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CM/PHARM - STI & Vaginitis

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99 Questions

Which of the following is the most common causative agent of vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Candida albicans

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Hyperthyroidism

What is the typical presentation of a patient with vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Pruritis and a thick, curd-like vaginal discharge

Which of the following diagnostic methods is NOT mentioned in the text for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Vaginal culture

What is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Single dose of fluconazole or 1-3 days of topical vaginal azole medication

How should vulvovaginal candidiasis be treated in an immunocompromised patient?

7-14 days of topical azole or Fluconazole 150 mg every 72 hours taking 2-3 doses

What is the recommended treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis in a pregnant patient?

7 days of topical miconazole or clotrimazole

What is the recommended treatment for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Fluconazole 150 mg every 72 hours for 3 doses, then continued with one dose per week for 6 months

What is the most common causative agent of Bacterial Vaginosis?

Gardnerella vaginalis

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Bacterial Vaginosis?

Smoking

How is Bacterial Vaginosis diagnosed according to Amsel's Criteria?

Positive whiff/amine test

What symptom is commonly seen in patients with Bacterial Vaginosis?

Fishy odor in the vaginal discharge

Which treatment is recommended for all symptomatic patients with Bacterial Vaginosis?

Metronidazole or clindamycin cream

Do male partners of women with Bacterial Vaginosis require treatment?

No, male partners do not need treatment

Asymptomatic patients with Bacterial Vaginosis do not need treatment

True

Trichomoniasis commonly presents with Bacterial Vaginosis.

True

The gold standard for diagnosis of Trichomoniasis is a wet mount that shows motile, flagellated organisms.

False

What is a key cervical finding in a patient with Trichomoniasis?

Punctate hemorrhages on vaginal and cervix

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of Trichomoniasis?

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test using a Genprobe

What is the initial test for Trichomoniasis?

Wet mount

What is the recommended treatment for women with Trichomoniasis?

Metronidazole 500 mg twice a day for 7 days

What is the recommended treatment for men with Trichomoniasis?

Metronidazole 2 g single dose

What is a common symptom of chlamydia in women?

Cervicitis

Which statement about chlamydia is false?

It can cause pelvic inflammatory disease in men

What is the first line treatment for chlamydia in non-pregnant patients?

Doxycycline for 14 days

What diagnostic method is considered the gold standard for chlamydia?

NATT Genprobe

Which group should return for a test of cure 3 months post-treatment for chlamydia?

All patients, regardless of symptoms

What is a possible consequence of untreated chlamydia in women?

Infertility

In addition to genital infections, where else can chlamydia cause infections?

Rectal

What is a common symptom of chlamydia in men?

'Burning' urination

Which antibiotic can pregnant women with chlamydia safely take for treatment?

Azithromycin

What is the purpose of a 'test of cure' after chlamydia treatment?

To confirm the infection has been cleared

Patients on doxycycline are advised to avoid sunlight due to:

Sun sensitive reaction

What is the recommended first-line treatment for Gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone

What is the diagnostic gold standard for Gonorrhea?

NAAT genprobe

What is the common co-infection found with Gonorrhea?

Chlamydia

What is the potential consequence of untreated Gonorrhea in women?

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

How often is routine screening recommended for Gonorrhea in patients 25 years of age and younger?

Annually

What is the causative agent of Gonorrhea?

Neisseria Gonorrhea

What is the recommended duration of abstinence from sex post-treatment for Gonorrhea?

2 weeks

What is the hallmark symptom of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign)

Which of the following is NOT part of the outpatient treatment for PID?

Azithromycin 1 gram orally for one dose

What is the most common age range for PID?

15 to 25 years

Which of the following is a medical emergency that needs to be ruled out in a patient with suspected PID?

All of the above

What is the recommended follow-up time frame for a patient with PID who is not sent to the emergency room?

48 hours

What is the most common cause of PID?

Both Gonorrhea and Chlamydia

Which of the following is NOT part of the inpatient treatment for PID?

Azithromycin 1 gram orally for one dose

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute PID?

Headache

How can a medical provider make a presumptive clinical diagnosis of PID?

Using history and physical exam findings alone

What complication of PID is characterized by perihepatitis and right upper quadrant pain with "violin string" adhesions?

