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Everything Exam
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Everything Exam

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is a virulence factor of bacteria?

  • Cell wall composition
  • Nuclear membrane structure
  • Mitochondrial DNA sequence
  • Effector proteins (correct)

    • Why might some textbooks exclude the role of protists in human health?

  • Protists are beneficial for human health
  • Protists have no impact on human health
  • Protists are largely unknown in their role beyond causing disease (correct)
  • Protists are well-researched and understood in their role in human health

    • What are prions?

  • Fungal toxins
  • Viral RNA molecules
  • Misfolded proteins that cause fatal brain necrosis (correct)
  • Bacterial cell wall components

    • How can you explain the case of Mary Mallon?

    <p>She was a carrier of typhoid fever without showing symptoms, causing widespread outbreaks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial structure is involved in adherence and evasion of immune detection?

    <p>Capsule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial toxin is released when cells are destroyed and can cause fever, shock, and death?

    <p>Endotoxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which human herpesvirus can cause shingles later in life after remaining latent in host cells?

    <p>Varicella-zoster virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protozoan immune avoidance strategy involves coating themselves in host antigens?

    <p>Antigenic masking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the B subunit in AB exotoxins?

    <p>Binds host cell receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial secretion system is involved in the delivery of effector proteins that harm the host?

    <p>Type 3 secretion system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Type 4 pili in bacteria?

    <p>Twitching motility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure on the tip of the pili binds to carbohydrates on the host cell surface?

    <p>Adhesion protein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative cell wall that can cause severe inflammatory responses when released?

    <p>Lipopolysaccharide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial structure aids in adherence and evasion of immune detection by altering antigenic epitopes?

    <p>Capsule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which human herpesvirus can cause chickenpox at a young age and later reemerge as shingles?

    <p>Varicella-zoster virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which toxin, produced by Bacillus anthracis, can cause lung necrosis and be fatal at high doses?

    <p>Anthrax toxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent of typhoid fever?

    <p>Salmonella typhi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogenicity island of Salmonella is associated with invasion of host cells?

    <p>SPI-1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of secretion system is involved in virulence?

    <p>Type III</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does SPI-5 play in Salmonella?

    <p>Both intra and extracellular survival</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the functional role of SPI-2 in Salmonella?

    <p>Survival within host cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reservoir for Salmonella enterica?

    <p>Food processing plants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between non-typhoidal salmonellosis and typhoid fever?

    <p>The affected organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of Type IV secretion systems in bacteria?

    <p>Conjugation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of SPI-1 in Salmonella pathogenicity?

    <p>Invasion of host cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which secretion system allows bacteria to move compounds from the cytosol to the extracellular environment?

    <p>Type II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of bacterial proliferation in the bloodstream and organs during typhoid fever?

    <p>Organ failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is responsible for causing both non-typhoidal salmonellosis and typhoid fever?

    <p>Salmonella enterica</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?

    <p>Toxin produced by S. aureus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the function of a superantigen?

    <p>Causes an overreaction of the immune system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is St. Anthony's Fire known as in Canada?

    <p>Shingles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT true about rashes?

    <p>A change in color and texture of the skin is usually referred to as a rash</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the skin serves as a barrier that blocks microbial access to deeper tissues?

    <p>Epidermis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of rash consists of small blisters?

    <p>Vesicular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the presumptive identity of the Gram-positive bacteria in the case study?

    <p>Staphylococcus aureus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of toxin is coagulase?

    <p>Exoenzyme</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the positive tube coagulase results in the diagnosis?

    <p>Confirmation of Staphylococcus aureus infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is used to detect the presence of coagulase in bacteria?

    <p>Tube coagulase test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the presence of alpha toxin in the culture results?

    <p>Indicates Staphylococcus aureus infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of coagulase produced by Staphylococcus aureus?

    <p>Promoting blood clotting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species is the most likely cause of cellulitis in a patient with Gram-positive cocci that grow in chains, encapsulated, and containing the M protein on its surface?

    <p>Streptococcus pyogenes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Herpes zoster ophthalmicus, caused by reactivation of the herpes zoster virus, can occur during a(n) ____________ outbreak.

    <p>shingles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common method for diagnosing fungal keratitis?

    <p>Fungal culture from corneal scraping</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fungal pathogens are known to cause the majority of skin infections?

