CAPM Practice Exam PDF

This full-length practice test is intended to be one of many possible tools that may help as you prepare for the Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)® exam. This practice test is 150 questions and the answer key is on the last page of the document. The official exam is 150 questions and...

This full-length practice test is intended to be one of many possible tools that may help as you prepare for the Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)® exam. This practice test is 150 questions and the answer key is on the last page of the document. The official exam is 150 questions and must be completed within three hours. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form except as permitted by the publisher. Requests to reproduce this material should be directed to the publisher ([email protected]). Although this practice test has been carefully prepared, no warranty is given as to the completeness of the information and the publisher shall not be responsible or liable for any loss or damage whatsoever arising by virtue of such information, instructions, or advice contained within this publication. © 2020 projectprep.org [email protected] www.projectprep.org CAPM is a registered mark of the Project Management Institute, Inc. PMBOK is a registered mark of the Project Management Institute, Inc. 1. The “Develop Project Management Plan” process involves: A. Authorizing the project and providing the PM with authority. B. Integrating subsidiary plans into a comprehensive plan. C. Performing the project work and implementing approved changes. D. Tracking and reporting project progress against objectives. 2. Which of the following is not true about schedule management on agile projects? A. It uses longer cycles to undertake work, review results, and adapt B. The role of the project manager is the same as it would be on a waterfall project C. Rapid, frequent feedback is collected on deliverables D. An on-demand, pull-based scheduling system is used 3. When managing conflict, we may use the technique of ______ to work together to incorporate multiple viewpoints in a cooperative and constructive manner. A. Force/Direct B. Collaborate/Problem Solve C. Withdraw/Avoid D. Compromise/Reconcile 4. When sequencing activities, we must determine relationships (or dependencies) between tasks. _____ dependencies are those that are determined based on knowledge of best practices. A. Mandatory B. Discretionary C. External D. Internal 5. Which of the following processes involves decomposing the project work into smaller components? A. Define Scope B. Sequence Activities C. Collect Requirements D. Create WBS 6. PMOs that train project managers and provide templates and best practices are referred to as: A. Supportive B. Controlling C. Directive D. Strategic 7. Which of the following is not true about procurement management on agile projects? A. Specific sellers may be used to extend the team. B. Buyers and sellers can collaborate to share risk and rewards. C. It is ideal when buyers and sellers are collaborating together in a virtual environment. D. Large projects may use agile for some deliverables and a more stable approach for others. 8. Which of the following lifecycles is commonly used in large organizations with large, enterprise-wide system deployments? A. Agile B. Iterative C. Predictive D. Adaptive 9. According to a RACI matrix, an individual who has ultimate ownership and decision making authority is ______. A. Responsible B. Accountable C. Consulted D. Informed 10. You are working for a car company and are leading a project to construct a new battery factory. Currently, the team is performing the plan risk management process. In doing so, which of the following activities might they complete? A. Exploring options for addressing risks that have been previously identified. B. Determining which risks to transfer to a third party. C. Determining the stakeholders' appetite for risk. D. Meeting with project team members to brainstorm sources of overall project risk. 11. Which of the following processes involves specifying the procurement approach and identifying potential sellers? A. Conduct Procurements B. Manage Communications C. Control Procurements D. Plan Procurement Management 12. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in the “Manage Quality” process? A. Benchmarking, Checklists, Test & Inspection Planning B. Design for X, Quality Improvement Methods, Inspections C. Process Analysis, Audits, Problem Solving D. Data Analysis, Testing & Product Evaluations, Meetings 13. After we identify risks that could impact the success of our project and make assessments of their probability and impact, we can begin quantitative risk analysis. In doing so, we may use ______, which helps to determine the individual project risks that have the most potential impact on project outcomes. One way of displaying this information is through a Tornado diagram. A. Decision Tree Analysis B. Monte Carlo Simulation C. Delphi Techniques D. Sensitivity Analysis 14. Which of the following stages of team development occurs when the team members begin to encounter potential conflict, and if they fail to work together, performance could be impacted? A. Storming B. Performing C. Forming D. Norming 15. Which of the following is a response to negative risks that involves shifting the risk to another party? A. Avoid B. Transfer C. Mitigate D. Accept 16. During the "Manage Quality" process, we may use a(n) ______ to show the relationship between two variables. It helps us understand what might be contributing to a quality defect. A. Affinity Diagram B. Scatter Diagram C. Matrix Diagram D. Interrelationship Digraph 17. All of the following are true about fixed price incentive fee (FPIF) contracts except: A. Incentives are awarded typically for meeting cost, schedule, or performance targets. B. The seller is reimbursed for all allowable expenses. C. The price is set at the start of the contract. D. Bonuses can be given if certain predetermined objectives are achieved. 