Podcast
Questions and Answers
A patient presents with a traumatic wound that is heavily contaminated. The wound is left open initially, and the plan is to suture it closed once signs of infection have diminished. What type of wound closure is being employed?
A patient presents with a traumatic wound that is heavily contaminated. The wound is left open initially, and the plan is to suture it closed once signs of infection have diminished. What type of wound closure is being employed?
- Tertiary intention/Delayed primary intention (correct)
- Secondary intention
- Skin graft
- Primary intention
A chronic wound is characterized by failure to heal within a specific timeframe and often gets stuck in which phase of the normal wound healing process?
A chronic wound is characterized by failure to heal within a specific timeframe and often gets stuck in which phase of the normal wound healing process?
- Proliferative phase
- Maturation phase
- Remodeling phase
- Inflammatory phase (correct)
Which of the following BEST describes how granulation tissue contributes to wound healing when a wound is closed by secondary intention?
Which of the following BEST describes how granulation tissue contributes to wound healing when a wound is closed by secondary intention?
- It facilitates immediate wound closure through rapid cell division.
- It promotes direct approximation of wound edges using sutures.
- It forms a protective barrier against external contaminants to prevent infection.
- It gradually fills the wound bed, leading to closure by wound contraction and scar formation. (correct)
A patient with diabetes develops a chronic foot ulcer. Despite standard wound care, the ulcer is not progressing towards healing after several weeks. Which of the following factors is MOST likely contributing to the delayed healing in this patient?
A patient with diabetes develops a chronic foot ulcer. Despite standard wound care, the ulcer is not progressing towards healing after several weeks. Which of the following factors is MOST likely contributing to the delayed healing in this patient?
An elderly patient recovering from a hip fracture develops a pressure ulcer. You are evaluating factors that may be delaying wound healing. Which of the following systemic factors would be MOST concerning?
An elderly patient recovering from a hip fracture develops a pressure ulcer. You are evaluating factors that may be delaying wound healing. Which of the following systemic factors would be MOST concerning?
What is the primary role of neutrophils during the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
What is the primary role of neutrophils during the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
Which clinical observation is most closely associated with the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
Which clinical observation is most closely associated with the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
What is the main function of fibroblasts during the proliferative phase of wound healing?
What is the main function of fibroblasts during the proliferative phase of wound healing?
What is the significance of 'contact inhibition' during epithelialization?
What is the significance of 'contact inhibition' during epithelialization?
What process does 'fibrinolysis' describe within the context of wound healing?
What process does 'fibrinolysis' describe within the context of wound healing?
Why is maintaining a moist wound environment important during the proliferation phase?
Why is maintaining a moist wound environment important during the proliferation phase?
A wound exhibits rolled or curled edges (epiboly). What does this clinical observation suggest about the wound's healing process?
A wound exhibits rolled or curled edges (epiboly). What does this clinical observation suggest about the wound's healing process?
During which phase of wound healing is angiogenesis most active?
During which phase of wound healing is angiogenesis most active?
Why is initial hypoxia considered beneficial in wound healing?
Why is initial hypoxia considered beneficial in wound healing?
Which of the following age-related changes increases the risk of skin tears?
Which of the following age-related changes increases the risk of skin tears?
How does obesity contribute to wound complications?
How does obesity contribute to wound complications?
What is the primary reason smoking impairs wound healing?
What is the primary reason smoking impairs wound healing?
Why are carbohydrates important in wound healing?
Why are carbohydrates important in wound healing?
Which medication would most significantly interfere with the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
Which medication would most significantly interfere with the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
What is the minimum frequency of recertification required for therapists working in a verified burn care center?
What is the minimum frequency of recertification required for therapists working in a verified burn care center?
A patient with a partial thickness burn covering 12% of their total body surface area requires hospitalization. Which of the following is the most likely reason?
A patient with a partial thickness burn covering 12% of their total body surface area requires hospitalization. Which of the following is the most likely reason?
Which of the following best describes eschar?
Which of the following best describes eschar?
What does the presence of white or silvery tissue along the edges of a wound indicate?
What does the presence of white or silvery tissue along the edges of a wound indicate?
A wound assessment reveals a fruity, sweet odor. Which type of bacterial infection is most likely present?
A wound assessment reveals a fruity, sweet odor. Which type of bacterial infection is most likely present?
What does 'undermining' refer to in wound assessment?
What does 'undermining' refer to in wound assessment?
A patient has pitting edema where the indentation lasts longer than 30 seconds. How would this be classified?
A patient has pitting edema where the indentation lasts longer than 30 seconds. How would this be classified?
Which vascular test result (Ankle Brachial Index) suggests severe peripheral arterial disease?
Which vascular test result (Ankle Brachial Index) suggests severe peripheral arterial disease?
What does a Semmes-Weinstein monofilament value of 5.07 indicate during a light touch sensation test?