    <p>Epidermophyton and Trichophyton</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial pathogen can cause inclusion conjunctivitis in newborns and trachoma, the most frequent cause of infectious blindness?

    <p>Chlamydia trachomatis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reservoir for the most common Candida infection, candida intertrigo?

    <p>Skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic appearance of hemolysin-secreting strains of streptococci when plated onto agar containing RBCs?

    <p>Beta hemolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is responsible for causing chickenpox and can later re-emerge as shingles in about 20% of patients?

    <p>Varicella-Zoster virus (VZV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection can lead to conditions such as folliculitis, boils, and toxic shock syndrome?

    <p>S. aureus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic is MRSA resistant to, necessitating treatment with vancomycin?

    <p>Methicillin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent of smallpox, which has been eradicated from the population?

    <p>Variola virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species can cause necrotizing fasciitis, a severe condition that has natural reservoirs in the nasopharynx and skin?

    <p>Streptococcus pyogenes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the routine childhood vaccination involving a live, attenuated form of the VSV?

    <p>Varicella-Zoster virus (VZV) vaccination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Streptococcal pyogenic exotoxins (SPEs) act as superantigens and cause massive amounts of cytokines to be released, leading to shock.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fungal keratitis is primarily caused by species of Fusarium, Aspergillus, and Candida.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The majority of fungal skin infections are caused by dermatophytes, which infect cool, moist, keratinized tissues such as hair follicles, skin, and nails.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Herpes zoster ophthalmicus can occur during a shingles outbreak, caused by reactivation of the herpes zoster virus.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chlamydia trachomatis can cause inclusion conjunctivitis in newborns and trachoma, which is the most frequent cause of infectious blindness.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely cause of the symptoms described in the scenario?

    <p>Influenza virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT mentioned in the scenario as part of Floyd's illness?

    <p>Nausea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the dark, purplish brown spots observed on the face of the sick soldier?

    <p>Hemorrhagic fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely cause of the soldier's face turning blue from lack of oxygen?

    <p>Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following viral infections of the respiratory tract is especially concerning for premature infants?

    <p>respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with atypical pneumonia, shortness of breath, cough, and fever after attending a party with a large indoor water fountain. What is the likely cause?

    <p>Legionella pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fungal infection is endemic in the United States and is known as Valley Fever?

    <p>Coccidioidomycosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fungal infection is found mostly in the Ohio and Mississippi river valleys and eastern United States?

    <p>Blastomycosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fungal infection is associated with flu-like illness, erythema nodosum, and is found mostly in the Ohio and Mississippi river valleys?

    <p>Histoplasmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fungal infection is known to involve skin, lungs, prostate gland, urinary tract, eyes, bones, and joints, with meningoencephalitis being the most prevalent clinical form in AIDS patients?

    <p>Cryptococcosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following fungal infections is acquired from the environment and not person to person?

    <p>Histoplasmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which viral infection of the respiratory tract is especially concerning for premature infants?

    <p>respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection has a prodromal phase of 5 days and can be fatal within 48 hours if not treated promptly?

    <p>Inhalation anthrax</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium commonly causes hospital-acquired pneumonia?

    <p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is characterized by the formation of granulomas and caseous lesions in its pathogenesis?

    <p>Tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is most likely to occur among the elderly, smokers, and immunocompromised individuals?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection lacks a rigid cell wall and causes atypical pneumonia?

    <p>Mycoplasma pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection contaminates water sources and causes atypical pneumonia?

    <p>Legionella pneumophila</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection progresses through catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages?

    <p>Pertussis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection disrupts signaling pathways and can induce immunosuppression?

    <p>Pertussis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is characterized by inflammation of the bronchi and persistent cough?

    <p>Acute bronchitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection can be typical or atypical, caused by various microbes?

    <p>Community-acquired pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is on the rise in developed nations, especially among HIV patients?

    <p>Tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is latent and not infectious, while active cases are contagious?

    <p>Tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of most flu pandemics?

    <p>Influenza type A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is responsible for COVID-19?

    <p>SARS-CoV-2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary anatomical location of croup?

    <p>Larynx</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of influenza virus can undergo antigenic shift and drift?

    <p>Type A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants and young children?

    <p>Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which respiratory infection affects the nasal passages, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx?

