Unit 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
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Questions and Answers

What type of tissue is capable of mitotic division and therefore susceptible to hyperplasia?

  • Epithelial
  • Mesenchymal
  • Glandular
  • All of the above (correct)

    • What is the term for the reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type?

  • Necrosis
  • Metaplasia (correct)
  • Hyperplasia
  • Dysplasia

    • What is characterized by deranged cell growth of a specific tissue that results in cells that vary in size, shape, and organization?

  • Metaplasia
  • Dysplasia (correct)
  • Necrosis
  • Hyperplasia

    • What type of necrosis occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed?

    <p>Liquefaction necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the impairment of oxygen delivery and the removal of metabolic end products?

    <p>Ischemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs when an artery supplying an organ or part of the body becomes occluded and no other source of blood supply exists?

    <p>Infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the buildup of substances that cells cannot immediately use or eliminate?

    <p>Intracellular accumulations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of compensatory hyperplasia?

    <p>Regeneration of liver after partial hepatectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for cell death in an organ or tissue that is still part of a living organism?

    <p>Necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the process by which cells that are better able to survive under certain circumstances replace other cells?

    <p>Metaplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common pathway for lead absorption into the blood?

    <p>Through the lungs and gastrointestinal tracts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source of calcium deposits in dystrophic calcification?

    <p>Dead or dying cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the chief consequence of lead poisoning in children?

    <p>Cerebral and cerebellar white matter demyelination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of screening in cancer diagnosis?

    <p>To detect cancer in an asymptomatic population</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of cancer cells that makes them detectable by the Papanicalaou Test?

    <p>Loss of cohesive properties and intercellular junctions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the macroscopic deposition of calcium salts in injured tissue?

    <p>Dystrophic calcification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the major cause of metastatic calcification?

    <p>Hyperparathyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the accumulation of abnormal substances in the cytoplasm or nucleus of cells?

    <p>Accumulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the diagnostic method that involves the removal of a tissue specimen for microscopic study?

    <p>Biopsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for substances released from normal cells in response to the presence of a tumor?

    <p>Tumor markers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary advantage of microarray technology in cancer research?

    <p>Ability to analyze a large number of changes in cancer cells to determine overall patterns of behavior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of evidence-based practice in healthcare?

    <p>To integrate individual clinical expertise with external clinical evidence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended daily dose of folic acid for women of childbearing age?

    <p>0.4mg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the period of embryo development when environmental influences are most likely to cause disturbances?

    <p>Organogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of inheritance pattern is typically associated with X-linked recessive disorders?

    <p>X-linked recessive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the estimated prevalence of Marfan syndrome?

    <p>1 per 5000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of secondary prevention in healthcare?

    <p>To detect disease early when it is still asymptomatic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the group of infectious agents that can cause congenital anomalies?

    <p>TORCH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which folic acid prevents neural tube defects?

    <p>By increasing the expression of genes involved in neural development</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the process by which a small sample of tissue is removed from the body for examination?

    <p>Biopsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of the study of morphology in relation to disease?

    <p>The fundamental structure or form of cells or tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the study of the cells and extracellular matrix of body tissues?

    <p>Histology</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term that describes the evolution of a disease?

    <p>Clinical Course</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place from the time of initial contact with an etiologic agent?

    <p>Pathogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for a disease that is relatively severe, but self-limiting?

    <p>Acute disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for an intermediate or between acute and chronic; not as severe as an acute disease and not as prolonged as a chronic disease?

    <p>Subacute disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the designation as to the nature or cause of a health problem?

    <p>Diagnosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the process by which a cell increases in number, which can be physiologic or pathologic?

    <p>Hyperplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which antibodies impair signal transmission in the neuromuscular junction?

    <p>Shedding of acetylcholine receptor-rich terminal portions of the folds in the end plate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical presentation of multiple sclerosis?

    <p>Subacute episode of parathesias, optic neuritis, or diplopia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of Parkinson's disease?

    <p>Progressive destruction of the nigrostriatal pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between primary and secondary brain injuries?

    <p>Primary brain injuries are caused by impact, while secondary brain injuries are caused by infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical location of an epidural hematoma?

    <p>Between the dura and the skull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of antiparkinson drugs?

    <p>Increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main cause of secondary brain injuries?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical age of onset for Parkinson's disease?

    <p>57 years old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of botulinum toxin injections in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?

    <p>Treating dystonias such as eyelid spasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary category of multiple sclerosis?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of the skeletal deformities in Marfan syndrome?

    <p>A long, thin body with exceptionally long extremities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common eye disorder in Marfan syndrome?