What does a Semmes-Weinstein monofilament value of 5.07 indicate during a light touch sensation test?
Why are ulcers with inadequate arterial inflow kept dry and protected?
Why are ulcers with inadequate arterial inflow kept dry and protected?
A patient presents with rubor of dependency. After elevating the leg, you lower it to a dependent position. Which finding is MOST indicative of arterial compromise?
A patient presents with rubor of dependency. After elevating the leg, you lower it to a dependent position. Which finding is MOST indicative of arterial compromise?
During a venous filling time assessment, the dorsal veins of the foot take 20 seconds to refill after being lowered to a dependent position. What does this indicate?
During a venous filling time assessment, the dorsal veins of the foot take 20 seconds to refill after being lowered to a dependent position. What does this indicate?
A patient has an area of intact skin with non-blanchable erythema. Which stage of pressure injury does this represent?
A patient has an area of intact skin with non-blanchable erythema. Which stage of pressure injury does this represent?
A wound is identified with a visible ulcer and exposed dermis. The wound bed is pink and moist, with no visible adipose tissue, granulation tissue, slough, or eschar. Which pressure injury stage is MOST likely?
A wound is identified with a visible ulcer and exposed dermis. The wound bed is pink and moist, with no visible adipose tissue, granulation tissue, slough, or eschar. Which pressure injury stage is MOST likely?
In a Stage 3 pressure injury, which tissue type is visible in the ulcer bed?
In a Stage 3 pressure injury, which tissue type is visible in the ulcer bed?
What characteristic is UNIQUE to a Stage 4 pressure injury compared to a Stage 3 pressure injury?
What characteristic is UNIQUE to a Stage 4 pressure injury compared to a Stage 3 pressure injury?
Stable eschar is present on the heel of a patient with an ischemic limb. What action is MOST appropriate?
Stable eschar is present on the heel of a patient with an ischemic limb. What action is MOST appropriate?
A patient has intact skin with a localized area of persistent non-blanchable deep red discoloration. What type of injury is MOST likely present?
A patient has intact skin with a localized area of persistent non-blanchable deep red discoloration. What type of injury is MOST likely present?
What is the primary goal of positioning a supine patient to prevent pressure injuries?
What is the primary goal of positioning a supine patient to prevent pressure injuries?
What is the PRIMARY goal of compression therapy in treating venous disease?
What is the PRIMARY goal of compression therapy in treating venous disease?
According to the CEAP classification system, what finding characterizes Class 4b venous disease?
According to the CEAP classification system, what finding characterizes Class 4b venous disease?
Which factor is MOST closely associated with sensory neuropathy that increases the risk of neuropathic ulcers?
Which factor is MOST closely associated with sensory neuropathy that increases the risk of neuropathic ulcers?
Autonomic neuropathy contributes to neuropathic ulcer development. Which of the following is a direct result of autonomic neuropathy?
Autonomic neuropathy contributes to neuropathic ulcer development. Which of the following is a direct result of autonomic neuropathy?
During a foot screen, a patient with diabetes is found to have loss of protective sensation (LOPS) and a foot deformity. According to the risk classification system, what is their risk level?
During a foot screen, a patient with diabetes is found to have loss of protective sensation (LOPS) and a foot deformity. According to the risk classification system, what is their risk level?
Which of the following is MOST important to assess when selecting a wound dressing?
Which of the following is MOST important to assess when selecting a wound dressing?
Why is normal saline preferred over hydrogen peroxide for routine wound cleansing?
Why is normal saline preferred over hydrogen peroxide for routine wound cleansing?
Which type of dressing is CONTRAINDICATED for use on a heavily draining wound?
Which type of dressing is CONTRAINDICATED for use on a heavily draining wound?
A patient has a stage 2 pressure ulcer with moderate exudate. Which of the following dressings would be MOST appropriate?
A patient has a stage 2 pressure ulcer with moderate exudate. Which of the following dressings would be MOST appropriate?
In which scenario would an antimicrobial dressing be MOST appropriate?
In which scenario would an antimicrobial dressing be MOST appropriate?
A patient has a deep wound with tunneling. Which of the following dressing types is BEST suited to manage this type of wound?
A patient has a deep wound with tunneling. Which of the following dressing types is BEST suited to manage this type of wound?
What is the PRIMARY benefit of using a hydrogel dressing on a wound?
What is the PRIMARY benefit of using a hydrogel dressing on a wound?
When should the use of gauze be avoided?
When should the use of gauze be avoided?
What is a key disadvantage of using transparent film dressings?
What is a key disadvantage of using transparent film dressings?
Which of the following dressings promotes autolytic debridement?
Which of the following dressings promotes autolytic debridement?
An appropriate dressing choice for a Stage 4 pressure ulcer would be:
An appropriate dressing choice for a Stage 4 pressure ulcer would be:
Which of the following statements is true regarding wound cleansing?
Which of the following statements is true regarding wound cleansing?
