aging causes skin thin D.​ Connective tissue is replaced by fat 17. Which of the following strokes is contraindicated for a client with severe osteoporosis A.​ Petrissage B.​ Vibration C.​ Compression D.​ Effleurage 18. Heat, redness, swelling and pain are primary signs of A.​ Dessociation B.​ Inflammation C.​ Contagious D.​ Concussions 19. Which of the following characteristics best describes acute pain A.​ Onset is sudden B.​ Onset is gradual C.​ Persists over a long period of time D.​ Persists 24 hours after injury 20. Which of the following terms identifies the period during which disease symptom partially or A.​ Conversion B.​ Incubation  C.​ Remission D.​ Exacerbation 21. A client’s perception of her condition is classified as a A.​ Portrayal B.​ Diagnosis C.​ Symptom D.​ Prognosis 22. Infectious diseases are caused by A.​ Overuse syndrome B.​ Genetic abnormality C.​ Biological agents D.​ Tissue breakdown 23. The passing of microorganism from one person to another is called A.​ Resistance B.​ Low virulence C.​ Decontamination D.​ Cross contamination 24. The spreading of a disease from one person to another is known as A.​ Metastasis B.​ Contamination C.​ Contagious D.​ Inflammation 25. What is the medical term for something that is an infectious agent capable of causing disease A.​ Turner  B.​ Antibody C.​ Pathogen D.​ antigen 26. Which skin pathology is caused by the staphylococcus bacteria and creates honey-crusted lesions upon the skin. A.​ vitiligo B.​ cellulitis C.​ psoriasis D.​ impetigo 27. Which method is the most complete process of removing pathogen A.​ Sterilization B.​ Disinfection C.​ Sanitation D.​ Purification 28. What effect does washing with soap and water have on the hands A.​ Disinfecting B.​ Sanitizing C.​ Sterilizing D.​ Neutralizing 29. According to center For Disease Control and Prevention standard, a practitioner should wash their hands with soap and clean them under running water for no less than A.​ 5 seconds B.​ 15 seconds C.​ 40 seconds D.​ 60 seconds 30. The application of measure to promote a disease free environment is called  A.​ Inoculation B.​ Immunization C.​ Sanitation D.​ Filtration 31. In the first aid acronym PRICE, the P stands for A.​ Palpation B.​ Pressure C.​ Petrissage D.​ Protection 32. What should a practitioner do with the lines after working on a client who exhibits a contagious skin disorder A.​ Discard them in a biohazard container B.​ Isolate and use them only with his client C.​ Wash them separately in hot water with bleach D.​ Soak them in hot water before washing with other lines 33. In which of the following diseases the practitioner needs special attention to sterilize the massage table A.​ Psoriasis B.​ Vitiligo C.​ Hepatitis B D.​ Tenosynovitis 34. A client reports that last week she had an outbreak of shingles. The blisters have subsided but crusts are still present. The best course of action for the practitioner to take is to A.​ Require the client to reschedule the session for after the lesions have healed B.​ Work with the client but avoid the affected area C.​ Refuse to work with the client without a physician’s prescription D.​ per form the session focusing specifically on the affected areas 35. A client indicates she suffers from rheumatoid arthritis which began to flare up last evening. Examining her hand reveals that they are A.​ contraindicated to the local area. Working on the hands will cause her pain. You can massage all other areas and the session will be beneficial by reducing stress B.​ indicated massage will be beneficial by increasing blood flow, you proceed with treatment by applying ice to both hands for 15 minutes ,followed by light up maintenance in the evening. Extra massage and friction massage to the fingers and wrist joint of hand C.​ contraindicated even without working on her hands. Massage would increase blood flow and could not be beneficial. She can reschedule when her condition is in subacute stage D.​ indicated. Massage would be beneficial by reducing inflammation. You proceed with treatment by applying moist heat to both hands for 20 minutes , followed by light effleurage and friction massage on wrist and hands 36. A practitioner discovers an irregular shaped mole on a client’s back. The best course of action for the practitioner to take is to A.​ Continue with deep transverse friction over the mole to reduce irregularity B.