18. Which of the following processes involves aggregating the costs of individual activities to generate the cost baseline? A. Control Costs B. Estimate Costs C. Estimate Activity Durations D. Determine Budget 19. Which of the following is an input to the “Plan Scope Management” process? A. Project Management Plan B. Scope Management Plan C. Expert Judgment D. Requirements Documentation 20. Which of the following is not true about projects? A. They could end early if a project is terminated B. They could end if the need for the project no longer exists C. They do not impact operational stakeholders D. They produce a unique product, service, or result 21. Which of the following is an input to “Plan Quality Management”? A. Enterprise Environmental Factors B. Quality Management Plan C. Cost-Benefit Analysis D. Quality Checklists 22. All of the following are inputs of the “Identify Stakeholders” process except: A. Project Charter B. Business Documents C. Enterprise Environmental Factors D. Stakeholder Register 23. The “Issue Log” is updated during each of the following processes except? A. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement B. Identify Stakeholders C. Plan Stakeholder Engagement D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement 24. “Define Scope” is performed in which process group? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and Controlling 25. A project manager is overseeing the construction of a new restaurant. She receives feedback from experts on the project that customer seating can be installed one week after painting is complete. In this situation, which of the following processes were used? A. Define Activities B. Sequence Activities C. Develop Schedule D. Control Schedule 26. Which of the following does not occur during the “Initiating” process group? A. Total scope is established B. The charter is authorized C. Finances are committed D. Initial scope is proposed 27. When collecting requirements, _____ may be used. These are focused, interactive sessions with key stakeholders to define product requirements. A. Interviews B. Facilitated Workshops C. Observations D. Benchmarking 28. When collecting requirements, _____ may be used. These are used to gather early feedback on requirements by sharing a working version of a product. A. Prototypes B. Observations C. Benchmarking D. Focus Groups 29. If we apply a/an _____ when sequencing activities on our project, there is a successor that will be delayed with respect to a predecessor. A. Milestone B. Lead C. Activity D. Lag 30. A project is underway to restore a classic video game using newly-available technology. During the project, the team spends time monitoring outcomes of quality activities to evaluate performance against expectations. What is an input to that particular process? A. Quality Control Measurements B. Verified Deliverables C. Work Performance Reports D. Deliverables 31. Which of the following quality management tools are used to organize and display the origins of a quality problem? They are also known as fishbone diagrams. A. Cause and Effect Diagrams B. Histograms C. Control Charts D. Pareto Diagrams 32. Which of the following processes involves approximating the labor and material needed for activities? A. Develop Schedule B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Determine Budget D. Estimate Activity Durations 33. As you manage a project, which of the following questions would not be asked when considering how to tailor the processes within Project Communication Management to your own project? A. How many languages are used? B. Does the organization have a formal knowledge management repository? C. What is the physical location of team members? D. What is the most appropriate lifecycle approach? 34. Which of the following best describes a leader (as opposed to a manger)? A. Do things right B. Focus on operational issues C. Challenge the status quo D. Rely on control 35. Which of the following techniques for developing the schedule involves fast tracking or crashing the schedule to finish remaining project activities on time. A. Critical Path Method B. Agile Release Planning C. Resource Optimization D. Schedule Compression 36. When determining the budget, we may use this technique, which involves reviewing data from previous projects to generate estimates. A. Funding Limit Reconciliation B. Historical Information Review C. Project Funding Requirements D. Cost Aggregation 37. If a project manager aggregates estimates of low-level WBS components to generate an estimate of activity durations, this is referred to as: A. Bottom-Up Estimating B. Analogous Estimating C. Parametric Estimating D. Three-Point Estimating 38. Dependencies that are legally required or inherent in the nature of the project work are: A. Mandatory B. Discretionary C. External D. Internal 39. During the "Manage Quality" process, we may use