    <p>Upper respiratory tract infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary defense mechanism that removes microorganisms from the lungs?

    <p>Mucociliary escalator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main cause of the common cold?

    <p>Rhinoviruses and coronaviruses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is a common cause of viral sinusitis?

    <p>Rhinoviruses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent of the flu?

    <p>Negative-sense ssRNA viruses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary proteins involved in influenza pathogenicity?

    <p>Hemagglutinin (HA), neuraminidase (NA), and M2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of gas exchange in the lower respiratory tract?

    <p>Alveoli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is responsible for causing a thick, leatherlike pseudomembrane in the throat?

    <p>Corynebacterium diphtheriae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common diagnosis in sick children, caused by viruses, Gram-positive, and Gram-negative bacteria?

    <p>Acute otitis media</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis, and can lead to scarlet fever and sequelae like acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis?

    <p>Streptococcus pyogenes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most frequent cause of acute otitis media in healthy children?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium causes whooping cough, with an incubation period of 7–21 days?

    <p>Bordetella pertussis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis as sequelae?

    <p>Streptococcus pyogenes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of bacterial sinusitis in children?

    <p>Haemophilus influenzae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is part of the most common causes of AOM in healthy children?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium causes pneumonia in adults and often accompanies middle ear infections in children?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium causes contagious streptococcal pharyngitis with symptoms including fever, sore throat, and a distinctive red rash?

    <p>Streptococcus pyogenes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is responsible for causing a highly contagious respiratory infection acquired through inhalation of aerosolized droplets?

    <p>Bordetella pertussis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely causative agent of Mira's symptoms?

    <p>Epstein-Barr virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of transmission for infectious mononucleosis?

    <p>Respiratory droplets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms would help differentiate Epstein-Barr virus infection from streptococcal pharyngitis?

    <p>Enlarged spleen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate treatment modality for infectious mononucleosis?

    <p>Corticosteroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which system includes lymph nodes, vessels, and organs like the spleen, thymus, and tonsils?

    <p>The lymphatic system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What virus causes infectious mononucleosis, with symptoms including fever, sore throat, and fatigue?

    <p>Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma, a cancer of B lymphocytes?

    <p>Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of infectious mononucleosis?

    <p>Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus causes asymptomatic infections, reactivation in immunocompromised individuals, and vertical transmission?

    <p>Cytomegalovirus (CMV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a condition related to the lymphatic system?

    <p>Lymphadenopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the pulmonary circuit?

    <p>Carrying oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs and back</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can occur in the endocardium, pericardium, and myocardium?

    <p>Inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was Mira advised to avoid due to a potential enlarged spleen from infection?

    <p>Strenuous activities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was cleared for Mira to resume after a follow-up visit showed her spleen was not enlarged?

    <p>Soccer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are systemic viral diseases?

    <p>Dengue fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is characterized by the complex life cycle involving sporozoites, merozoites, and gametocytes?

    <p>Malaria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is transmitted by ticks and leads to mild flu-like illness in immunocompetent patients?

    <p>Babesiosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection can present with acute symptoms such as enlarged spleen and liver, and chronic symptoms 10-20 years after infection?

    <p>Chagas disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection involves pathogens adhering to cardiac valve surfaces, creating infected vegetation, and potential complications like stroke or abscesses?

    <p>Bacterial endocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is caused by Streptococcus mutans and can be subacute or acute?

    <p>Bacterial endocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is transmitted by the Reduviid bug and can lead to acute symptoms such as enlarged spleen and liver?

    <p>Chagas disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is primarily transmitted by ticks and leads to mild flu-like illness in immunocompetent patients?

    <p>Babesiosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection can cause potential complications like stroke or abscesses due to pathogens adhering to cardiac valve surfaces?

    <p>Bacterial endocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection involves a complex life cycle with different stages such as sporozoites, merozoites, and gametocytes?

    <p>Malaria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is caused by Streptococcus mutans and can be subacute or acute?

    <p>Bacterial endocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is transmitted by the Reduviid bug and can lead to acute symptoms such as enlarged spleen and liver?

    <p>Chagas disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is primarily transmitted by ticks and leads to mild flu-like illness in immunocompetent patients?

    <p>Babesiosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diseases affects the lymphatic system?

    <p>Lymphatic filariasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protozoan is responsible for Chagas disease?