​ Inform the client that he has cancer and recommend it be checked by a health care provide C.​ Inform the client of mole and recommend it be checked by a health care provider D.​ Ignore the mole continue with the session 37. What form of precaution is typically used to prevent transmission of disease if a practitioner has an open cut on her hand A.​ Finger cot B.​ Band aid C.​ Latex glove D.​ Gauze pad 38. A client has an open lesion, practitioner should A.​ Apply latex-free bandages B.​ Reschedule the massage C.​ Apply topical antibiotic D.​ Follow universal precaution 39. A client presents with a bulls eye rash, fever and reported tick bite. His leg is showing big swollen and redness Which of the following question would be most useful to get more information A.​ “have you see a health care provider” B.​ “does the affected area itch” C.​ “when did you first notice the tick was attached” D.​ “Did you use any over the counter medications" 40. While working with a client, the practitioner notices a raised, redden area on the client's back. It is approximately 5 cm in diameter with irregular borders. The first step the practitioner should take is A.​ Tell the client it is a precancerous lesion B.​ Drape the area C.​ Avoid the area D.​ Ask if the client is aware of the area 41. A client presents with swelling in the axillae and has been feeling fatigue, with decreased appetite and night sweats. The best course of action for practitioner to take is to A.​ Require the client to reschedule B.​ Apply heat and light pressure C.​ Require a release from a physician D.​ Apply manual lymph drainage 42. A practitioner has a fever and is vomiting. The practitioner should A.​ Ignore the symptoms and go to work B.​ Cancel appointment until the symptom clear C.​ Wear protective garments and go to work D.​ Wash hands more frequently between the sessions, 43. A practitioner raked his lawn over the weekend and developed an open lesion in the center of his palm. Which of the following is the best course of action for the practitioner to take when performing massage A.​ Cover the area with a bandage  B.​ Wear a protective glove C.​ Use the unaffected hand only D.​ Wash hands for two minutes 44. Which of the following tissue types stores fat A.​ Nervous B.​ Reticular C.​ Cartilage D.​ adipose 45. What are decubitus ulcers A.​ calluses B.​ cold sores C.​ bed cores D.​ blisters 46. A practitioner works on a client that has a decubitus ulcer who is in the hospital. Treatment for the local tissue would be A.​ Indicated B.​ Contraindicated C.​ Performed wearing gloves D.​ Okay without wearing gloves 47. A client presents with a scaly red rash on his face but did not disclose any medical condition on his health history form. The most appropriate action for the practitioner to take is to A.​ Ask the client to reschedule the session B.​ Proceed with the massage, avoiding the rash C.​ Utilize a moisturizing lotion instead of oil D.​ Ask the client for more information about the rash 48. A client presents with acute psoriasis all over the body and is experiencing itching and burning. The client was scheduled for a deep tissue massage. What treatment could the client safety receive  A.​ Swedish massage B.​ Reiki C.​ Rolling D.​ myofascial release 49. The proximal anteromedial tibia is the location of the A.​ Patellar tendon B.​ Cruciate ligament C.​ Pes anserinus D.​ Lesser trochanter 50. In relationship to metacarpals, where are the carpals located A.​ Proximal B.​ Distal C.​ Interior D.​ anterior 51. Bones of the wrist consist of A.​ Eight carpals B.​ Seven tarsals C.​ Eight tarsals D.​ Seven carpals 52. Which of the following is a carpal sesamoid bone A.​ Olecranon B.​ Pisiform C.​ Hamate D.​ Cuboid 53. Tenosynovitis most commonly occurs in which of the following structure A.​ Jaw B.​ Wrist C.​ Neck D.​ Pelvis 54. Which of the following is the most common location for a practitioner to develop osteoarthritis A.​ Pivot joint of the neck B.​ Saddle joint of the hand C.​ Radiocarpal joint of the wrist D.​ Sacroiliac joint of the hip 55. Which cranial bone articulates with seven other cranial bones A.​ Ethmoid B.​ Frontal C.​ Sphenoid D.​ Occipitus 56. Which of the following bones is the trochlea found A.​ Tibia B.​ Radius C.​ Ulna D.​ Humerus 57. The linea aspera is located on the A.​ Anterior surface of tibia B.​ Posterior surface of the femur C.​ Posterior surface of iliac spine D.