    <p>Bilateral dislocation of the lens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the respiratory system in acid-base regulation?

    <p>Control of extracellular CO2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the palpable swelling produced by expansion of the interstitial fluid volume?

    <p>Edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of treatment for edema?

    <p>Correct or control the underlying cause</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the fight or flight response?

    <p>Acute stress response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of chronic activation of the stress response?

    <p>Development of long-term health problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base regulation?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the process of detecting and diagnosing infectious diseases?

    <p>Detection and diagnosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most life-threatening aspect of Marfan syndrome?

    <p>Cardiovascular defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the epithelial barriers in the body?

    <p>To physically prevent microorganisms from entering the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the presence and multiplication of a microorganism within a host, resulting in injury to the host?

    <p>Infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the disease-producing potential of a microorganism?

    <p>Virulence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the process by which the host mounts an immune response to an antigen, either through vaccination or environmental exposure?

    <p>Active immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of IgE in the immune system?

    <p>To facilitate the release of histamine into the systemic circulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immunity is conferred from mother to fetus, providing short-term protection against infection?

    <p>Passive immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most critical initial management step in treating anaphylaxis?

    <p>Withdrawal of the offending allergen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for protein molecules that are also known as immunoglobulins?

    <p>Antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the removal of infected tissues, organs, or limbs to limit the spread of a pathogen?

    <p>Surgical intervention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source of energy for the nervous tissue?

    <p>Glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of chronic pain that distinguishes it from acute pain?

    <p>It persists longer than expected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the process by which the innate immune response is initiated by the body's leukocytes?

    <p>Recognition of common surface receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the smaller, extrachromosomal pieces of circular DNA that bacteria often harbor?

    <p>Plasmids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between cutaneous pain and visceral pain?

    <p>Type of damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for pain that is perceived at a site different from its point of origin?

    <p>Referred pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the flexible lipid membrane that surrounds the cytoplasm of a cell?

    <p>Cytoplasmic membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the underlying pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the grading scale used to describe the severity of anaphylaxis?

    <p>I to IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of Ig in the humoral defense mechanism?

    <p>To neutralize pathogens through antigen-binding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the mechanism by which the brain receives 15% to 20% of the total resting cardiac output?

    <p>Metabolic requirement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason why traumatic intracerebral hematomas are more common in younger people?

    <p>The dura is more firmly attached to the skull surface in younger people.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common symptom of ischemic stroke?

    <p>Facial droop</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which cholinesterase inhibitors slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>By potentiating the action of available acetylcholine and inhibiting acetylcholinesterase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of acute subdural hematomas?

    <p>Tear in the small bridging veins that connect veins on the surface of the cortex to dural sinuses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

    <p>Rapidly progressive ascending symmetrical limb weakness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of care for patients with Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>To maintain socialization and provide support for caregivers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of stroke?

    <p>Cryptogenic stroke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which Alzheimer's disease is diagnosed?

    <p>Clinical findings and laboratory tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary risk factor for chronic subdural hematoma?

    <p>Advancing age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary complication of acute subdural hematomas?

    <p>Increased intracranial pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most serious form of conjunctivitis that can lead to corneal ulceration and permanent blindness if not treated?

    <p>N.gonorrhoeae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is commonly seen in children older than 3 years with otitis media?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of otitis media with effusion?

    <p>Eustachian tube dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a significant risk factor for otitis media?

    <p>Smoking in the house</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended method to reduce the risk of contracting otitis media?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical age range for otitis media diagnosis?

    <p>3 months to 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the structural immaturity that contributes to the increased risk of otitis media in infants?

    <p>Shorter and more horizontal eustachian tube</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of tympanic membrane perforation in otitis media?

    <p>Purulent material drains into the external auditory canal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of treatment in paralysis?

    <p>Support of vital functions and prevention of complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following neurotransmitters is implicated in the development of schizophrenia?

    <p>Dopamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the decrease in visual acuity resulting from abnormal visual development in infancy or early childhood?

    <p>Amblyopia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of viral conjunctivitis?

    <p>Generalized conjunctival hyperemia and minimal exudate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which dopamine is involved in depression?

    <p>Dysregulation of dopamine levels in the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the abnormality of eye coordination or alignment that results in loss of binocular vision?

    <p>Strabismus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between nonparalytic and paralytic strabismus?

    <p>Primary muscle impairment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the functional abnormalities seen in schizophrenia, including loss of cortical gray matter and reduced dendritic spine density?

    <p>Neuroimaging abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between allergic and bacterial conjunctivitis?

    <p>Type of discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of treatment in major depressive disorder?