When is collagen dressing CONTRAINDICATED?
When is collagen dressing CONTRAINDICATED?
What is a disadvantage of using calcium alginate dressing?
What is a disadvantage of using calcium alginate dressing?
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of foam dressings?
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of foam dressings?
A patient with peripheral neuropathy steps on a small object, causing a minor foot injury. They don't notice the injury due to loss of protective sensation. According to the neurotraumatic theory, what is the MOST likely subsequent event leading to Charcot arthropathy?
A patient with peripheral neuropathy steps on a small object, causing a minor foot injury. They don't notice the injury due to loss of protective sensation. According to the neurotraumatic theory, what is the MOST likely subsequent event leading to Charcot arthropathy?
A patient presents with a red, swollen, and warm foot following a minor ankle sprain 2 weeks prior. Radiographs reveal fragmentation of bone and joint dislocations. Which Eichenholz stage of Charcot arthropathy BEST corresponds to these findings?
A patient presents with a red, swollen, and warm foot following a minor ankle sprain 2 weeks prior. Radiographs reveal fragmentation of bone and joint dislocations. Which Eichenholz stage of Charcot arthropathy BEST corresponds to these findings?
A patient in Eichenholz stage 2 Charcot arthropathy is being fitted for an orthotic device. Which type of device would be MOST appropriate at this stage?
A patient in Eichenholz stage 2 Charcot arthropathy is being fitted for an orthotic device. Which type of device would be MOST appropriate at this stage?
A patient presents with a Wagner grade 2 diabetic foot ulcer. According to the Wagner classification system, what anatomical structures are involved in this ulcer?
A patient presents with a Wagner grade 2 diabetic foot ulcer. According to the Wagner classification system, what anatomical structures are involved in this ulcer?
What is the PRIMARY rationale for maintaining a moist wound environment in wound care?
What is the PRIMARY rationale for maintaining a moist wound environment in wound care?
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of wound bed preparation?
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of wound bed preparation?
In which of the following clinical scenarios would debridement be CONTRAINDICATED?
In which of the following clinical scenarios would debridement be CONTRAINDICATED?
During a wound assessment, you observe that the tissue is shiny and yellow. Which tissue type is MOST likely present?
During a wound assessment, you observe that the tissue is shiny and yellow. Which tissue type is MOST likely present?
Which of the following debridement methods is considered selective and utilizes the body's own enzymes to liquefy necrotic tissue?
Which of the following debridement methods is considered selective and utilizes the body's own enzymes to liquefy necrotic tissue?
Which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION for the use of wet-to-dry dressings in mechanical debridement?
Which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION for the use of wet-to-dry dressings in mechanical debridement?
What is a PRIMARY advantage of surgical debridement compared to other methods?
What is a PRIMARY advantage of surgical debridement compared to other methods?
How can one differentiate between inflammation and infection in a wound?
How can one differentiate between inflammation and infection in a wound?
Which of the following BEST describes the progression from contamination to infection in chronic wounds?
Which of the following BEST describes the progression from contamination to infection in chronic wounds?
When managing exudate in a chronic wound, what underlying factor should be addressed if the exudate is excessive?
When managing exudate in a chronic wound, what underlying factor should be addressed if the exudate is excessive?
According to the principles of care acronym MEASURES, what does the 'E' stand for?
According to the principles of care acronym MEASURES, what does the 'E' stand for?
Flashcards
Epinephrine's Role in Wound Response
Epinephrine's Role in Wound Response
Minimizes bleeding into soft tissue; released during injury.
Platelet Cells
Platelet Cells
Responsible for clot formation and releasing cytokines during wound healing.
Wound Healing Process (Phase 1)
Wound Healing Process (Phase 1)
Tissue injury leads to hemorrhage, platelet aggregation, fibrin clot formation, and hemostasis, followed by fibrinolysis.