    <p>Trypanosoma cruzi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for acute phase of Chagas disease?

    <p>Benznidazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is transmitted to humans via cats and has two stages: feline and mammal stage?

    <p>Toxoplasmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is responsible for the acute phase of Toxoplasmosis infection?

    <p>Tachyzoites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Leishmania species causes visceral leishmaniasis affecting the spleen, liver, and bone marrow?

    <p>Leishmania donovani</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What form of Leishmania differentiates in sandflies into infective, non-dividing metacyclic promastigotes?

    <p>Procyclic promastigote</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of lymphatic obstruction in filariasis?

    <p>Adult worms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen can cause systemic infection if the number or function of neutrophils is decreased?

    <p>Candida albicans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate treatment for acute phase of Chagas disease?

    <p>Benznidazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of lymphatic obstruction in filariasis?

    <p>Adult worms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protozoan is responsible for causing toxoplasmosis?

    <p>Toxoplasma gondii</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is characterized by the presence of rose spots?

    <p>Typhoid fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection can be transmitted by ticks and lice, and presents with a rash starting on the wrists and ankles?

    <p>Rocky Mountain spotted fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is treated with antibiotics like doxycycline and presents with a bull's-eye rash?

    <p>Lyme disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is easily transmitted from person to person?

    <p>Pneumonic plague</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and has distinct stages with varied symptoms, including neurological and cardiac involvement?

    <p>Lyme disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is caused by Yersinia pestis and includes virulence factors such as lipoproteins, F1 protein capsule, and biofilm formation?

    <p>Pneumonic plague</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection lives inside macrophages in the gastrointestinal tract and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route?

    <p>Typhoid fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is transmitted by ticks and lice?

    <p>Rocky Mountain spotted fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is characterized by a rash starting on the wrists and ankles?

    <p>Typhoid fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is transmitted by ticks and has stages with distinct symptoms, such as a bull's eye rash in the early stage?

    <p>Lyme disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is caused by Yersinia pestis and is easily transmitted from person to person?

    <p>Pneumonic plague</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is treated with antibiotics like doxycycline and presents with a bull's-eye rash?

    <p>Lyme disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely cause of Ming's symptoms?

    <p>Viral infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of Ming's elevated heart rate and rapid breathing?

    <p>Points to viral infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could have prevented Ming's illness?

    <p>Vaccination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why did the doctor suspect a viral origin of Ming's diarrhea?

    <p>Elevated white cell counts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the digestive system is primarily responsible for preventing nutrient absorption, leading to osmotic diarrhea?

    <p>Small intestine's crypts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species is primarily responsible for causing tooth decay through acid production from bacterial metabolism?

    <p>Streptococcus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species is primarily involved in causing gingivitis and periodontal disease through plaque build-up and inflammation?

    <p>Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is caused by invasion of healthy tissue by oral flora bacteria upon oral mucosa damage?

    <p>Ludwig Angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is responsible for causing thrush when antibiotic therapy upsets the balance between indigenous bacterial flora and host defenses?

    <p>Candida albicans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of diarrhea results from increased ion secretion?

    <p>Secretory diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species primarily contributes to dental plaque and tooth decay?

    <p>Streptococcus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the digestive system is primarily involved in the prevention of nutrient absorption, leading to osmotic diarrhea?

    <p>Small intestine's villi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species is primarily involved in causing dental caries through acid production?

    <p>Streptococcus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species primarily contributes to dental plaque and tooth decay?

    <p>Streptococcus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is caused by invasion of healthy tissue by oral flora bacteria upon oral mucosa damage?

    <p>Ludwig Angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is responsible for causing thrush when antibiotic therapy upsets the balance between indigenous bacterial flora and host defenses?

    <p>Candida albicans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is responsible for causing mumps?

    <p>Mumps virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers?

    <p>Helicobacter pylori</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is H. pylori detected in the human gastric mucosa?

    <p>By urease test of biopsies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can rotavirus illness be prevented?

    <p>Vaccination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for rotaviruses?

    <p>Fecal-oral route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent of hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection?

    <p>Hepatitis A virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the different outcomes associated with hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E infections?

    <p>Varying outcomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is mumps primarily spread?

    <p>Sneezing and coughing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for diagnosing rotavirus infection?

    <p>Stool analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of gastrointestinal tract infections associated with bacterial pathogens?