​ Anterior surface of the sternum 58. Which of the following describes a condyle A.​ Deep indentation in bones B.​ Sharp ridge along the shaft of a bone C.​ Large shallow depression found in joint D.​ Rounded projection often found in joint 59. Which type of cartilage is transparent A.​ Hyaline B.​ Reticular C.​ Fibro D.​ Elastic 60. Which of the following is a synovial joint A.​ Amphiarthrotic B.​ Gomphosis C.​ Diarthrotic D.​ Synchondrosis 61. Which of the following is a diarthrotic joints A.​ Gomphosis B.​ Symphysis C.​ Suture D.​ Hinge 62. What is the largest hinge joint in the body A.​ Elbow B.​ Knee C.​ Hip D.​ Ankle 63. What is the largest diarthrotic joint in the body A.​ Humeroulnar joint B.​ Tibiofemoral joint C.​ Talocrural joint D.​ Radioulnar joint 64. A client says “My knee hurts” which of the following structure could be involved A.​ Fibula, hamate, patella B.​ Femur, patella, tibia C.​ Fibula, patella, radium D.​ Femur, olecranon, patella 65. Which of the following articulate as a saddle joint A.​ Trapezium and first metacarpal B.​ Glenoid fossa and humerus C.​ Femur and acetabulum D.​ Sacrum and ilium 66. Which of the following suture of skull extends from the frontal bone to the occipital bone A.​ Sagittal B.​ Coronal C.​ Lambdoidal D.​ Temporal 67. Which of the following are normal range of motion end feels A.​ Fluid, elastic and firm B.​ Hard, soft and firm C.​ Hypertonic relaxation and pain  D.​ Hypertension, tension and cold 68. Practitioner performs a range of motion for the client but the client feels pain. What is the ending feeling of this pain A.​ Hard end feel B.​ Soft end feel C.​ Empty end feel D.​ No feel 69. Popping and clicking of the jaw are common signs of A.​ Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B.​ Ankylosing spondylitis C.​ Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D.​ Talocrural joint dysfunction 70. A separation of the bones from a joint is considered A.​ Sprained B.​ Arthritic C.​ Dislocated D.​ Hypermobility 71. Osgood-Schlatter disease may cause pain and swelling at the A.​ Greater trochanter B.​ Medial malleolus C.​ Pes anserine D.​ Tibial tuberosity 72. Retrocalcaneal bursitis presents as A.​ Moron’s neuroma B.​ Pain near the heels C.​ Patellar discomfort  D.​ Hammer toes 73. Excessive increase of the normal curvature of the thoracic vertebral column is called A.​ Hyperlordosis B.​ Hyperkyphosis C.​ Hypolordosis D.​ hypokyphosis 74. An anterior pelvic tilt causes A.​ pelvic crossed syndrome B.​ sway back C.​ handedness syndrome D.​ flat back syndrome 75. A client presents with chronic neck pain due to whiplash. The practitioner should A.​ work slowly and deliberately B.​ work quickly and deeply C.​ avoid flexing the neck D.​ avoid extending the neck 76. When a client has a herniated lumbar desired massage is A.​ indicated to reduce herniation B.​ contraindicated when accompanied by a headache C.​ indicated to relieve pain surrounding tissue D.​ completely contraindicated 77. Client has hernia lumbar disorder, what should the practitioner do A.​ no massage  B.​ refer to physician C.​ massage soft tissue surround of spine D.​ deep tissue massage 77. The range of motion of a joint is measured by A.​ Palpation of the joint B.​ Passive joint movement C.​ Stretch reflex testing D.​ Manual muscle testing 78. The type of stretching, client perform entirely by themselves is known as A.​ Passive assisted B.​ Passive C.​ Active D.​ Active assisted 79. Massage therapist move client arm overhead A.​ Active range of motion B.​ Passive range of motion C.​ Resistive range of motion D.​ Range of motion 80. Before assessment passive range of motion the practitioner should A.​ Take a joint through its full range of motion with mild traction B.​ Assess active range of motion C.​ Assess active assistive range of motion D.​ Assess resistive range of motion 81. A client complains of pain on his left shoulder. He has recently had difficulty reaching overhead. The most useful information can be gained from assessing A.​ Range of motion  B.​ Gait C.​ Strength D.​ Weight distribution 82. A client has had difficulty reaching overhead, especially when carrying an object and complains about pain in the left shoulder. When assessing the client, the best first step in a range of motion assessment is A.​ Active B.​ Passive C.​ Resistive D.