Neutrophils & Macrophages
Neutrophils & Macrophages
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Inflammation Clinical Signs
Inflammation Clinical Signs
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Goals of Inflammatory Phase
Goals of Inflammatory Phase
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Proliferation Phase Activities
Proliferation Phase Activities
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Epithelialization
Epithelialization
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Secondary Intention
Secondary Intention
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Tertiary Intention
Tertiary Intention
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Skin Graft
Skin Graft
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Chronic Wounds
Chronic Wounds
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Biofilm
Biofilm
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Rubor of Dependency
Rubor of Dependency
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Venous Filling Time
Venous Filling Time
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Pressure Injury Stage 1
Pressure Injury Stage 1
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Pressure Injury Stage 2
Pressure Injury Stage 2
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Pressure Injury Stage 3
Pressure Injury Stage 3
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Pressure Injury Stage 4
Pressure Injury Stage 4
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Unstageable Pressure Injury
Unstageable Pressure Injury
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Deep Tissue Pressure Injury
Deep Tissue Pressure Injury
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CEAP Classification System
CEAP Classification System
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CEAP Class 1
CEAP Class 1
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CEAP Class 2
CEAP Class 2
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CEAP Class 3
CEAP Class 3
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CEAP Class 4
CEAP Class 4
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Sensory Neuropathy
Sensory Neuropathy
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Autonomic Neuropathy
Autonomic Neuropathy
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Role of Oxygen in Wound Healing
Role of Oxygen in Wound Healing
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Age-Related Skin Changes (Decreased)
Age-Related Skin Changes (Decreased)
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Age-Related Skin Changes (Increased)
Age-Related Skin Changes (Increased)
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Obesity - Local Wound Conditions
Obesity - Local Wound Conditions
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Obesity's Wound Complications
Obesity's Wound Complications
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Smoking's Impact on Wound Healing
Smoking's Impact on Wound Healing
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Nutrition for Wound Healing
Nutrition for Wound Healing
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Medications Impacting Wound Healing
Medications Impacting Wound Healing
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Burn Center Requirements
Burn Center Requirements
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Hospitalization Criteria for Burns
Hospitalization Criteria for Burns
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Eschar
Eschar
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Red Wound Base
Red Wound Base
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Wound Undermining
Wound Undermining
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Sinus Tract/Tunnel
Sinus Tract/Tunnel
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Hammertoe
Hammertoe
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Clawtoe
Clawtoe
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Neuropathic (Charcot) Arthropathy
Neuropathic (Charcot) Arthropathy
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Eichenholz Stage 1: Dissolution
Eichenholz Stage 1: Dissolution
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Eichenholz Stage 2: Coalescence
Eichenholz Stage 2: Coalescence
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Eichenholz Stage 3: Resolution
Eichenholz Stage 3: Resolution
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Total Contact Cast (Indications)
Total Contact Cast (Indications)
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Total Contact Cast (Contraindications)
Total Contact Cast (Contraindications)
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Wagner Ulcer Grade 0
Wagner Ulcer Grade 0
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Wagner Ulcer Grade 1
Wagner Ulcer Grade 1
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Wagner Ulcer Grade 2
Wagner Ulcer Grade 2
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Wagner Ulcer Grade 3
Wagner Ulcer Grade 3
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Wagner Ulcer Grade 4
Wagner Ulcer Grade 4
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Wound Bed Preparation - Best Practices
Wound Bed Preparation - Best Practices
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DIME Acronym (Wound Bed)
DIME Acronym (Wound Bed)
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Autolytic Debridement
Autolytic Debridement
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Antimicrobial Dressings
Antimicrobial Dressings
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Wound Cleansing
Wound Cleansing
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Gauze Dressings
Gauze Dressings
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Transparent Films
Transparent Films
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Hydrocolloid Dressings
Hydrocolloid Dressings
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Hydrogel Dressings
Hydrogel Dressings
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Foam Dressings
Foam Dressings
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Calcium Alginate Dressings
Calcium Alginate Dressings
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Composite Dressings
Composite Dressings
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Antimicrobial Dressings
Antimicrobial Dressings
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Collagen Dressings
Collagen Dressings
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Films (Exudate Levels)
Films (Exudate Levels)
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Alginate and Foam (Exudate Levels)
Alginate and Foam (Exudate Levels)
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Hydrogen peroxide
Hydrogen peroxide
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Study Notes
- Skin is the largest external organ.
- Skin covers greater than 20 ft², weighs 6-8 lbs.
- Skin thickness varies from 0.5-6 mm.
- Skin receives half of the body's circulating blood volume.
- Normal skin pH ranges from 4 to 6.5, creating an acid mantle-protective barrier against bacterial and fungal infections.
Skin Functions
- Skin protects against fluid and electrolyte loss by providing thermoregulation.
- Skin protects against mechanical injury by promoting sweat excretion.
- Skin protects against UV injury by providing sensation.
- Skin protects against pathogens and provides Vitamin D synthesis.
Epidermis Description
- The epidermis is the outermost avascular layer providing sun and H2O loss protection.
- The epidermis regenerates approximately every 28 days and synthesizes vitamin D.
- Epidermal thickness ranges from 0.06-1.5mm, thickest on plantar surfaces of foot and palms.
- The epidermis has 5 layers and maintains contact with the dermis.
- The epidermis is mainly made up of keratinocyte cells for division & mobilization.
- The epidermis is involved in pigmentation and allergen recognition.
5 Layers of Epidermis
- Stratum Corneum consists of dead keratinocyte cells, flakes, and sheds.
- Stratum Lucidum is found on palms and soles of feet.
- Stratum Granulosum is a granular layer.
- Stratum Spinosum is a spiny layer.
- Stratum Basale is attached to the dermis by a thin basement membrane and is responsible for the mitotic activity of keratinocyte cells.
Basement Membrane Zone
- Located between the epidermis and dermis.