a/an ______, which organizes causes of defects into categories. A. Design for X B. Affinity Diagram C. Scatter Diagram D. Matrix Diagram 40. A project is underway to implement new payment technology at several retail stores. The new tools will allow the stores to accept cryptocurrency as payment. During the project, the team spends time tracking and reporting project progress against the objectives. In this case, what process is being performed? A. Manage Project Knowledge B. Manage Communications C. Report Management D. Monitor and Control Project Work 41. Which of the following would not be a tailoring consideration in Project Schedule Management? A. Life cycle approach B. Continuous improvement C. Resource availability D. Technology support 42. In Earned Value Management, _____ is the expected cost to finish the remaining project work. A. Budget at Completion (BAC) B. Estimate at Completion (EAC) C. Estimate to Complete (ETC) D. Variation at Completion (VAC) 43. The “Develop Schedule” process involves: A. Documenting how the schedule will be managed. B. Identifying steps required to product project deliverables. C. Approximating the number of work periods needed to complete activities. D. Analyzing activities sequences, estimates, and constraints to create the schedule. 44. When considering cost of quality (COQ), which of the following represents an appraisal cost? A. Testing B. Training C. Process Documentation D. Scrap 45. Which of the following is not an input to “Control Quality”? A. Project Management Plan B. Work Performance Data C. Quality Metrics D. Quality Control Measurements 46. Which of the following is not an input to the “Perform Integrated Change Control” process? A. Work Performance Data B. Project Management Plan C. Change Requests D. Organizational Process Assets 47. The _____ knowledge area includes the processes involved with identifying and engaging with anyone that could be impacted the project. A. Project Communications Management B. Project Stakeholder Management C. Project Integration Management D. Project Resource Management 48. When we acquire resources, if we rank team members to determine who should be selected, the technique of ______ is being used. A. Pre-Assignment B. Negotiation C. Acquisition D. Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis 49. At a grocery store chain, a project is in process to deploy self-checkout registers at all of the company’s California locations. During the project, the team spends time creating and using knowledge to support the project and the organization. What is a tool or technique that may be needed to perform this process? A. Lessons Learned Register B. Project Management Information System C. Information Management D. Issue Log 50. ____ is a contract type in which the cost may not be fully defined at the start of the contract and could be left open-ended. It is useful for staff augmentation. A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) D. Time & Materials (T&M) 51. The “Monitor Risks” process involves: A. Prioritizing risks by evaluating their probability of occurrence and their impact. B. Numerically analyzing the effect of risks on project objectives. C. Defining actions to reduce threats to project. D. Tracking existing risks and identifying/analyzing new risks. 52. In a communication model, after a sender encodes and shares a message, the receiver decodes it and sends which of the following messages? A. Feedback Message B. Transmit Message C. Decode Message D. Acknowledge Message 53. In which of the following project lifecycles is the product developed through a series of repeated cycles and where each increment delivers more functionality? A. Iterative B. Predictive C. Adaptive D. Phased 54. All of the following are examples of projects except: A. Constructing an office building on a newly acquired parcel of land B. Performing regular maintenance on a fleet of vehicles C. Deploying workforce management software across an organization D. Designing a new printer and complementary ink cartridges 55. Which of the following methods of communication involves sending messages, such as memos and e-mails, to a large group of stakeholders that need it? A. Push Communication B. Communication Requirements Analysis C. Interactive Communication D. Pull Communication 56. When measuring the success of a project, we determine whether or not we operated within each of the following constraints except: A. Cost B. Time C. Customer Satisfaction D. Risk 57. Your sponsor wants to know the methods that were used and assumptions that were made when your cost estimate was generated. Which of the following tools or techniques should be used? A. Project Funding Requirement B. Funding Limit Reconciliation C. Vendor Bid Analysis D. Basis of Estimates 58. A project manager on a government project documents the actual costs that were spent on labor and materials over the last week. Those actual costs would be classified as which type of project information? A. Work Performance Information B. Work Performance Data C. Enterprise Environmental Factors D. Work Performance Reports 59. You have just been assigned to lead a project that is already underway. The objective is to design and test a new self-driving car. At this time, the develop team process is being performed. In doing so, which of the following activities might be completed? A. Resolving a conflict between two team members. B. Ensuring that assigned resources are available as originally planned. C. Arranging for key project team members to be at the same site near critical milestones. D. Evaluating alternative resource options, such as renting or buying the needed equipment. 