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

A patient with suspected PID who has high fevers greater than 102.2F along with nausea and vomiting should be sent to the:

Emergency room

Which of the following is a complication of untreated Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Increased risk of ectopic pregnancies

A pregnant patient with suspected Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) should be:

Sent to the emergency room

PID is an _______ acute infection of the upper genital tract

ascending

Which pathogen is most commonly responsible of cases of Non-Gonococcal Urethritis with no clear etiology?

Chlamydia or M. genitalium

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for the treatment of non-gonococcal urethritis?

Doxycycline

What is the key diagnostic finding in herpes simplex virus on a Tzanck smear?

Multi nucleated giant cells

What is the preferred mode of delivery for a pregnant woman with an active herpes simplex virus infection to prevent transmission to the infant?

Scheduled C-section

How long should primary outbreaks of herpes simplex virus be treated with antivirals?

7 to 10 days

Which virus can remain latent in the nerve root ganglion and be reactivated by changes in the immune system?

Herpes simplex virus

What is considered the first episode of symptoms in a patient (such as genital warts, HSV-2) that is already diagnosed with herpes simplex virus infection (HSV-1)?

'Non-primary 1st episode'

Which of the following is a common symptom that precedes an outbreak of painful vesicles in herpes simplex virus infections?

'Prodrome' of burning, tingling, and itching

What term is used to describe a patient with a new strain of herpes simplex virus but already has antibodies to the other strain?

'Non-primary 1st episode'

'SEM' is a complication seen in neonates exposed to which viral infection during delivery?

'SEM' can result from exposure to herpes simplex virus

'Disseminated disease' is a potential consequence seen in neonates exposed to which viral infection?

'Disseminated disease' can result from neonatal exposure to herpes simplex virus

What is the recommended duration of antiviral treatment for a recurrent outbreak of HSV?

1 to 5 days

Which of the following antivirals is NOT mentioned in the text for the treatment of HSV?

Ganciclovir

When is prophylaxis with antivirals recommended for pregnant patients with recurrent HSV infection?

At 36 weeks gestation

How long do most outbreaks of HSV typically resolve spontaneously?

10-19 days

What is the primary reason for starting antiviral prophylaxis in pregnant patients with recurrent HSV infection?

To prevent transmission to the infant

What is the primary reason for vaccinating patients against HPV?

To prevent genital warts and cervical cancer

How long does it typically take for most patients to clear an HPV infection?

2 years

What is the appearance of visible anogenital warts caused by HPV?

Soft, flesh-colored, cauliflower-like lesions

Which of the following statements about HPV testing is true?

There is no test to confirm that warts are due to HPV

How is the HPV vaccine Gardasil 9 administered?

A 2-dose series, 6 months apart, if started between ages 9 to 14

How soon after coming in contact with a syphilis lesion does it take to create a painless chancre?

10-90 days

What is the first test ordered if a provider suspects syphilis?

Non-treponemal test

How does secondary syphilis typically present?

With a maculopapular eruption involving the trunk and extremities

What is the recommendation for the treatment of syphilis?

Penicillin (IM injection)

What is the characteristic of a chancre in syphilis?

1-2 cm with raised indurated margins

Why is a treponemal test ordered after a positive non-treponemal test?

To confirm the diagnosis by finding syphilis antibodies

What can be visible under darkfield microscopy in syphilis?

Bacteria from the chancre

When does late (tertiary) syphilis occur?

When treatment is delayed, with neurological deficits and internal organ damage

If a patient with syphillis reports a penicillin allergy, what is recommended

Desensitize patient to be able to use PCN

There is early screening for syphilis in pregnancy because it can cross the placental barrier and cause stillbirth on fetus

True

What is the primary target of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)?

CD4-positive T-cells and macrophages

What is the highest risk mode of transmission for HIV?

Receptive anal sex

A patient presents with a painful tender, genital ulcer that produces foul smelling discharge. The patient tests negative for HSV and Syphilis. What is likely?

Chancroid

What is the primary stage of Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV) characterized by?

Genital ulcer or mucosal inflammation at the site of infection

Which of the following is the recommended treatment for Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?

100 mg of doxycycline twice a day for 21 days

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

Which of the following is a characteristic of the secondary stage of Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?

Swollen lymph nodes called buboes with anal and rectal bleeding/discharge

What is the late stage presentation of Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?