    <p>Relief of symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of obtaining cultures in the diagnosis of infectious diseases?

    <p>To isolate and identify the probable pathogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of IgM antibodies in neonates?

    <p>They do not cross the placenta and are therefore indicative of in-utero infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of protease inhibitors in the treatment of HIV?

    <p>They inhibit the maturation events in the virus life cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the limitation of serology in the diagnosis of infectious diseases?

    <p>It is not as accurate as culture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the advantage of antigen detection over culture and serology?

    <p>It reduces the time required for diagnosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the target site of antifungal agents?

    <p>Cytoplasmic membranes of yeasts or molds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the limitation of cultures in the diagnosis of infectious diseases?

    <p>The causative organism cannot be identified in up to 33% of people presenting with sepsis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of antibacterial agents?

    <p>They cause irreversible and lethal damage to the bacterial pathogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of IgG antibodies in the diagnosis of infectious diseases?

    <p>They increase during the acute phase and remain elevated until or beyond resolution</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the advantage of DNA and RNA sequencing in the diagnosis of infectious diseases?

    <p>It allows for the detection of infectious agents at the molecular level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Unit 1: Concepts of Health and Disease

    • Pathogenesis: the sequence of cellular and tissue events that occur from the time of initial contact with an etiologic agent until the ultimate expression of a disease.
    • Morphology: refers to the fundamental structure or form of cells or tissues, including gross anatomic and microscopic changes characteristic of a disease.
    • Histology: the study of cells and extracellular matrix of body tissues, with histologic sections playing a crucial role in diagnosing many types of cancers.
    • Clinical Manifestations: the signs and symptoms that indicate the presence of a disease, such as fever.
    • Diagnosis: the designation of the nature or cause of a health problem, requiring a careful history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests.
    • Clinical Course: the evolution of a disease, which can be acute, subacute, or chronic.
    • Disease: an acute or chronic illness that one acquires or is born with, causing physiologic dysfunction in one or more body systems.

    Unit 2: Cellular Adaptation and Cell Injury

    • Hyperplasia: an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, occurring in tissues with cells capable of mitotic division, such as the epidermis, intestinal epithelium, and glandular tissue.
      • Physiologic hyperplasia: e.g., breast and uterine enlargement during pregnancy.
      • Nonphysiologic hyperplasia: e.g., excessive estrogen production causing endometrial hyperplasia.
    • Metaplasia: a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another, often in response to chronic irritation and inflammation.
      • Example: adaptive substitution of stratified squamous epithelial cells for ciliated columnar epithelial cells in the trachea and large airways of a habitual cigarette smoker.
    • Dysplasia: deranged cell growth of a specific tissue, resulting in cells that vary in size, shape, and organization.
      • Example: dysplastic changes in cancers of the respiratory tract and uterine cervix.
      • Pap smear: a diagnostic tool used to detect cervical dysplasia and cancer.
    • Necrosis: cell death in an organ or tissue, characterized by liquefaction, coagulation, or caseous necrosis.
      • Liquefaction Necrosis: occurs when some cells die, but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed.
      • Coagulation Necrosis: characterized by acidosis, denatured enzymatic and structural proteins, and commonly seen in infarcted areas.
      • Caseous Necrosis: a form of coagulation necrosis in which dead cells persist indefinitely, commonly found in the center of TB granulomas.
    • Ischemia: impaired oxygen delivery and impaired removal of metabolic end products, affecting local tissue injury.
    • Infarction: occurs when an artery supplying an organ or part of the body becomes occluded, and no other source of blood supply exists.

    Unit 2: Cellular Adaptation and Cell Injury (continued)

    • Intracellular Accumulations: the buildup of substances that cells cannot immediately use or eliminate, such as beta-amyloid fragments.
    • Pathologic Calcifications: the deposition of calcium salts in injured tissue, including dystrophic and metastatic calcifications.
      • Dystrophic Calcifications: occur in dead or dying tissues, and are often visible to the naked eye.
      • Metastatic Calcifications: occur in normal tissues as a result of increased serum calcium levels.
    • Injury from Physical Agents: e.g., lead poisoning, which can cause toxic effects on the body, including anemia, GI tract disturbances, and neurological damage.

    Unit 3: Genetic Control of Cell Function

    • Genetic Control: the process by which genes regulate cellular function, from gene transcription to protein synthesis.
    • Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment: various methods used to detect and diagnose diseases, including tumor markers, Papanicalaou test, tissue biopsy, immunohistochemistry, and microarray technology.

