A 40-year-old healthy primigravida with a history of previous deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A. Aspirin B. Heparin C. Enoxaparin... A 40-year-old healthy primigravida with a history of previous deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A. Aspirin B. Heparin C. Enoxaparin D. No anticoagulation
Understand the Problem
The question asks for the most appropriate management option for a 40-year-old healthy primigravida with a history of previous deep venous thrombosis, focusing on the correct choice from the provided options that deals with anticoagulation.
Answer
Enoxaparin
The most appropriate management is Enoxaparin.
Answer for screen readers
The most appropriate management is Enoxaparin.
More Information
In the context of pregnancy, low molecular weight heparin (such as enoxaparin) is often preferred for anticoagulation due to its safety profile compared to other anticoagulants.
Tips
A common mistake is opting for aspirin or no anticoagulation, whereas anticoagulation is crucial to prevent thromboembolism recurrence.
Sources
- Pulmonary thrombo-embolism in pregnancy: diagnosis and ... - pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
- A 40-year-old healthy primigravida with a history of previous deep ... - quizgecko.com
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