- Rete ridges interlock to keep the layers in place.
- Aging causes flattening of rete ridges, leading to tears in older adults.
Dermis Description
- The thickest layer of skin provides support to the epidermis.
- Major proteins are collagen and elastin for mechanical strength.
- Contains nerve endings, blood and lymphatic vessels, capillaries, sweat and sebaceous glands, and hair follicles supplying nutrition.
- It has 2 layers resisting shearing forces.
Dermis Layers
Papillary
- Unique pattern allows fingerprint identification and has capillaries and pain/touch receptors.
- Involved in moisture retention.
Reticular
- Dense collagen for shape and firmness anchors skin to subcutaneous tissue.
- Contains sweat glands, hair follicles, and blood vessels.
- Lubricates skin via sebaceous glands.
- Involved in inflammatory response.
Hypodermis
- Known as subcutaneous tissue.
- The hypodermis is primarily composed of adipose and connective tissue and is the largest layer.
- It contains major blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels.
- The hypodermis attaches the dermis to underlying structures.
- It promotes ongoing blood supply to the dermis for regeneration and provides thermal insulation.
- The hypodermis stores calories/energy.
- It controls body shape, acts as a mechanical shock absorber, and provides a cushion between skin layers, muscles, and bones.
- The hypodermis promotes skin mobility.
Hypodermis Effects of Aging
- There is a 20% loss of dermal thickness resulting in paper-thin appearance.
- Proportional reduction in collagen fibers, blood vessels, and nerve endings leads to altered sensation, thermoregulation, moisture retention, and sagging skin.
5 Elements of a Basic Skin Assessment
Temperature
- Normally warm when performed bilaterally, using the back of the hand.
- Warmer indicates inflammation or infection.
- Cooler indicates poor vascularization.
Color
- Assesses skin tone using the Fitzpatrick Skin Type.
Moisture
- Dryness indicates xerosis.
- Moisture-associated skin damage (MASD) indicates incontinence, perspiration, periwound maceration, or edema.
Turgor
- Assesses hydration.
- Normal skin returns to its original state quickly.
- Slow return indicates aging or dehydration.
Integrity
- Assesses for breaks or damage to skin.
- No open areas suggests intactness.
Color Meaning
- Paleness may indicate poor circulation.
- Erythema varies with natural skin color.
- Hyper- or hypo-pigmentation may reflect variations in melanin deposits or blood flow.
- Blue/Gray (cyanosis) indicates low oxygen saturation.
- Pallor indicates anemia or arterial insufficiency.
- Yellow indicates jaundice (biliary tract disease or liver problems).
- Liver spots indicate aging or exposure to UV radiation.
FitzPatrick Skin Type
Type I
- Pale white skin, blue/green eyes, blonde hair.
- The skin always burns and does not tan.
Type II
- Fair skin and blue eyes.
- The skin burns easily and tans poorly.
Type III
- Darker white skin.
- The skin tans after the initial burn.
Type IV
- Light brown skin.
- The skin burns minimally and tans easily.
Type V
- Brown skin.
- The skin rarely burns and tans darkly easily.
Type VI
- Dark brown or black skin.
- The skin never burns and always tans darkly.
Comprehensive Skin Assessment
Inspection
- Skin is normally smooth, slightly moist, and has a uniform tone throughout.
- Assess for pigmentations, pallor, cyanosis (nail beds), jaundice, hyperpigmentation, hypopigmentation, scars, and bruises noting the location, color, length, and width.
Palpation
- Assesses moisture, edema, tenderness, elasticity, and texture.
Olfaction
- Assess for smell.
Observation of hair and nailbeds
- Assesses for clubbing, texture, color, and shape.
Skin Alterations
- Assesses for previous scars, graft sites, and healed ulcer sites.
Skin Alterations
Dermatitis
- Inflammatory skin response to an agent.
- Skin appears red, scaly, and itchy.
- The condition may blister, ooze, develop a crust or flake off.
- Examples are atopic dermatitis (eczema), dandruff, and rash caused by contact with poison ivy or certain metals.
Vasculitis
- Inflammation and necrosis of the blood vessels.
- Associated with many conditions: malignancies, connective tissue, inflammatory diseases, medications, chemicals, infections.
- Usually bilateral and below the knees.
- Variable manifestations include erythema to widespread purpura, necrosis, and ulceration.
- Treatment involves elevation, compression, antihistamines, NSAIDs, and steroids.
Basal Cell Carcinoma
- Most common form of skin cancer.
- Has a Limited capacity to metastasize.
- Arises in the basal cells of the epidermis.
- Appears as an open sore, red patch, pink growth, or shiny bump.
- Caused by UV exposure.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
- Second most common skin malignancy.
- Uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells arising in the squamous cells of the epidermis.
- Scaly red patches or open sores.
- Presents as elevated growths with a central depression.
- Can metastasize, mostly on areas exposed to the sun.