    Genetic and Congenital Disorders

    • Period of Vulnerability: the time interval during which the embryo's development is most easily disturbed, extending from day 15 to day 60 after conception.
    • TORCH Infections: a group of infectious agents that can cause congenital anomalies, including toxoplasmosis, other agents, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.
    • Folic Acid Deficiency: a risk factor for neural tube defects, such as anencephaly, spina bifida, and encephalocele.
    • X-Linked Recessive Inheritance: a pattern of inheritance in which a defective gene is located on the X chromosome and is recessive, affecting males who inherit the mutant copy.
    • Marfan's Syndrome: an autosomal dominant disorder of the connective tissue, affecting the eyes, cardiovascular system, and skeletal system.

    Unit 4: Stress and Adaptation

    • Stress Response: the body's response to stress, including the activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
      • Acute Stress: a short-term response to stress, characterized by the fight-or-flight response.
      • Chronic Stress: a long-term response to stress, which can lead to pathophysiologic changes and health problems.
    • Edema: palpable swelling produced by the expansion of the interstitial fluid volume, which can be assessed and treated in various ways.
    • Acid-Base Regulation: the process by which the body maintains a stable pH, involving the lungs, kidneys, and chemical buffers.

    Unit 4: Infectious Diseases

    • Diagnosis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases: the detection and diagnosis of infectious diseases, including culture, serology, and antigen detection.
    • Infectious Diseases: various diseases caused by infectious agents, such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses.### DNA and RNA Sequencing
    • DNA probe hybridization: small fragments of DNA are cut from a specific pathogen's genome and labeled with compounds for detection
    • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR): incorporates two unique reagents: a specific pair of oligonucleotides (primers) and heat-stable DNA polymerase

    Infectious Diseases

    • Diagnosis and treatment of infectious diseases
      • Antimicrobial agents:
        • Antibacterial agents (antibiotics): effective only against prokaryotic organisms, bactericidal or bacteriostatic
        • Antiviral agents: interrupt viral replication, protease inhibitors for HIV
        • Antifungal agents: target cytoplasmic membranes of yeasts or molds
        • Antiparasitic agents: exploit essential components of parasite metabolism or cellular anatomy
      • Immunotherapy: supplements or stimulates host immune response
      • Surgical intervention: removal of infected tissues, organs, or limbs

    Innate and Adaptive Immunity

    • Epithelial barriers: intact skin and epithelial cells lining gastrointestinal, respiratory, and urogenital tracts
    • Innate immune response: recognition of common surface receptors on invading microorganisms by leukocytes
    • Infectious disease terminology:
      • Toxin: produced by bacteria
      • Infection: presence and multiplication of another living organism within a host
      • Colonization: act of establishing a presence
      • Microflora: internal and external exposed surfaces of the human body normally inhabited by bacteria
      • Mutualism: interaction benefiting both microorganism and host
      • Parasitic relationship: only the microorganism benefits
      • Infectious disease: injury or pathologic damage caused by a microorganism

    Passive Immunity and Immunoglobulins

    • Passive immunity: immunity transferred from another source
    • Adaptive immunity: acquired through host immune response to an antigen
    • Immunoglobulins (Igs):
      • Classified into 5 categories based on role in humoral defense mechanism
      • Comprised of four polypeptide chains with at least two identical antigen-binding sites

    Anaphylaxis

    • Catastrophic, systemic, life-threatening IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
    • Clinical manifestations: graded on a scale of I to IV, with increasing severity
    • Prevention and management: focus on withdrawal of offending allergen, maintenance of patent airway, and administration of epinephrine

    Innate Immunity Barriers

    • Protect humans against pulmonary infections
    • Include physical barriers, such as the skin and mucous membranes

    Metabolic Requirements of Nervous Tissue

    • High rate of metabolism, requiring 15-20% of total resting cardiac output and consuming 20% of oxygen
    • Interruption of blood or oxygen supply leads to clinically observable signs and symptoms

    Somatosensory Function, Pain, Headache, and Temperature Regulation

    • Types of pain:
      • Acute pain: elicited by injury to body tissues and activation of nociceptive stimuli
      • Chronic pain: persists longer than expected after an inciting event
      • Cutaneous pain: arises from superficial structures
      • Deep somatic pain: originates in deep body structures
      • Visceral pain: originates in visceral organs
      • Referred pain: perceived at a site different from its point of origin

    Disorders of the Motor Unit and Neuromuscular Junction

    • Myasthenia gravis:
      • Disorder of transmission at the neuromuscular junction
      • Antibody-mediated attack on the nicotinic AChR or muscle-specific tyrosine kinase
    • Neuromuscular junction:
      • Synapse between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber
      • Transmission of impulses mediated by the release of acetylcholine from axon terminals