    <p>Bacterial pathogenic mechanisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for detecting H. pylori infection?

    <p>Urease test of biopsies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for mumps?

    <p>Sneezing and coughing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of motility-related diarrhea?

    <p>Rapid food movement due to enterotoxins and rotavirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is widespread and infects nearly every child globally by age 3-5?

    <p>Rotavirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom of hepatitis?

    <p>Jaundice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which viral infection is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and is common in cruise ship outbreaks?

    <p>Norovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of rotavirus-induced diarrhea?

    <p>Release of non-structural protein 4 (NSP4)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the global impact of rotavirus in terms of child fatalities?

    <p>Over 200,000 child fatalities in 2013</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for viral diarrhea?

    <p>Rehydration therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which viral infection has immune evasion strategies, including inhibition of the innate interferon response through various viral proteins?

    <p>Rotavirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of symptoms like sudden onset and common in cruise ship outbreaks?

    <p>Norovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus can activate the vomiting center in the brainstem?

    <p>Rotavirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of gastritis, gastroenteritis, enteritis, enterocolitis, and colitis?

    <p>Distinct inflammation locations in the digestive tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of symptoms like jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia?

    <p>Hepatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of rotaviruses?

    <p>Consist of three concentric capsids surrounding 11 segments of dsRNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the global impact of rotaviruses in terms of child fatalities?

    <p>200,000+ child fatalities in 2013</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which proteins are encoded by the RNA segments of rotaviruses?

    <p>Six structural viral proteins (VP1 – 4, 6, 7) and six non-structural proteins (NSP1 – 6)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do rotaviruses attach to glycan receptors for viral entry?

    <p>By binding to lipid rafts on the host cell membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a mechanism through which Clostridium difficile elicits the innate immune response?

    <p>Endosomal V-ATPase activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary impact of CDTa ribosylation on actin in the cytosol?

    <p>Inhibition of G-actin polymerization and increased F-actin depolymerization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protein acts via MYD88-dependent pathways to elicit the innate immune response to Clostridium difficile?

    <p>Surface layer protein A (SlpA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for diagnosing rotavirus?

    <p>ELISA testing for viral antigens in stool samples</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of rotavirus-induced diarrhea?

    <p>Stimulation of enterochromaffin cells to release 5-HT, activating 5-HT3 receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary causative agent of peptic ulcer disease?

    <p>Helicobacter pylori</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main objective for bacterial infections of the gastrointestinal tract?

    <p>Categorizing infections by bacterial pathogenic mechanisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary transmission route for Hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection?

    <p>Fecal-oral route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of rotavirus vaccination in the first year of an infant's life?

    <p>Up to 87% protection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which viral infection can activate the vomiting center in the brainstem?

    <p>Rotavirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the initial steps of Helicobacter pylori colonization in the human gastric mucosa?

    <p>Acid adaptation, motility, urease production, and adhesin-mediated adherence to epithelial cell receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main factor for evaluating the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections of the GI tract?

    <p>The virulence of GI pathogens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptoms are associated with peptic ulcers caused by H. pylori?

    <p>Dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain, bloating, and nausea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which RNA virus is primarily transmitted via contaminated blood products?

    <p>Hepatitis C virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma?

    <p>Helicobacter pylori</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic method for H. pylori infection?

    <p>Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virulence factor of H. pylori is associated with adherence, persistence, and damage?

    <p>Blood-group antigen binding adhesin (BabA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) in children?

    <p>E. coli O157:H7 infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is associated with the development of typhoid fever and enterocolitis?

    <p>Salmonella infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dictates the attachment and invasion mechanisms of Salmonella?

    <p>Type III secretion system (T3SS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Salmonella Pathogenicity Island is crucial for pathogenesis in the host's epithelial cells?

    <p>SPI-2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines the utilization of virulence factors for pathogenesis in Salmonella?

    <p>Serotype</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the clinical conditions caused by Salmonella?

    <p>Typhoid fever and enterocolitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is emphasized by the case history of the 6-year-old girl in the text?

    <p>The importance of understanding and managing Gram-negative bacterial infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is associated with the pathogenesis of H. pylori?

    <p>Effector proteins such as BabA and SabA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial infection is NOT specifically discussed in the text?