60. As we are gathering information about potential risks on our project, what tool or technique could be used that involves researching the underlying sources of an issue? A. Root Cause Analysis B. Assumptions Analysis C. Delphi Technique D. SWOT Analysis 61. Which of the following is not true about process groups? A. Process groups are not the same as project lifecycle phases. B. Multiple process groups can occur within a single project lifecycle phase. C. Process groups usually only occur once. D. Process groups often overlap each other. 62. Which of the following "spheres of influence" involves the project manager staying current and informed about trends in the marketplace? A. Industry B. Organization C. Project D. Professional Discipline 63. Which of the following is a response to a positive risk that involves working with another party who can help us seize the benefit? A. Transfer B. Enhance C. Share D. Accept 64. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in “Determine Budget” process? A. Financing, Expert Judgement, To-Complete Performance Index B. Funding Limit Reconciliation, Cost of Quality, Parametric Estimating C. Cost Aggregation, Funding Limit Reconciliation, Reserve Analysis D. Historical Information Review, Earned Value Analysis, Trend Analysis 65. A “Probability and Impact Matrix” is a tool used in which of the following processes? A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Management D. Identify Risks 66. When planning for procurements, we use ______ to examine the capabilities of potentials sellers to meet the needs of the project. A. Market Research B. Make or Buy Analysis C. Source Selection Analysis D. Meetings 67. All of the following are components of the PMI Talent Triangle® except: A. Strategic and Business Management B. Leadership C. Technical Project Management D. Industry Knowledge 68. Which of the following techniques is a structured review of the work being performed by a contractor? On a construction project, it could involve “walkthroughs” of the site. A. Claims Administration B. Inspections C. Data Analysis D. Audits 69. In regards to agile projects, which of the following is not true? A. Infrequent checkpoints are valued and prevent distraction B. If the scope is not yet fully defined, projects may not benefit from detailed cost calculations C. Detailed estimates are used for short-term planning horizons D. Close collaboration among team members is critical 70. All of the following are true about the “Project Management Plan” except: A. It grants the project manager authority. B. It may be updated if a change is formally approved. C. It must align with a program management plan, if that exists. D. It documents how the project will be executed. 71. “Direct and Manage Project Work” is performed as part of which process group: A. Initiating B. Executing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Planning 72. A project to widen broadband access in Poland was undertaken to fulfill a politician’s campaign promise. During the project, the team spends time prioritizing risks by evaluating their probability and impact. What is a tool or technique that may be needed to perform this process? A. Sensitivity Analysis B. Simulations C. Organizational Process Assets D. Risk Probability & Impact Assessment 73. Which of the following processes involves defining how to conduct risk management on the project? A. Plan Risk Responses B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Identify Risks D. Plan Risk Management 74. Which of the following subsidiary plans of the project management plan describes how the project team will acquire goods from an external organization? A. Procurement Management Plan B. Resource Management Plan C. Cost Management Plan D. Scope Management Plan 75. “Cost Aggregation” is a technique used in which of the following processes? A. Determine Budget B. Estimate Costs C. Plan Cost Management D. Control Costs 76. A team is designing a video game that will accompany a major motion picture. During that project, the team identifies steps required to produce project deliverables. What is an output from that process? A. Project Schedule Network Diagram B. Basis of Estimates C. Decomposition D. Activity Attributes 77. Which of the following is not a trend or emerging practice in project procurement management? A. Emphasizing the allocation of specific risks to capable entities B. Using trial engagements with candidate sellers C. Using technology, such as web cameras, to improve stakeholder communications D. Minimizing the flow of materials across international borders 78. A technology company that specializes in creating software applications for dental offices is working on several multi-year projects for their customers. However, three new competitors, who are seeking to take away those customers, have recently entered the market. In this scenario, these marketplace conditions would be best classified as which of the following? A. An enterprise environmental factor B. An industry standard C. An organizational process asset D. A lesson that was learned 79. The most important benefit of performing integrated change control is that: E. It allows each stakeholder to feel valued. (All of them can propose changes.) F. It allows for changes to be considered in the context of overall project plans. G. It ensures changes are communicated to all of the affected stakeholders. H. It ensures we have a historical record of proposed changes. 