    Disorders of Motor Function

    • Multiple sclerosis:
      • Characterized by inflammation and destruction of mostly the white matter of the CNS
      • Lesions consist of hard, sharp-edged, demyelinated patches throughout the white matter
    • Parkinson's disease:
      • Degenerative disorder of basal ganglia function
      • Resulting in variable combinations of tremor, rigidity, akinesia/bradykinesia, and postural changes

    Mechanisms of Brain Injury

    • Primary brain injuries: damage caused by impact, including focal (contusion, laceration, hemorrhage) or diffuse (concussion, diffuse axonal injury)
    • Secondary brain injuries: damage resulting from subsequent brain swelling, infection, or cerebral hypoxia
    • Hematomas:
      • Epidural: develops between the inner table of the skull and the dura
      • Subdural: develops between the dura and the arachnoid
      • Traumatic intracerebral: single or multiple, occurring in any lobe of the brain
    • Stroke:
      • Ischemic: caused by cerebrovascular obstruction by thrombosis or emboli
      • Hemorrhagic: most frequently fatal, resulting from the spontaneous rupture of a cerebral blood vessel

    Disorders of Brain Function/Cerebrovascular Disease/Stroke

    • Clinical manifestations: determined by the cerebral artery affected, the area of brain tissue supplied, and the adequacy of collateral circulation
    • Always sudden in onset and focal, usually one-sided
    • Symptoms include facial droop, arm weakness, slurred speech, unilateral numbness, vision loss, language disturbance, and sudden unexplained imbalance or ataxia

    Neurocognitive Disorders

    • Alzheimer's disease:

      • Diagnosis based on clinical findings, neuroimaging, and metabolic screening
      • No curative treatment, but medications can slow progression and improve depression, agitation, or sleep disorders

    • Guillain-Barré syndrome:

      • Acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy
      • Characterized by rapidly progressive ascending symmetrical limb weakness and loss of tendon reflexes
      • Treatment includes support of vital functions, prevention of complications, and plasmapheresis and high-dose intravenous immunoglobulin therapy

    • Schizophrenia:

      • Neurophysiology of symptoms: changes in dopamine and serotonergic systems, decreased glutamate activity, and other neurotransmitter changes

    • Mood disorders:

      • Neurophysiology of symptoms: interactions between biologic and psychosocial factors, inflammation, HPA axis hyperactivity, low levels of neurotrophic growth factor, and low levels of vitamin D### Strabismus (Squint)

    • Abnormality of eye coordination or alignment that results in loss of binocular vision

    • Can be divided into two forms: nonparalytic (concomitant) and paralytic (nonconcomitant)

    • Nonparalytic form: no primary muscle impairment

    • Paralytic form: weakness or paralysis of one or more of the extraocular muscles

    • Can be intermitted or periodic, with periods of parallel eyes

    Amblyopia (Lazy Eye)

    • Decrease in visual acuity resulting from abnormal visual development in infancy or early childhood
    • Vision loss ranges from mild (worse than 20/25) to severe (legal blindness, 20/200 or worse)

    Conjunctivitis

    • Allergic: characterized by itching, bilateral tearing, itching, and redness of the eye
    • Treatment: allergen avoidance, cold compresses, eye washes with tear substitute, and oral antihistamines
    • Viral: common cause is adenovirus, symptoms include generalized conjunctival hyperemia, copious tearing, and minimal exudate
    • Bacterial: burning, tearing, mucopurulent or purulent discharge, usually begins in one eye and spreads to the other
    • Treatment: antibiotic drops or ointments, except for N. gonorrhoeae which requires systemic antibiotics

    Disorders of Hearing and Vestibular Function: Otitis Media

    • Clinical manifestations: acute onset of otalgia, fever, irritability, otorrhea, hearing loss, evidence of middle ear inflammation, and middle ear effusion
    • Symptoms: ear pain, sensation of fullness in ear, complaint of hearing loss, dizziness, decreased tympanic membrane mobility, and visible air-fluid level with or without bubble
    • Risk factors: smoking in the house, prematurity, daycare attendance, unimmunized status, bottle-feeding, feeding in the supine position, being overweight or obese, family history of otitis media, being male, and sharing a bedroom
    • Prevention: routine childhood vaccinations, elimination of household smoking, exclusive breast-feeding, avoiding feeding while lying down, use of xylitol, and selecting daycare facilities with small staff-to-child ratio

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    Quiz on concepts of health and disease, covering pathogenesis, morphology, and histology. Explore the sequence of cellular and tissue events leading to disease expression and the fundamental structure of cells and tissues.

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