Anatomy and Physiology Final Study Guide PDF

Chapter 1 6. Which of the following specialties might focus on studying all of the structures of the ankle and foot? a. microscopic anatomy b. muscle anatomy c. regional anatomy d. systemic anatomy 7. A scientist wants to study how the body uses foods and fluids during a marathon run. This scient...

Chapter 1 6. Which of the following specialties might focus on studying all of the structures of the ankle and foot? a. microscopic anatomy b. muscle anatomy c. regional anatomy d. systemic anatomy 7. A scientist wants to study how the body uses foods and fluids during a marathon run. This scientist is most likely a(n) ________. a. exercise physiologist b. microscopic anatomist c. regional physiologist d. systemic anatomist 8. The smallest independently functioning biological unit of an organism is a(n) ________. a. cell b. molecule c. organ d. tissue 10. The body system responsible for structural support and movement is the ________. a. cardiovascular system b. endocrine system c. muscular system d. skeletal system 13. Cancer cells can be characterized as “generic” cells that perform no specialized body function. Thus cancer cells lack ________. a. differentiation b. reproduction c. responsiveness d. both reproduction and responsiveness 14. Humans have the most urgent need for a continuous supply of ________. a. food b. nitrogen c. oxygen d. water 20. What is the position of the body when it is in the “normal anatomical position?” a. The person is prone with upper limbs, including palms, touching sides and lower limbs touching at sides. b. The person is standing facing the observer, with upper limbs extended out at a ninety degree angle from the torso and lower limbs in a wide stance with feet pointing laterally c. The person is supine with upper limbs, including palms, touching sides and lower limbs touching at sides. d. None of the above 21. To make a banana split, you halve a banana into two long, thin, right and left sides along the ________. a. coronal plane b. longitudinal plane c. midsagittal plane d. transverse plane 22. The lumbar region is ________. a. inferior to the gluteal region b. inferior to the umbilical region c. superior to the cervical region d. superior to the popliteal region 25. Which of the following imaging techniques would be best to use to study the uptake of nutrients by rapidly multiplying cancer cells? a. CT b. MRI c. PET d. ultrasonography Chapter 2 4. Together, just four elements make up more than 95 percent of the body’s mass. These include ________. a. calcium, magnesium, iron, and carbon b. oxygen, calcium, iron, and nitrogen c. sodium, chlorine, carbon, and hydrogen d. oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen 5. The smallest unit of an element that still retains the distinctive behavior of that element is an ________. a. electron b. atom c. elemental particle d. isotope 8. Nitrogen has an atomic number of seven. How many electron shells does it likely have? a. one b. two c. three d. four 17. ________ reactions release energy. a. Catabolic b. Exergonic c. Decomposition d. Catabolic, exergonic, and decomposition 19. Chewing a bite of bread mixes it with saliva and facilitates its chemical breakdown. This is most likely due to the fact that ________. a. the inside of the mouth maintains a very high temperature b. chewing stores potential energy c. chewing facilitates synthesis reactions d. saliva contains enzymes 22. Jenny mixes up a batch of pancake batter, then stirs in some chocolate chips. As she is waiting for the first few pancakes to cook, she notices the chocolate chips sinking to the bottom of the clear glass mixing bowl. The chocolate chip batter is an example of a ________. a. solvent b. solute c. solution d. suspension 23. A substance dissociates into K+ and Cl– in solution. The substance is a(n) ________. a. acid b. base c. salt d. buffer 24. Ty is three years old and as a result of a “stomach bug” has been vomiting for about 24 hours. His blood pH is 7.48. What does this mean? a. Ty’s blood is slightly acidic. b. Ty’s blood is slightly alkaline. c. Ty’s blood is highly acidic. d. Ty’s blood is within the normal range 26. What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel? a. glucose b. glycogen c. galactose d. glycerol Chapter 3 6. Because they are embedded within the membrane, ion channels are examples of ________. a. receptor proteins b. integral proteins c. peripheral proteins d. glycoproteins 7. The diffusion of substances within a solution tends to move those substances ________ their ________ gradient. a. up; electrical b. up; electrochemical c. down; pressure d. down; concentration 8. Ion pumps and phagocytosis are both examples of ________. a. endocytosis b. passive transport c. active transport d. facilitated diffusion 10. Choose the term that best completes the following analogy: Cytoplasm is to cytosol as a swimming pool containing chlorine and flotation toys is to ________. a. the walls of the pool b. the chlorine c. the flotation toys d. the water 11. The rough ER has its name due to what associated structures? a. Golgi apparatus b. ribosomes c. lysosomes d. proteins 22. How many “letters” of an RNA molecule, in sequence, does it take to provide the code for a single amino acid? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 23. Which of the following is not made out of RNA? a. the carriers that shuffle amino acids to a growing polypeptide strand b. the ribosome c. the messenger molecule that provides the code for protein synthesis d. the intron 26. What is a primary function of tumor suppressor genes? a. stop all cells from dividing b. stop certain cells from dividing c. help oncogenes produce oncoproteins d. allow the cell to skip certain phases of the cell cycle 28. Which type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells? a. endothelial b. epithelial c. hematopoietic d. mesenchymal Chapter 4 17. Which connective tissue specializes in storage of fat? a. tendon b. adipose tissue c. reticular tissue d. dense connective tissue 18. Ligaments connect bones together and withstand a lot of stress. What type of connective tissue should you expect ligaments to contain? a. areolar tissue b. adipose tissue c. dense regular connective tissue d. dense irregular connective tissue 20. In bone, the main cells are ________. a. fibroblasts b. chondrocytes c. lymphocytes d. osteocytes 22. The cells of muscles, myocytes, develop from ________. a. myoblasts b. endoderm c. fibrocytes d. chondrocytes 24. The cells responsible for the transmission of the nerve impulse are ________. a. neurons b. oligodendrocytes c. astrocytes d. microglia 25. The nerve impulse travels down a(n) ________, away from the cell body. a. dendrite b. axon c. microglia d. collagen fiber 27. Which of the following processes is not a cardinal sign of inflammation? a. redness b. heat c. fever d. swelling 29. Atrophy refers to ________. a. loss of elasticity b. loss of mass c. loss of rigidity d. loss of permeability 30. Individuals can slow the rate of aging by modifying all of these lifestyle aspects except for ________. a. diet b. exercise c. genetic factors d. stress Chapter 7 9. The axial skeleton ________. a. consists of 126 bones b. forms the vertical axis of the body c. includes all bones of the body trunk and limbs d. includes only the bones of the lower limbs 12. The middle cranial fossa ________. a. is bounded anteriorly by the petrous ridge b. is bounded posteriorly by the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone c. is divided at the midline by a small area of the ethmoid bone d. has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum 14. Parts of the sphenoid bone include the ________. a. sella turcica b. squamous portion c. glabella d. zygomatic process 19. A typical lumbar vertebra has ________. a. a short, rounded spinous process b. a bifid spinous process c. articulation sites for ribs d. a transverse foramen 20. Which is found only in the cervical region of the vertebral column? a. nuchal ligament b. ligamentum flavum c. supraspinous ligament d. anterior longitudinal ligament 21. The sternum ________. a. consists of only two parts, the manubrium and xiphoid process b. has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body c. receives direct attachments from the costal cartilages of all 12 pairs of ribs d. articulates directly with the thoracic vertebrae 22. The sternal angle is the ________. a. junction between the body and xiphoid process b. site for attachment of the clavicle c. site for attachment of the floating ribs d. junction between the manubrium and body 23. The tubercle of a rib ________. a. is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra b. is for articulation with the body of a thoracic vertebra c. provides for passage of blood vessels and a nerve d. is the area of greatest rib curvature 24. True ribs are ________. a. ribs 8–12 b. attached via their costal cartilage to the next higher rib c. made entirely of bone, and thus do not have a costal cartilage d. attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum 26. A fontanelle ________. a. is the cartilage model for a vertebra that later is converted into bone b. gives rise to the facial bones and vertebrae c. is the rod-like structure that runs the length of the early embryo d. is the area of fibrous connective tissue found at birth between the brain case bones Chapter 8 19. The radius bone ________. a. is found on the medial side of the forearm b. has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna c. does not articulate with any of the carpal bones d. has the radial tuberosity located near its distal end 20. How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 21. Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone? a. ilium b. pubis c. ischium d. sacrum 22. Which of the following supports body weight when sitting? a. iliac crest b. ischial tuberosity c. ischiopubic ramus d. pubic body 24. The pelvis ________. a. has a subpubic angle that is larger in females b. consists of the two hip bones, but does not include the sacrum or coccyx c. has an obturator foramen, an opening that is defined in part by the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments d. has a space located inferior to the pelvic brim called the greater pelvis 26. What structure contributes to the knee joint? a. lateral malleolus of the fibula b. tibial tuberosity c. medial condyle of the tibia d. lateral epicondyle of the femur 27. Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula? a. calcaneus b. cuboid c. navicular d. talus 28. What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes? a. 7 b. 14 c. 26 d. 30 29. The tibia ________. a. has an expanded distal end called the lateral malleolus b. is not a weight-bearing bone c. is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane d. can be palpated (felt) under the skin only at its proximal and distal ends 32. The clavicle ________. a. develops via intramembranous ossification b. develops via endochondral ossification c. is the last bone of the body to begin ossification d. is fully ossified at the time of birth Chapter 9 23. Synovial joints ________. a. may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis b. are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage c. may be functionally classified as an amphiarthrosis d. are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity 35. A bursa ________. a. surrounds a tendon at the point where the tendon crosses a joint b. secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint c. prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone d. is the strong band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a synovial joint 39. A meniscus is ________. a. a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones b. a fluid-filled space that prevents friction between a muscle tendon and underlying bone c. the articular cartilage that covers the ends of a bone at a synovial joint d. the lubricating fluid within a synovial joint 43. Supination is the motion that moves the ________. a. hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position b. foot so that the bottom of the foot faces the midline of the body c. hand from the palm forward position to the palm backward position d. scapula in an upward direction 44. Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called ________. a. elevation b. eversion c. abduction d. lateral rotation 47. Which statement is true concerning the knee joint? a. The lateral meniscus is an intrinsic ligament located on the lateral side of the knee joint. b. Hyperextension is resisted by the posterior cruciate ligament. c. The anterior cruciate ligament supports the knee when it is flexed and weight bearing. d. The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament. 48. The ankle joint ________. a. is also called the subtalar joint b. allows for gliding movements that produce inversion/eversion of the foot c. is a uniaxial hinge joint d. is supported by the tibial collateral ligament on the lateral side 49. Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest range of motion for rotation? a. cervical b. thoracic c. lumbar d. sacral Chapter 11 9. Where is the temporalis muscle located? a. on the forehead b. in the neck c. on the side of the head d. on the chin 13. Where is the inferior oblique muscle located? a. in the abdomen b. in the eye socket c. in the anterior neck d. in the face 14. What is the action of the masseter? a. swallowing b. chewing c. moving the lips d. closing the eye 18. Which muscle pair plays a role in respiration? a. intertransversarii, interspinales b. semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis c. trapezius, rhomboids d. diaphragm, scalene 19. What is the linea alba? a. a small muscle that helps with compression of the abdominal organs b. a long tendon that runs down the middle of the rectus abdominis c. a long band of collagen fibers that connects the hip to the knee d. another name for the tendinous inscription 21. Which muscle extends the forearm? a. biceps brachii b. triceps brachii c. brachialis d. deltoid 22. What is the origin of the wrist flexors? a. the lateral epicondyle of the humerus b. the medial epicondyle of the humerus c. the carpal bones of the wrist d. the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus 23. Which muscles stabilize the pectoral girdle? a. axial and scapular b. axial c. appendicular d. axial and appendicular 26. What is the largest muscle in the lower leg? a. soleus b. gastrocnemius c. tibialis anterior d. tibialis posterior Chapter 13 13. Aside from the nervous system, which other organ system develops out of the ectoderm? a. digestive b. respiratory c. integumentary d. urinary 15. Which adult structure(s) arises from the diencephalon? a. thalamus, hypothalamus, retina b. midbrain, pons, medulla c. pons and cerebellum d. cerebrum 20. What level of the brain stem is the major input to the cerebellum? a. midbrain b. pons c. medulla d. spinal cord 21. What region of the spinal cord contains motor neurons that direct the movement of skeletal muscles? a. anterior horn b. posterior horn c. lateral horn d. alar plate 23. What blood vessel enters the cranium to supply the brain with fresh, oxygenated blood? a. common carotid artery b. jugular vein c. internal carotid artery d. aorta 27. What condition causes a stroke? a. inflammation of meninges b. lumbar puncture c. infection of cerebral spinal fluid d. disruption of blood to the brain 30. What is the name for a bundle of axons within a nerve? a. fascicle b. tract c. nerve root d. epineurium 31. Which cranial nerve does not control functions in the head and neck? a. olfactory b. trochlear c. glossopharyngeal d. vagus Chapter 14 12. What type of receptor cell is responsible for transducing pain stimuli? a. mechanoreceptor b. nociceptor c. osmoreceptor d. photoreceptor 13. Which of these cranial nerves is part of the gustatory system? a. olfactory b. trochlear c. trigeminal d. facial 14. Which submodality of taste is sensitive to the pH of saliva? a. umami b. sour c. bitter d. sweet 15. Axons from which neurons in the retina make up the optic nerve? a. amacrine cells b. photoreceptors c. bipolar cells d. retinal ganglion cells 16. What type of receptor cell is involved in the sensations of sound and balance? a. photoreceptor b. chemoreceptor c. mechanoreceptor d. nociceptor 19. Visual stimuli in the upper-left visual field will be processed in what region of the primary visual cortex? a. inferior right b. inferior left c. superior right d. superior left 24. Which region of gray matter in the spinal cord contains motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles? a. ventral horn b. dorsal horn c. lateral horn d. lateral column 25. What type of reflex can protect the foot when a painful stimulus is sensed? a. stretch reflex b. gag reflex c. withdrawal reflex d. corneal reflex Chapter 15 7. Which of these physiological changes would not be considered part of the sympathetic fight-or-flight response? a. increased heart rate b. increased sweating c. dilated pupils d. increased stomach motility 12. Which of the following represents a sensory input that is not part of both the somatic and autonomic systems? a. vision b. taste c. baroreception d. proprioception 13. What is the term for a reflex that does not include a CNS component? a. long reflex b. visceral reflex c. somatic reflex d. short reflex 14. What neurotransmitter will result in constriction of the pupil? a. norepinephrine b. acetylcholine c. epinephrine d. serotonin 16. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing? a. norepinephrine dilates the pupil b. epinephrine increases blood pressure c. acetylcholine decreases digestion d. norepinephrine increases heart rate 18. Which nerve projects to the hypothalamus to indicate the level of light stimuli in the retina? a. glossopharyngeal b. oculomotor c. optic d. vagus 20. What is another name for the preganglionic sympathetic fibers that project to the heart? a. solitary tract b. vasomotor nerve c. vagus nerve d. cardiac accelerator nerve 23. A drug is called an agonist if it ________. a. blocks a receptor b. interferes with neurotransmitter reuptake c. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor d. blocks the voltage-gated calcium ion channel 24. Which type of drug would be an antidote to atropine poisoning? a. nicotinic agonist b. anticholinergic c. muscarinic agonist d. α-blocker 25. Which kind of drug would have anti-anxiety effects? a. nicotinic agonist b. anticholinergic c. muscarinic agonist d. α-blocker 26. Which type of drug could be used to treat asthma by opening airways wider? a. sympatholytic drug b. sympathomimetic drug c. anticholinergic drug d. parasympathomimetic drug *Look in the very first module for the link to the Perusall book, load it, and scroll until you find Chapter 14 and 15 to be able to answer the multiple choice from those two chapters! If you need help finding it, you can find me in class or message me on Canvas!* Hopefully this helps you as much as it has helped me! -Cassandra (or Cass!)