80. ____ is a contract type in which the price is set at the start of the contract and is not subject to change. A. Firm Fixed Price (FFP) B. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) C. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA) D. Time & Materials (T&M) 81. The “Estimate Costs” process involves: A. Documenting how to manage and control costs. B. Aggregating the costs of individual activities to generate the cost baseline. C. Monitoring project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline. D. Approximating the finances needed to complete project activities. 82. Which of the following documents typically outlines who is responsible for approving changes requests? A. Stakeholder Register B. Project Management Plan C. Project Charter D. Change Log 83. The _____ process group involves establishing the total scope and outlining the path to achieve the project objectives. A. Initiating B. Executing C. Planning D. Monitoring and Controlling 84. “Work Performance Information” is an output of which of the following processes? A. Validate Scope B. Sequence Activities C. Direct and Manage Project Work D. Determine Budget 85. All of the following are purposes of the WBS except: A. Articulate the components of work that will satisfy project objectives. B. Subdivide the project work into more manageable components. C. Provide detailed information, such as codes of account, about WBS components. D. Provide a hierarchical structure for assigning costs to work packages. 86. At a recent meeting on a project to design a memory card, you discuss progress being made on planning stakeholder engagement. What is an activity that could be performed during that process? A. Identifying the information needs of stakeholders. B. Preparing a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix. C. Identifying organizational process assets that may influence communication on the project. D. Classifying stakeholders based on their level of authority. 87. Which of the following represents the lowest level in the WBS? A. Activity B. Summary Task C. Project D. Work Package 88. A project manager at a company that designs smartphones works with suppliers in six different countries. During that engagement, she ensures that she is sensitive to differences in cultures. This behavior would fit into which of the following skills set in the PMI Talent Triangle®? A. Technical Project Management B. Political Awareness C. Leadership D. Strategic and Business Management 89. Which of the following is not a trend or emerging practice in project resource management? A. The need to invest in emotional intelligence B. The rise of self-organizing teams C. The use of resource management methods, such as the theory of constraints D. The use of earned value management 90. All of the following is true about requirements or requirements documentation except: A. They describe what the customer or sponsor needs. B. They describe how requirements meet business objectives. C. They can be in written or verbal format. D. The format of requirements documentation may vary from a simple list to complicated matrices. 91. “Pre-Assignment” is a technique used in which of the following processes? A. Develop Team B. Acquire Resources C. Manage Team D. Plan Resource Management 92. _____ requirements are those that describes the features or functions of a product or service. A. Business B. Stakeholder C. Solution D. Project 93. Which of the following is not true about the sequencing of activities? A. It involves documenting the durations of activities. B. It defines the logical order of work given the constraints of the project. C. It helps build a realistic project schedule. D. Every task (except for the first and last) should have both a predecessor and a successor. 94. A ____ is a task that logically comes before another task. A. Work package B. Successor C. Constraint D. Predecessor 95. When sequencing activities, which of the following represents a “finish-to-finish” relationship? A. The awards ceremony cannot start until the race has finished. B. Writing a document is required to finish before editing the document can finish. C. Leveling concrete cannot begin until pouring the foundation begins. D. The first security guard shift cannot finish until the second security guard shift starts. 96. All of the following are tools or techniques of the “Plan Schedule Management” process, except: A. Expert Judgment B. Meetings C. Rolling Wave Planning D. Data Analysis 97. Which interpersonal skill, when used on a project, can help to reduce miscommunication and misunderstandings? It often involves acknowledging and clarifying information. A. Networking B. Active Listening C. Motivation D. Political Awareness 98. “Contingent Response Strategies” are techniques used in which of the following processes? A. Plan Risk Responses B. Monitor Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Identify Risks 99. On a project to construct a new warehouse, two weeks before painting is complete, the activity to lay carpet can begin. This is an example of: A. Task B. Lag C. Activity D. Lead 100. In Earned Value Management, _____ is the authorized budget assigned to an activity. It excludes management reserve. A. Forecasted Cost B. Planned Value C. Earned Value