​ Facilitated 83. A client presents with pain in the right shoulder and has difficulty raising the arm. The practitioner needs to test the client’s range of motion (ROM). Which of the following is the safest type of ROM that the practitioner should use A.​ Active B.​ Static C.​ Resistive D.​ Passive 84. A 55 year-old client had a thyroidectomy five years ago. The client reports restricted range of motion. Which of the following actions is restricted due to scar tissue from this surgery A.​ Abdominal flexion B.​ Thoracic flexion C.​ Cervical extension D.​ Lumbar extension 85. A client experiences pain on palpation, active resistive ROM and passive stretch, what structure is most likely injured A.​ Tendon B.​ Artery  C.​ Cartilage D.​ Meniscus 86. When a practitioner wants to accomplish joint decompression with a client , which of the following approaches would be correct A.​ Manual traction B.​ Golgi tendon release C.​ Orthopedic testing D.​ Trigger point therapy what is a desired effect of manual traction A.​ Joint decompression B.​ Joint compression C.​ Muscle compression D.​ Muscle decompression 87. What type of condition is caused by repetitive motion and tissue breakdown A.​ Genetic B.​ Degenerative C.​ Infection D.​ metabolic 88. Repetitive motion injuries are caused by A.​ Improper footwear B.​ Improper repositioning C.​ Improper body mechanics D.​ lifting with the back 89. A client’s body may develop a compensatory pattern due to  A.​ Negative thoughts B.​ Poor eating habits C.​ Interrupted sleep D.​ Repetitive motions 90. After injury, compensation pattern commonly cause A.​ Improved circulation B.​ Adhesive reduction C.​ Muscle balance D.​ Fascial restriction 91. During the repair phase of healing, stretching is a preferred technique why A.​ A inflammation is still present B.​ The focus is to break down the scar tissue C.​ Want to allow scar formation D.​ To create a mild inflammation 92. The use of good posture, proper positioning of the hands and movement pattern are defined as A.​ Structure integration B.​ Body mechanics C.​ Risk factors D.​ Static loading 93. Which of the following self care techniques will help a practitioner avoid repetitive strain injuries A.​ soak practitioner’s hands in ice baths between massages B.​ continue performing an uncomfortable technique to build up strength C.​ protect the low back during gliding strokes by pushing from the elbow 94. A primary principle of proper body mechanics for a practitioner is to  A.​ Sit throughout the session B.​ Put strokes toward the practitioner C.​ Apply pressure from the shoulder D.​ Put body weight behind the stroke 95. What repetitive wrist actions increase the pressure with the carpal tunnel A.​ Abduction and adduction B.​ Flexion and extension C.​ Pronation and supination D.​ Protraction and retraction 96. Which of the following action should a practitioner take to avoid developing hand and wrist injuries A.​ Work with elbow flexed B.​ Keep the wrist straight C.​ Work with forearm supinated D.​ Keep lumbrical muscles contracted 97. Which of the following condition would benefit from a cytokinetic treatment A.​ Sprained ligament B.​ Cerebral palsy C.​ Raynaud syndrome D.​ Colles’ fracture 98. A client presents with painful redness and warmth in his hand, stating that it seems to be travel up his arm and getting progressive worse since yesterday. The best course of action for the practitioner to take is to A.​ Refer to immediate medical care B.​ Treat as a local contraindication C.​ Perform circulatory massage  D.​ Apply cryotherapy to the affected area 99. Which of the following fossa is an endangerment site A.​ Glenoid B.​ Popliteal C.​ Infraspinatus D.​ Iliac 100. Which of the following system is made up of specialized organs and glands capable of manufacturing secretion called hormones A.​ Endocrine B.​ Circulatory C.​ Nervous D.​ Digestive 101. Which of the following pairs of hormones regulate blood sugar level A.​ Calcitonin and secretin B.​ Calcitonin and insulin C.​ Aldosterone and cortisol D.​ Glucagon and insulin 102. Insulin secretion is stimulated by A.​ Hypothyroidism B.​ Hypokalemia C.​ Increased blood level of glucose D.​ Decreased blood level of glucose 103. Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions A.​ Gallbladder  B.​ Pancreas C.​ Spleen D.​ Liver 104. What gland is located at the base of the brain and secretes hormones that stimulate other glands and organs to act A.​ Pineal B.