Fibrosis and strictures in the anogenital tract

A patient presents with intense pubic itching with the presence of lice. What is the treatment?

Permethrin 1% cream

Who should receive annual trichomonas, syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia screening?

Patients with HIV

Which STIs are considered reportable according to the text?

Syphilis, chancroid, LGV

Which group of individuals need HIV screening at least once?

ALL Women and Men aged 13-64

Who needs to be screened annually for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia?

Women under 25 years of age

What are STATE reportable to partner conditions?

HIV and syphilis

Study Notes

Vulvovaginal Candidiasis (Yeast Infection)

  • Caused by candida albicans
  • Risk factors: recent antibiotic use, immunocompromise, diabetes, medications like SGLT2 and contraceptives, and pregnancy
  • Symptoms: pruritis, burning pain, thick, curd-like vaginal discharge
  • Diagnosis: clinical history, findings, and wet mount with KOH
  • Treatment: fluconazole (single dose or 150mg every 72 hours for 3 doses) or topical azole medication (short course of 1-3 days)

Trichomoniasis

  • Caused by a single-celled flagellated protozoan
  • Often presents with bacterial vaginosis
  • Symptoms: vaginal irritation, malodorous, froth, yellow/green discharge
  • Key cervical finding: punctate hemorrhages on vaginal and cervix
  • Diagnosis: gold standard is Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT) using Genprobe, initial test is wet mount showing motile, flagellated organisms
  • Treatment: metronidazole (500mg twice a day for 7 days for women, 2g single dose for men)
  • Partner treatment and abstinence from sex for 2 weeks post-treatment are necessary

Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)

  • Caused by Gardnerella vaginalis
  • Not a sexually transmitted infection (STI)
  • Risk factors: being sexually active with a new partner or multiple partners, women who have sex with women, douching, and smoking
  • Symptoms: thin white/gray vaginal discharge with a fishy odor
  • Diagnosis: Amsel's Criteria (at least 3 of the following: gray/white discharge, clue cells on wet mount, vaginal fluid pH > 4.5, positive whiff/amine test)
  • Treatment: metronidazole or clindamycin cream
  • Male partners do not need treatment
  • Asymptomatic patients do not need treatment

Chlamydia

  • Highest reported STI in the United States
  • Risk factors: young age, new or multiple sex partners, history of STIs, and/or inconsistent condom use
  • Symptoms: cervicitis, cervical discharge, lower abdominal pain, fever, chills, and adnexal tenderness in women; urethritis, penile discharge, and dysuria in men
  • Diagnosis: gold standard is Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT) using Genprobe
  • Treatment: doxycycline (100mg twice a day for 7 days) or Azithromycin (1g single dose)
  • Partner treatment and testing for cure in 3 months are necessary

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

  • Group of nonenveloped, icosahedral viruses classified within the family Papillomaviridae
  • Composed of double-stranded DNA and divided into two major functional regions: early (E) and late (L) regions
  • Highly species-specific, infecting humans exclusively
  • Transmitted primarily through skin-to-skin contact
  • Can persist in the host for varying durations, cleared by the immune system in most cases
  • Clinical presentation varies depending on the affected site and type of virus
  • Associated with various forms of cancer (anal, cervical, vulvar, vaginal, and oropharyngeal)
  • Laboratory studies: detection using molecular techniques like polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  • Prevention strategies: promoting safe sexual practices, improving hygiene, and encouraging vaccination

Gonorrhea

  • Found with a co-infection of chlamydia in 50% of cases
  • Recommended routine screening annually for patients 25 years of age and younger
  • Caused by Neisseria Gonorrhea, a gram-negative diplococci
  • Presents exactly the same as Chlamydia
  • Diagnostic gold standard: NAAT Genprobe
  • Treatment: ceftriaxone (500mg IM injection single dose) or azithromycin (1g single dose)
  • Partner treatment and abstinence from sex for 2 weeks post-treatment are necessary

Syphilis

  • Caused by Treponema pallidum
  • Transmitted through direct contact with an infected lesion
  • Symptoms: painless papules that ulcerate into a 1-2 cm chancre with raised indurated margins
  • Secondary syphilis: diffuse, symmetric maculopapular eruption involving the entire trunk and extremities
  • Diagnosis: non-treponemal test (first test to screen for the bacteria), treponemal test (to confirm the diagnosis by finding syphilis antibodies)
  • Treatment: penicillin (IM injection), even if an allergy is present
  • Late (tertiary) syphilis: patient often presents with neurological deficits, blindness, and dementia, and internal organ damage