D. Actual Cost 101. Project cost and staffing levels are the highest at what point in the project? A. Starting the project B. Organizing and preparing C. Carrying out the work D. Closing the project 102. “Recognition and Rewards” are tools used in which of the following processes? A. Plan Resource Management B. Acquire Resources C. Develop Team D. Manage Team 103. All of the following are true about portfolios except: A. They may include programs, projects, and operations B. The projects and programs underneath a portfolio may not be directly related C. Elements of the portfolio aim to achieve common strategic objectives D. A portfolio must have at least one program 104. A project has been funded by a foreign country to install several water pumps in Sub-Saharan Africa. The goal is to increase the availability of clean water. During the project, the team spends time documenting the procurement method and identifying potential sellers. Which of the following is not an output from that process? A. Source Selection Criteria B. Agreements C. Bid Documents D. Independent Cost Estimates 105. “Develop Project Management Plan” is included in which of the following knowledge areas? A. Project Integration Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Schedule Management D. Project Cost Management 106. In Earned Value Management, _____ is a measure of cost efficiency on a project. It is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. A. SV B. CPI C. SPI D. CV 107. The “Activity List” is an input to which of the following processes? A. Define Scope B. Define Activities C. Sequence Activities D. Control Schedule 108. Which of the following does not occur during the “Monitoring and Controlling” process group? A. Project risks are identified and analyzed B. Changes are reviewed and approved C. Project health is determined D. Scope is validated 109. The cost performance index (CPI) on a project is 1.25. Given this measurement, which of the following is true? A. Cost efficiency is aligned with our expectation. B. Project work is behind schedule. C. Cost efficiency is better than expected. D. Cost efficiency is less than expected. 110. As a project manager, you know that your projects are impacted by factors that are often outside of your control. Those factors could be internal or external to your organization, and they could have a positive or negative impact. Enterprise environmental factors are one such example. All of the following are enterprise environmental factors except: A. Organizational Culture B. Industry Standards C. Marketplace Conditions D. Project Files from Previous Projects 111. All of the following statements are true concerning operations except: A. They are repeatable B. They support the day-to-day needs of the business C. An example would be to upgrade an inventory system D. Resources often perform the same tasks on a regular basis 112. A project team member was assigned to take random samples of completed phone cases and compare them for color consistency according to the specified quality requirements. In this scenario, which of the following processes were used? A. Control Quality B. Plan Quality Management C. Manage Quality D. Monitor and Control Project Work 113. Which of the following processes involves developing strategies to appropriately engage stakeholders during the project? A. Identify Stakeholders B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement 114. On a given project; earned value (EV) is $30,000; actual cost (AC) is $35,000; and planned value (PV) is $28,000. What is the cost variance (CV)? A. $2,000 B. -$5,000 C. $5,000 D. -$2,000 115. All of the following are inputs to the “Plan Risk Management” process except: A. Project Management Plan B. Risk Register C. Project Charter D. Enterprise Environmental Factors 116. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in “Create WBS” process? A. Expert Judgment and Decomposition B. Inspection and Decision Making C. Data Analysis and Product Analysis D. Context Diagram and Prototypes 117. On a given project; earned value (EV) is $30,000; actual cost (AC) is $35,000; and planned value (PV) is $28,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI)? A. 0.86 B. 1.16 C. 1.07 D. 0.93 118. As you manage a project, which of the following questions would not be asked when considering how to tailor the processes within Project Quality Management to your own project? A. How will quality improvement be managed on the project? B. Is there a collaborate environment for stakeholders and suppliers? C. Are there any specific quality standards in the industry that need to be applied? D. Are buyers and sellers in the same location? 