A 22-year-old man presented to the Emergency Room with left leg swelling and pain that started 2 days ago and is getting worse. It involves the whole left leg. He also complains of... A 22-year-old man presented to the Emergency Room with left leg swelling and pain that started 2 days ago and is getting worse. It involves the whole left leg. He also complains of chest tightness and shortness of breath. Examination reveals left lower limb pitting edema. ECG: Sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time? A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel C. Warfarin D. Unfractionated heparin
Understand the Problem
The question describes a 22-year-old man presenting with symptoms indicative of a possible thromboembolic event and asks for the most appropriate management. The key concepts here are emergency medical treatment, presentation of symptoms, and medication options.
Answer
Unfractionated heparin.
The final answer is D. Unfractionated heparin.
Answer for screen readers
The final answer is D. Unfractionated heparin.
More Information
The symptoms indicate a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and potential pulmonary embolism (PE). Immediate anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin is the most appropriate initial management to prevent further thromboembolic events.
Tips
A common mistake is choosing an oral anticoagulant like warfarin or antiplatelet drugs like aspirin, which are not appropriate for initial treatment. Immediate action with intravenous anticoagulation is necessary.
AI-generated content may contain errors. Please verify critical information