- Major cause is UV exposure.
Malignant Melanoma
- Begins Melanocytes
Types of Infections
Viral
- Herpes 1&2
- Herpes Zoster (shingles)
- Warts
Fungal
- Ringworm
- Athlete's foot
- Yeast infection
Bacterial
- Abscess
- Cellulitis
- Impetigo
Immune Disorders
- Lupus
- Psoriasis
- Scleroderma
Cellulitis
- Bacterial skin infection marked by swollen, red, hot and tender skin, and fever.
- Commonly affects lower legs.
- Can affect skin surface or underlying tissues and can spread to lymph nodes and bloodstream.
- Can lead to antibiotic-resistant infections such as MRSA (life-threatening).
- Management includes antibiotics, elevation, and cooling.
- Needs differential diagnosis from DVT.
Scleroderma
- Chronic connective tissue disease classified as an autoimmune rheumatic disease.
- It is caused by excessive collagen production.
- Skin appears hard and shiny, with loss of mobility, and often has a history of Raynaud's.
- Symptoms range from mild to life-threatening.
- Localized form is more common in children, manifested as waxy patches which may thicken skin and affect joint motion.
- Systemic form is more common in adults and may affect connective tissue in the skin, esophagus, GI tract, lungs, kidneys, heart, blood vessels, muscles, and joints.
- Occurs more frequently in females compared to males (4:1), with a common onset between 25-55 years old.
- There is no cure, treatment focuses on symptom management.
Shingles/Herpes Zoster
- Viral disease caused by the reactivation of the varicella virus, which is the same virus responsible for chickenpox.
- Contagious if the individual has not had chickenpox.
- Affects the cutaneous nerves usually in a single dermatome.
- Pain, itching, and burning precede lesions by 3-5 days.
- Pain may be severe.
- Managed with antiviral agents.
- Ocular complications may arise.
Candidiasis/Yeast Infection
- Fungal overgrowth caused by candida-albicans or other candida species affects the skin, genitals, throat, mouth, or blood.
- Presents are red pinpoint papules frequently with satellite lesions.
- Overgrowth of normally present flora may be due to antibiotics, diabetes, topical steroids, skin maceration, or immune deficiencies.
4 Phases of Wound Healing
Hemostasis Phase
- This stage lasts 0-24 hours.
- Epinephrine is released to minimize bleeding into the soft tissue.
- Platelet cells are responsible for the clot formation and release of cytokines.
- Tissue injury causes hemorrhage into the wound, which leads to platelet aggravation.
- This aggregation results in fibrin clot formation and hemostasis, followed by fibrinolysis to break down the fibrin clot.
Inflammatory Phase
- This stage lasts 1-10 days.
- The body mounts an acute inflammatory response.
- Neutrophils clear invading microbes/bacteria and cellular debris in the wound area via phagocytosis.
- Macrophages, similar to neutrophils, are a rich source of biological regulators: cytokines, growth factors, bioactive lipid products, and proteolytic enzymes.
- Clinical observations include erythema, warmth, edema, and pain.
- Goals are to contain exudate in the wound, reduce edema in tissues, remove necrotic tissues, promote granulation, and prevent maceration of the surrounding skin.
Proliferation Phase
- This stage lasts 3-21 days.
- Migration across the matrix within the wound occurs.
- In the dermis, fibroblasts and endothelial cells support capillary growth, collagen formation, and granulation tissue formation at the injury site.
- Fibroblasts produce collagen, glycosaminoglycans, and proteoglycans within the wound bed.
- Clinical observations include beefy red granulation and epithelialization.
- Goals are to stimulate angiogenesis, promote epithelialization, prevent epiboly, protect the wound, and maintain a moist wound environment.
Remodeling/Maturation Phase
- This stage lasts 7 days - 2 years.
- The wound is now closed, lasting up to 1 year for healthy adults and 2 years for children, elderly, or immunocompromised patients.
- There is a regression of newly formed capillaries.
- Fibroblast activity is high with extracellular matrix remodeling for shrinking, thinning, and paling scars.
- Scar tissue is only 80% as strong as original tissue.
- Goals include educating pressure relief techniques, skin inspection, soft tissue mobilization, and gradual stress on tissue.
Wound Closure
Superficial Wound Healing
- Type is often included under primary intention.
Primary Intention
- Edges are closed by approximating wound margins immediately.
- It is the best choice for recent, clean wounds, well-vascularized areas, minimal tissue loss (surgical incision, laceration, puncture, superficial and partial-thickness wounds.
- Typically has minimal scarring and heals quickly.
- Surgical techniques include sutures, staples, and adhesives.
- Surgical complication of wound rupturing along the suture line.
- Risk factors are age, diabetes, obesity, poor knotting of sutures, increased abdominal pressure (lifting).
Secondary Intention
- Wound closes on its own without superficial closure.