119. Which of the following processes involves performing the project work and implementing approved changes? A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Close Project or Phase C. Direct and Manage Project Work D. Perform Integrated Change Control 120. During a project to plan an event for an association of realtors, the team spends time documenting how they will estimate and control costs. What is a tool or technique that may be needed to perform this process? A. Analogous Estimating B. Cost Aggregation C. Alternatives Analysis D. Expert Judgment 121. Which of the following is a key output of an “Initiating” process that becomes an input to a “Planning” process? A. Stakeholder Register B. Deliverables C. Risk Register D. Requirements 122. Which of the following quality management tools is used for data gathering and involves collecting data for a portion of the population? A. Benchmarking B. Histograms C. Control Charts D. Statistical Sampling 123. On a project to design a new self-driving vehicle, the team spends time developing a detailed product description that will help set boundaries for the project. What is an input to that particular process? A. Stakeholder Register B. Project Scope Statement C. Alternatives Analysis D. Requirements Documentation 124. Which of the following is an example of work performance information? A. Finish Dates of Schedule Activities B. Forecasted Estimates to Complete C. Status Reports D. Memos 125. The “Procurement Statement of Work” is an output of which of the following processes: A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Conduct Procurements C. Control Procurements D. Plan Procurement Management 126. Which of the following is not included in the “Communications Management Plan”? A. Approaches for updating the communications management plan B. The reason for the communication C. Any communication limitations D. All other answers are possible components of the plan 127. Which of the following is not true about programs and projects? A. Programs include a group of related projects B. A project must be part of an overall program C. Projects in the program are managed in a coordinated way D. Programs have larger scope than projects 128. All of the following statements are true concerning the information in the PMBOK® Guide except: A. It provides for a common vocabulary B. It applies to most projects most of the time C. It encompasses all project management knowledge D. It is "generally recognized" and "good practice" 129. A risk has a 50% probability of occurring. If it does occur, the impact would be low, according to our definitions in the Risk Management Plan. If our low risk rating equates to a score of 0.2, what is the overall rating of this risk? A. 0.04 B. 0.10 C. 0.40 D. 0.01 130. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in the “Develop Team” process? A. Virtual Teams, Negotiation, Pre-Assignment B. Conflict Management, Influencing, Project Management Information System C. Colocation, Recognition & Rewards, Training D. Meetings, Individual & Team Assessments, Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis 131. Which of the following is not true about stakeholder management on agile projects? A. Aggressive transparency of project information is encouraged B. Teams go through layers of management to facilitate timely, productive discussions. C. Stakeholders are invited to project meetings in public spaces to ensure issues surface quickly. D. It requires active engagement and involvement with project stakeholders. 132. All of the following are true about time and materials (T&M) contracts except: A. The scope may not be fully defined at the start of the contract. B. The contract could be left open-ended. C. They are useful for staff augmentation. D. They cannot include cost or time limits. 133. Which of the following is not true about projectized organizations? A. Project managers hold more authority than functional managers B. Resource availability for projects is high C. Functional managers control less of the budgets than project managers D. Project managers have roles that are part-time 134. A project manager is preparing a communications management plan for a project that includes constructing a new wing in a hospital that will focus on the treatment of cancer patients. Which of the following would not be included in that document? A. The information needs of your stakeholders B. A list of resources that will be allocated to communication activities C. A description of strategies that will be used to engage those impacted by the project D. The process that the project manager or stakeholders can use to escalate concerns 135. All of the following statements are true about project phases except: E. At the end of a phase, there is a transfer of work product F. A project can have one or more phases G. They are a collection of project activities that creates deliverables H. Phases cannot overlap 136. Which of the following is an input to the “Develop Schedule” process? A. Duration Estimates B. Parametric Estimating C. Schedule Data D. Cost Baseline 137. The _____ knowledge area includes the processes that define the work required (and only the work required) to complete the project. A. Project Scope Management B. Project Time Management C. Project Integration Management D. Project Quality Management 138. Which of the following is a tool or technique of the “Plan Communications Management” process? A. Project Communications B. Communications Management Plan C. Negotiation D. Communication Requirements Analysis 139. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in “Sequence Activities” process? A. Dependency Determination and Bottom-Up Estimating B. Project Management Information System and Schedule Network Analysis C. Precedence Diagramming Method and Leads & Lags D. Critical Path Method and Decomposition 140. “Selected Sellers” are an output of which of the following processes? A. Plan Procurement Management B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Conduct Procurements D. Control Procurements 141. During a project to migrate user data between database technologies, the project manager spends time tracking team member performance, providing feedback, and resolving issues. What is an output from that process? A. Project Team Assignments B. Change Requests C. Team Charter D. Enterprise Environmental Factors 142. All of the following are enterprise environmental factors except: A. Organizational Culture B. Industry Standards C. Project Files from Previous Projects D. Marketplace Conditions 143. A project manager is working with a team to automate several manufacturing steps at a tire production plant. At this point, she needs to understand what process should be used when the project team (or stakeholders) need to escalate concerns. Which document should be reviewed to find this information? A. Communications Management Plan B. Risk Management Plan C. Stakeholder Register D. Stakeholder Engagement Plan 144. As you manage a project, which of the following questions would not be asked when considering how to tailor the processes within Project Integration Management to your own project? A. How will historical information be made available to future projects? B. What special resources are needed in the industry? C. What is an appropriate project lifecycle? D. How will change be managed on the project? 145. A project to implement enterprise resource planning software within a government agency is underway. Currently, the team is performing the control scope process. In doing so, which of the following activities might they complete? A. Determining which of the documented requirements will be completed as part of the project. B. Reviewing verified deliverables with the sponsor to determine if they have been completed properly. C. Splitting the work of the project to make it easier to manage and monitor. D. Evaluating the completion of project deliverables and preventing scope creep. 146. All of the following are inputs to the “Plan Cost Management” process except: A. Organizational Process Assets B. Project Management Plan C. Project Funding Requirements D. Enterprise Environmental Factors 147. All of the following are inputs to the “Monitor Communications” process except: A. Project Communications B. Issue Log C. Communication Methods D. Work Performance Data 148. On a project to identify a solution to address a major software vulnerability, the team spends time obtaining the manpower, materials, and equipment needed to complete the project. In this scenario, what process is being performed? A. Estimate Activity Resources B. Acquire Resources C. Control Resources D. Plan Resource Management 149. On a given project; earned value (EV) is $250,000; actual cost (AC) is $215,000; and planned value (PV) is $300,000. What is the schedule variance (SV)? A. $35,000 B. $50,000 C. -$85,000 D. -$50,000 150. Using the ______, we classify stakeholders based on their level of authority and active involvement. A. Power/Interest Grid B. Power/Influence Grid C. Influence/Impact Grid D. Salience Model ANSWER KEY (BLANK) 1 ________ 26 ________ 51 ________ 76 ________ 101 ________ 126 ________ 2 ________ 27 ________ 52 ________ 77 ________ 102 ________ 127 ________ 3 ________ 28 ________ 53 ________ 78 ________ 103 ________ 128 ________ 4 ________ 29 ________ 54 ________ 79 ________ 104 ________ 129 ________ 5 ________ 30 ________ 55 ________ 80 ________ 105 ________ 130 ________ 6 ________ 31 ________ 56 ________ 81 ________ 106 ________ 131 ________ 7 ________ 32 ________ 57 ________ 82 ________ 107 ________ 132 ________ 8 ________ 33 ________ 58 ________ 83 ________ 108 ________ 133 ________ 9 ________ 34 ________ 59 ________ 84 ________ 109 ________ 134 ________ 10 ________ 35 ________ 60 ________ 85 ________ 110 ________ 135 ________ 11 ________ 36 ________ 61 ________ 86 ________ 111 ________ 136 ________ 12 ________ 37 ________ 62 ________ 87 ________ 112 ________ 137 ________ 13 ________ 38 ________ 63 ________ 88 ________ 113 ________ 138 ________ 14 ________ 39 ________ 64 ________ 89 ________ 114 ________ 139 ________ 15 ________ 40 ________ 65 ________ 90 ________ 115 ________ 140 ________ 16 ________ 41 ________ 66 ________ 91 ________ 116 ________ 141 ________ 17 ________ 42 ________ 67 ________ 92 ________ 117 ________ 142 ________ 18 ________ 43 ________ 68 ________ 93 ________ 118 ________ 143 ________ 19 ________ 44 ________ 69 ________ 94 ________ 119 ________ 144 ________ 20 ________ 45 ________ 70 ________ 95 ________ 120 ________ 145 ________ 21 ________ 46 ________ 71 ________ 96 ________ 121 ________ 146 ________ 22 ________ 47 ________ 72 ________ 97 ________ 122 ________ 147 ________ 23 ________ 48 ________ 73 ________ 98 ________ 123 ________ 148 ________ 24 ________ 49 ________ 74 ________ 99 ________ 124 ________ 149 ________ 25 ________ 50 ________ 75 ________ 100 ________ 125 ________ 150 ________ ANSWER KEY (COMPLETED) 1 B 26 A 51 D 76 D 101 C 126 D 2 A 27 B 52 D 77 D 102 C 127 B 3 B 28 A 53 A 78 A 103 D 128 C 4 B 29 D 54 B 79 B 104 B 129 B 5 D 30 D 55 A 80 A 105 A 130 C 6 A 31 A 56 C 81 D 106 B 131 B 7 C 32 B 57 D 82 B 107 C 132 D 8 C 33 D 58 B 83 C 108 A 133 D 9 B 34 C 59 C 84 A 109 C 134 C 10 C 35 D 60 A 85 C 110 D 135 D 11 D 36 B 61 C 86 B 111 C 136 A 12 C 37 A 62 A 87 D 112 A 137 A 13 D 38 A 63 C 88 C 113 D 138 D 14 A 39 B 64 C 89 D 114 B 139 C 15 B 40 D 65 B 90 C 115 B 140 C 16 B 41 B 66 A 91 B 116 A 141 B 17 B 42 C 67 D 92 C 117 C 142 C 18 D 43 D 68 B 93 A 118 D 143 A 19 A 44 A 69 A 94 D 119 C 144 B 20 C 45 D 70 A 95 B 120 D 145 D 21 A 46 A 71 B 96 C 121 A 146 C 22 D 47 B 72 D 97 B 122 D 147 C 23 C 48 D 73 D 98 A 123 D 148 B 24 B 49 C 74 A 99 D 124 B 149 D 25 B 50 D 75 A 100 B 125 D 150 B