​ Adrenal C.​ Pituitary D.​ Thyroid 105. Which of the following gland is associated with Graves disease A.​ Thyroid B.​ Thymus C.​ pineal D.​ Adrenal 106. Which endocrine pathology features an overproduction of the hormone A.​ Graves’s disease B.​ Cretinism C.​ Myxedema D.​ Addison’s disease 107. Which of the following is the largest organ of lymphatic system A.​ Spleen B.​ Thymus C.​ Tonsils D.​ Liver 108. Which of the following organ is located on mediastinum A.​ Thyroid  B.​ Thymus C.​ Spleen D.​ Stomach 109. Lymph node have a structural framework that A.​ Support the venous flow of blood B.​ Promotes peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract C.​ Creates a system for filtering toxins D.​ Depends on the heart as a pump to function 110. Lymphedema is a possible concern for client receiving treatment for A.​ Breast cancer B.​ Myocardial infarction C.​ Hypertension D.​ Diabetes 111. Which of the following is a light rhythmic technique used to address edema A.​ Lymphatic drainage massage B.​ Connective tissue massage C.​ Neuromuscular therapy D.​ Craniosacral therapy 112. A client presents with mild swelling eight weeks after surgery. Which of the following approaches would most effective to reduce edema A.​ Petrissage B.​ Tapotement C.​ Manual Lymphatic drainage D.​ Myofascial Release 113. Which of the following condition is contraindicated for manual lymphatic drainage  A.​ Rhinitis B.​ Acute sinusitis C.​ Edema D.​ Osteoarthritis 114. Which of the following condition is systemically contraindicated for a lymphatic drainage massage A.​ Rhinitis B.​ Acute sinusitis C.​ Exacerbated asthma D.​ Edema 115. What organ produce bile A.​ Liver B.​ Gallbladder C.​ Pancreas D.​ Kidney 116. There are over a million of structures in each kidney which filter blood and reabsorb water A.​ Nephron B.​ Calyx C.​ Ureter D.​ Alveolus 117. Pain caused by kidney stones can be mistaken for spasms of the A.​ Rectus abdominis B.​ Piriformis C.​ Quadratus lumborum D.​ Pyramidalis 118. What statement most accurately reflects a Traditional Chinese Medicine approach A.​ Fascial manipulation along nerve pathway is applied  B.​ Energy point along meridian pathways are treated C.​ Muscle imbalances are addressed using Muscle Energy Technique D.​ Energy vortices treated by Zang fu 119. What form of bodywork is described as. The application of direct, perpendicular pressure applied along meridian lines and tsubos to assist Qi in the mind, body and spirit A.​ Swedish B.​ Neuromuscular therapy C.​ Shiatsu D.​ Myosacial release 120. Energetic channel that transport energy throughout the body are called A.​ Chakra B.​ Meridians C.​ Lymph D.​ Tsubos 121. Which of the following bodywork therapies uses pressure on tsubo points A.​ Lonitom B.​ Therapeutic touch C.​ Reiki D.​ Shiatsu 122. Which of the following bodywork therapies originated in Japan A.​ Amma B.​ Shiatsu C.​ Tuina D.​ Watsu 123. To promote balance in the body using finger pressure, what Japanese approach to bodywork would the practitioner use A.​ Tuina B.​ Makeh C.​ Shiatsu D.​ Amma 124. According to the principle of Shiatsu, a pathway that carries Qi throughout the body is a A.​ Chakra B.​ Meridian C.​ Kundalini D.​ tsubo 125. Which of the following technique was developed by Dr James Cyriax in the 1940 and is a form of deep tissue massage A.​ Pincement tapotement B.​ Petrissage C.​ Cross fiber friction D.​ Skin rolling 126. The system of traditional medicine in India is called A.​ Amma B.​ Bhagavad C.​ Prakriti D.​ Ayurveda 127. The Hindu culture was responsible for bringing massage therapy to the practice of A.​ Ayurveda B.​ Shiatsu C.​ Amma  D.​ Tuina 128. In Traditional Chinese Medicine, a meridian is defined as an A.​ Energy gateway connection B.​ External organ energy C.​ Increased use of energy D.​ Internal energy pathway 129. Which of the following is the gentle method of treatment developed by Randolph Stone that was centered on the concept of energy A.​ Reflexology B.​ Craniosacral C.​ Neuromuscular technique D.​ Polarity therapy 130. Polarity therapy is a technique that primary balances which of the following A.​ Chakra B.​ Positive and negative energy C.​ Right and left meridian D.​ Tsubo 131. Which of the following is means universal energy center of gravity is located at abdomen where is the center of the Qi associated A.​ Reiki B.​ Aromatherapy C.​ Shiatsu D.​ Neuromuscular therapy