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

  • Retrovirus that targets and infects key components of the human immune system
  • Three stages: asymptomatic HIV infection, clinical latency, and AIDS
  • Stages can progress from initial infection to advanced disease
  • Symptoms: may not experience any symptoms, may appear healthy, but can still transmit the virus
  • Diagnosis: NAAT Genprobe
  • Treatment: antiretroviral therapy (ART)

Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)

  • Subtype of Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Presents in three stages: primary, secondary, and late
  • Primary: genital ulcer or mucosal inflammation reaction at the site of inoculation
  • Secondary: local direct extension of the infection to the regional lymph nodes, called "buboes"
  • Late: fibrosis and strictures in the anogenital tract
  • Diagnosis: NAAT
  • Treatment: doxycycline (100mg twice a day for 21 days)

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

  • Ascending acute infection of the upper genital tract
  • Caused by untreated Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
  • Symptoms: lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, cervical discharge, fever, dyspareunia
  • Diagnosis: presumptive clinical diagnosis using history and physical exam findings
  • Treatment: ceftriaxone (500mg IM for one dose), doxycycline (100mg twice a day for 14 days), and metronidazole (500mg twice a day for 14 days)
  • Complications: infertility, increased risk of ectopic pregnancies, and Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

Non-Gonococcal Urethritis (NGU)

  • Inflammation of the urethra that is not caused by Neisseria gonorrhea

  • Diagnosis: urinalysis, microscopic examination of first-void urine sediment, urethral swabs, and culture testing

  • Causes: Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma genitalium, Trichomonas vaginalis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Haemophilus vaginalis, and Herpes simplex virus

  • Treatment: azithromycin or doxycycline are commonly prescribed for Chlamydia trachomitis infections

  • CDC recommends considering M.genitalium infection in cases of persistent or recurrent urethritis### Genital Herpes (Herpes Simplex)

  • Caused by strains HSV1 and/or HSV2

  • Highly common disease that can present with latency

  • HSV can remain latent in the nerve root ganglion and be reactivated by changes in the immune system

  • Patients tend to report a prodrome of burning, tingling, and itching, followed by an outbreak of painful vesicles on an erythematous base

  • Most outbreaks resolve spontaneously after 10-19 days

Diagnosis and Treatment

  • Diagnosed in the clinical setting with viral cultures or PCR swabs if the patient has active lesions
  • A Tzanck smear finding of “multi nucleated giant cells” is a key diagnostic finding in HSV
  • Primary outbreaks should be treated for 7-10 days with antivirals
  • Recurrent outbreaks should be treated for 1-5 days with antivirals
  • Antivirals used for HSV include Acyclovir, Valacyclovir, and Famicilovir
  • Patients with recurrent HSV infection or pregnant patients can take a daily dose of antivirals to suppress the virus and decrease the risk of spreading the disease to partners

Transmission and Prevention

  • Can be transmitted from mother to infant before, during, and after delivery
  • Prophylaxis is recommended to be started at 36 weeks gestation in known cases of HSV
  • A c-section is preferred if a pregnant woman has an active infection of HSV at time of delivery
  • Neonatal HSV can cause localized skin, eye mouth disease (SEM), CNS disease, and/or disseminated disease

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

  • Most prevalent STI, with at least 50% of sexually active people contracting the virus in their lifetime
  • Most patients will clear an HPV infection within 2 years
  • Can present as a cutaneous viral infection with flat, common, and plantar warts
  • Can present as a mucocutaneous viral infection with genital warts, squamous intraepithelial lesions, or carcinomas of the vagina, vulva, cervix, anus, or penis
  • Can impact the oral and respiratory mucosa
  • Most patients with HPV are asymptomatic
  • Visible anogenital warts present as “soft, flesh colored single or multiple flat, cauliflower-like lesions”
  • HPV 16 and 18 account for 70% of cervical cancers
  • Gardasil 9 vaccine can be given as a 2 dose series, 6 months apart, if started between ages 9 to 14

Explore the characteristics and risk factors associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis, commonly known as a yeast infection. Learn about the clinical presentation, diagnosis, and common causes of this condition.

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