    <p>Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the primary method of transmission for Campylobacter spp. to humans?

    <p>Consumption of undercooked meat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of cell death induced by Campylobacter?

    <p>Double-strand DNA breaks and cell-cycle arrest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with Campylobacter infections?

    <p>Rash</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of Campylobacter transmission from chicks within a flock?

    <p>Fecal-oral route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes Campylobacter invasion and pathogenicity?

    <p>It involves a complex interplay of virulence factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most frequent culprit of Campylobacter-induced intestinal infection?

    <p>C. jejuni</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of Campylobacter transmission to humans from chicken GI tract?

    <p>Consumption of undercooked chicken</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key feature of Campylobacter-induced cell damage?

    <p>Toxin-induced macrophage-dependent inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reservoir of Campylobacter in the environment?

    <p>Contaminated water supplies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the role of Campylobacter in chickens?

    <p>It primarily resides in the mucus layer without causing inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source of Campylobacter transmission to humans?

    <p>Contaminated animal products</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of Campylobacter transmission to humans from contaminated animal products?

    <p>Consumption of undercooked meat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a structural component of the male reproductive tract?

    <p>Fallopian tubes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the female reproductive tract component known as the fallopian tubes?

    <p>Fertilization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a complication specifically associated with sexually transmitted infections?

    <p>Infertility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of understanding the structural differences between the male and female reproductive tracts in the context of infections?

    <p>It aids in identifying the causative microbes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for diagnosing cystitis?

    <p>Urine culture to identify the type of bacteria present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species is most commonly associated with hospital-acquired urinary tract infections?

    <p>P. aeruginosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main risk factor for recurrent urinary tract infections in adult females?

    <p>Incomplete emptying of the bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of transmission for hospital-acquired urinary tract infections?

    <p>Contaminated medical equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common symptom of cystitis?

    <p>Sudden onset of dysuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for collecting urine for diagnosis of urinary tract infections?

    <p>Using a sterile cup and clean-catch technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main concern regarding asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women and the elderly?

    <p>Risk of kidney damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of urinary tract infections in children?

    <p>Incomplete emptying of the bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main concern regarding recurrent urinary tract infections in adult females?

    <p>Potential damage to the kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common nosocomial infection?

    <p>Urinary tract infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between bladder infections (cystitis) and kidney infections (pyelonephritis)?

    <p>Location of the infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom that distinguishes urethritis from cystitis and pyelonephritis?

    <p>Pain or burning upon urination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is known as the 'Great Imitator'?

    <p>Syphilis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is the most common viral infection?

    <p>Genital warts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection can be transmitted from pregnant mothers to their babies?

    <p>Genital herpes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is transmitted via sexual contact and body fluids?

    <p>Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is the most frequently reported infectious disease with many cases being asymptomatic?

    <p>Chlamydia trachomatis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection targets CD4+ T cells and progresses through different clinical stages?

    <p>Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection can cause various symptoms in infected newborns?

    <p>Syphilis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is transmitted through sexual activity, but not exclusively?

    <p>Genital herpes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection can be asymptomatic and is the most common viral infection?

    <p>Genital warts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is known for causing painless inflammatory reactions and can lead to serious complications?

    <p>Chlamydia trachomatis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is the most frequently reported infectious disease with many cases being asymptomatic?

    <p>Chlamydia trachomatis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection targets CD4+ T cells and progresses through different clinical stages?

    <p>Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is characterized by the '4 D's' - Discharge, Dysuria, Dyspareunia, and Disagreeable odor?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which parasite is the causative agent of trichomoniasis?

    <p>Trichomonas vaginalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common nonviral sexually transmitted infection worldwide?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium can suppress oxidative burst and survive in phagosomes, promoting its own survival?

    <p>Neisseria gonorrhoeae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is primarily transmitted through sexual intercourse and is associated with poor birth outcomes and increased risk for HIV transmission and cervical cancer?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is characterized by dysbiotic microbiota and the parasite's ability to modulate immunopathogenesis?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection can suppress T helper cell proliferation and influence cytokine production?

    <p>Gonorrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sexually transmitted infection is characterized by the absence of a cyst form in its causative agent?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is primarily associated with the '4 D's' - Discharge, Dysuria, Dyspareunia, and Disagreeable odor?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is associated with poor birth outcomes and increased risk for HIV transmission and cervical cancer?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is the most common nonviral sexually transmitted infection worldwide?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infection is characterized by the absence of a cyst form in its causative agent?

