46-year-old female patient not pregnant. She is obese and presents with irregular periods for the last 6 months. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?... 46-year-old female patient not pregnant. She is obese and presents with irregular periods for the last 6 months. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management? A- Endometrial ablation B- Endometrial biopsy C- Oral contraceptives D- CT
Understand the Problem
The question describes a clinical case involving a 46-year-old obese female patient with a history of irregular periods. It asks for the most appropriate initial management option among several presented choices. The focus is on determining the best first step in managing her condition based on her symptoms.
Answer
Endometrial biopsy
B- Endometrial biopsy
Answer for screen readers
B- Endometrial biopsy
More Information
In a 46-year-old non-pregnant obese woman with irregular periods, endometrial biopsy is indicated to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, especially due to the irregular bleeding and potential associated risk factors like obesity.
Tips
A common mistake is not considering the age and obesity as risk factors for endometrial pathology.
Sources
- PPT Abnormal Uterine Bleeding - unmfm.pbworks.com
- Evaluation and management of abnormal uterine bleeding - e-mjm.org
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