- This is used for wounds with significant tissue loss or necrosis, or for irregular or non-viable wound margins that cannot be re-approximated.
- Contamination from infection or debris.
- Granulation tissue gradually fills the wound bed to the levels of surrounding skin.
- Wound contraction and scar formation occurs.
- Larger scars are typical, and often require skin grafts or reconstructive surgery to minimize cosmetic and functional issues.
Tertiary Intention
- Delayed Primary Intention.
- Wound left left open and then sutured closed 4-7 days after diminished signs of infection.
- Usually for traumatic wounds.
- This closure happens when a wound with a Heavy contamination needs time for infection to clear before closure.
Skin Graft
- Type of medical grafting involving the transplantation of skin.
- The procedure will need to treat extensive wounds and burns.
Chronic Wounds
- Fails to progress in a timely manner through the normal phases of healing.
- Exceeds a time frame of >30 days duration for complete healing.
- Gets stuck in inflammatory phase.
- Presence of infection and biofilm common.
- Biofilm: Complex microbial community embedded in an EPS which attaches it to a living surface whilst also stopping recognition from the immune system
- Failure to respond to interventions.
- Risk factors include comorbid conditions, poor circulation, nutritional deficiencies, adverse pressure, and advanced age.
Causes of Delayed Healing
Local Factors (Wound)
- Oxygenation
- Infection
- Foreign body
- Desiccation (extremely dry)
- Maceration (wet)
- Mechanical stresses
Systemic Factors (Individual)
- Age
- Stress
- Comorbidities
- Obesity
- Smoking
- Medications
- Nutrition
Local Wound Conditions and Wound Complications
Obesity
- Decreased vascularity in adipose tissue.
- Skin folds harbor microorganisms.
- Friction from skin-on-skin contact.
- Increased wound tension.
- Increased tissue pressure.
- Venous hypertension.
- Decreased ability to reposition self.
Resulting Wound complications
- Infections
- Dehiscence
- Hematoma and seroma formation
- Pressure and venous ulcers
Other Healing Factors
Oxygenation
- Early wound becomes hypoxic due to vascular disruption and high oxygen consumption by metabolically active cells.
- Hypoxia stimulates wound healing via releasing growth factors and Angiogenesis.
- Oxygen is needed to sustain the process.
Age
Associated with decreased:
- Dermal thickness (thinning skin)
- Amount and flexibility of collagen and elastin, leading to skin wrinkling
- Size of rete ridges, increasing the risk of skin tears
- Sensation and metabolism.
- Sweating due to atrophy of sweat glands, which can lead to dryness
- Subcutaneous tissue, less padding over bony prominences
Associated with increased:
- Time for epidermal regeneration, leads to a slower healing processes.
- Damage to skin from sun.
Smoking
- Post-operatively, smokers show delayed wound healing and an increase in infections, wound rupture, wound and flap necrosis, and a decrease in the tensile strength of the wound.
Nutrition
- Malnutrition or specific nutrient deficiencies impact wound healing.
- Patients require supplementation for chronic or non-healing wounds.
- Carbohydrate, protein, fat, vitamin, and mineral metabolism affect the process.
- Carbohydrates are a primary energy source being used for wound healing.
- Fatty acids are nutritional support to meet energy demands and provide essential building blocks.
Medications
- Commonly used medications can significantly impact healing:
- Glucocorticoid steroids (anti-inflammatory agents)
- Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) during long term use
- Chemotherapeutic Drugs
Verified Burn Care Centers Requirements
- Comprehensive care within 24 hrs of admission.
- At least one full-time equivalent Burn PT and one OT, depending on center volume, with qualified therapists available 7 days/week.
- Inpatients should receive a minimum of daily therapy services.
- Competency-based burn therapy orientation program for all therapists assigned to the burn center requires recertification at least once every two years.
Hospitalization for Burns
- Full thickness burns or partial thickness greater than 10% total body surface area
Circumferential burns
- Suspected or confirmed inhalation injury Children aged under 14, with weight less than 30kg or under 1 year old
- Additional trauma/comorbidity Burns to face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, joint surfaces, eyes or ears
- Chemical burns require pain management
Burn Types
Thermal
- External heat sources raise the temperature of the tissues causing cell death or charring, this includes fire, contact, scald/grease.
- i.e. hot metal, liquids, steam, & flames
Chemical
- Contact to skin or eyes by strong acids, alkalines, detergents, solvents.
- i.e. house cleaners, bleach, battery acids, & ammonia chlorine
Radiation
- Excessive exposure to UV rays or radiation exposure from either X-Rays, MRI, or medical imaging
Electrical
Burn caused by faulty wiring or lightning strike creating an electrical current
Others
Frostbite, inhalation
Burn Degrees
-
1°
-
Superficial thickness +Painful without blisters or scarring
-
2°
-
Superficial partial +Epidermis-thickness burns do not need surgery but may scar
-
2°
-
Deep partial +Epidermis and partial dermis and needs surgery that form more scars
-
3°
-
Full Thickness +Epidermis and Dermis are dry resulting in needing large amounts of skin grafting
-
4°
-
Epidermis, Dermis, adipose tissue, muscle. Results in loss of the burned part
Severity of Burns
- Major burn size is determined by size and depth, +Usually if that is a third degree the burn is major if that is not the case it has to exceed 2-3cm or be a second
- Minor burns typically encompass less than 10% total body surface area, are predominantly superficial and are rarely hospitalized
Burn Therapy Interventions
Interventions include Pain management, bandages and therapy For burn >10-20% TBSA, interventions include Airway breathing circulation, fluid retention and therapy
Burn Management
For partial thickness burns, therapy is usually provided. However, for full thickness burns surgical intervention alongside therapy
-
For full thickness burns, healing includes skin grafting which results in Scarring or Contracture which may be able to graft
-
3rd degree burn: the need for healing includes skin contracture near to certain with often involves the skin/muscles/bones
Zones
- Zone of coagulation: Zone with most damage
- Zone of Stasis: Decreased profusion, potentially salvageable
- Zone of Hyperaemia/Inflammation: Displaying increased inflammatory vasodilation
Role of PT, Phases of Wound Healing in Relation to Burn Trauma
-
In the zone of stasis, a superficial burn can turn into major wound there is infection, poor edema control, loss of proper solutions within the body and hypotension.
-
Phases of wound healing: inflammation( increased blood flow and is a natural response of the body), proliferation, maturation
-
PT Implications: Cardiovascular; increase in heart rate and possibly hypotension, Pulmonary; inflammation in lungs often results in respiratory distress, Immune System; barrier is influenced often leading to inflammatory responses and metabolic System; an Icnrease in tube feeding as it affects the need for more nutritious needs
-
Burn shocks: loss a great amount of fluids that results to not pump too much blood through the body and systemic vasodilation decreases amount of blood flow to the brain/organ that causes damage.
Inhalation Injury
- The goal is to assess Mobility, positioning, posture, breathing techniques, airway clearance.
- Erythema is typically a sign that can determine anatomical part of the injury:
- Grade 1: Minor and patching will involved proximal or distal bronchi
- Grade 2: Moderate will involve in bronchorrhea
- Grade 3: Severe will have bronchial obstruction
- Grade 4: In massive which necrosis is taking place you have an endoluminal obliteration which can result to Exposed Tendons
Dorsal Hand
- Highrisk: is associated with significant extensor
- Action: is to Avoid flexion that will isolate MP flexion with IP extensor
Achilles Tendon
- Highrisk: is associated with significant with tendon damage that may required a Splint
- Action: long load stretching
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
- Causes +Arrhythmia +Neuropsychiatric syndrome, confusion and in severe cases Coma/Seizue
Hetero topic Ossification
- Formation of bone in soft tissue in or around the joints +Treatment requires to wait years to complete
Amputation
- is done to developed in the Electrical, Frost bite and deep burns which can develop a significant infection +Traditional treatment includes; wrapping for pre prothesis
Compartment syndrome
- is found in a full thichkness and the main goal to treat is to avoid elevate limbs
Surgical Terms
- Is used when a Escharotomy or and infection arises.
- Implications: there is always PT is hold UNTIL AFTER surgery and will have restrictions
Skin Grafts
- Is typically considered deep partially to full thickness wounds.
- Grafts can be harvested from multiple areas and can be consider skin done by the body
Meshed
Small holes are put over the grafts
- Poor cosmesis can see that there are patters for the procedure to take place
Assessment
- Wound Size and Shape; usually measured by cm
- Edema in order to measure
- Circulatory and Sensations are also used to see how much blood/nerve flow and sensations
Causes of Delayed Healing
Infection Systemic Factor: age, stress, comorbidities, obesity, smoking and etc. Moist Wound Environment Prevents tissue dehydration and improve cellular health Increases the chance of wound re-epithelialization Decreases/eliminates pain
Best Practices
Identifies and knows the causes for healing Helps address their concerns for patients
Debridement
Removal of damage, tissue to help recover Enhance the treatment to determine is tissue is currently viable
Contraindications
Arterial Insufficiency
Tissue Types:
- Slough will needs to to removed by soft, wet or dry
- When to remove the Necrotic Tissue
Mechanical
- Wetting used on those
- Contraindications: if there is a clean or granulated use
Surgical
- Remove necrotic tissue with Adequate Profusion
- Malgiant for a bad wound requires to be prepared for bleeding with silver
Bacterial Balance
Normal level will contain WBCs, Lysosomal and growth factor Wetskin will cause rashes that may need skin breakdown
Wound edge
- Non-migrating cells may need the treatment of Re-Assess
Dressings
- They helps absorb or retain adequate moisture
- Contraindications will be water vs saline vs cleansers
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