    <p>Trichomoniasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune pathway is triggered by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, leading to inflammation and recruitment of neutrophils?

    <p>TIFA-dependent pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of Neisseria gonorrhoeae's interaction with immune cells during infection?

    <p>Enhanced phagocytosis by macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection involves the release of immune-activating fragments?

    <p>Immune evasion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication of gonorrhea in women?

    <p>Pelvic inflammatory disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is gonorrhea primarily transmitted?

    <p>Through sexual contact</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) in the context of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?

    <p>Inhibit bacterial replication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic appearance of Neisseria gonorrhoeae colonies on chocolate agar?

    <p>Translucent colonies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of the repeat culture in the described case of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?

    <p>Negative for infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men?

    <p>Swelling of the testicles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of confirmation for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?

    <p>Culture and Gram stain analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in promoting its own survival during infection?

    <p>Evasion of complement and serum resistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential mode of perinatal transmission of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

    <p>During childbirth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune pathway is triggered by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, leading to inflammation and recruitment of neutrophils?

    <p>TIFA-dependent immunity pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of transmission for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection from mother to baby?

    <p>Perinatal transmission during childbirth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection involves the release of immune-activating fragments?

    <p>Immune-activating fragment release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method used by Neisseria gonorrhoeae to evade complement and promote serum resistance and invasion?

    <p>Evasion of complement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cells does Neisseria gonorrhoeae interact with, modulating their functions during infection?

    <p>Macrophages and dendritic cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does Neisseria gonorrhoeae stimulate the production of to enhance its competitive edge in the vaginal microbiome?

    <p>Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of agar is characteristic for the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

    <p>Chocolate agar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom of gonorrhea in men?

    <p>Discharge from the penis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can gonorrhea lead to in women?

    <p>Mild symptoms or none at all</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was the result of the repeat culture in the patient upon a return visit?

    <p>Negative for Neisseria gonorrhoeae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was the final action taken regarding the case of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?

    <p>The case was reported to the state public health department</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the confirmatory method for detecting Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?

    <p>Culture and Gram stain analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of effector proteins in Salmonella pathogenesis?

    <p>To harm the host by disrupting normal cellular functions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of Type 3 secretion systems in Salmonella pathogenesis?

    <p>To move compounds from the cytosol to the extracellular environment and host cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of a Salmonella Containing Vacuole (SCV) in the context of Salmonella pathogenesis?

    <p>Serves as the internal reservoir and is the inactive form of Salmonella</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of Pathogenicity Islands in Salmonella?

    <p>Genomic islands with multiple virulence factors that aid in bacterial pathogenicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which Salmonella evade destruction through the immune system?

    <p>By escaping the phagocyte and inhibiting the fusion of lysosomes to macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of SPI-1 in Salmonella pathogenicity?

    <p>Causing immune cell activation by invading the cells of the host lining the epithelium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of SIFs (Salmonella Induced Filaments) in Salmonella pathogenesis?

    <p>To penetrate tissue and enter the bloodstream, allowing for further replication and proliferation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of Genomic Islands in Salmonella pathogenesis?

    <p>To contain one or more coding genes and different GC content, indicating horizontal gene transfer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Salmonella Pathogenicity Island is associated with the invasion of host cells and is regulated by HilA?

    <p>SPI-1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the master regulator of SPI-2, which is associated with survival within host cells?

    <p>SsrAB</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of secretion system is associated with the delivery of effector proteins that harm the host?

    <p>Type III</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of bacterial capsules?

    <p>Aid in immune evasion and adhesion to host cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of endotoxins?

    <p>Released when bacterial cells are destroyed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are examples of exotoxins?

    <p>Anthrax toxin and Tetanospasmin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the prokaryotic immune evasion strategies mentioned in the text?

    <p>Antigenic masking, antigenic variation, and intracellular location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organism uses immune avoidance strategies such as antigenic masking, antigenic variation, and immunosuppression?

    <p>Protozoans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does viral latency play in the pathogenesis of infections?

    <p>It allows long-term persistence in the host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of toxin can cause lung necrosis and be fatal at high doses?

    <p>Exotoxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the debated function of SPI-5 in Salmonella?

    <p>Extracellular survival</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does heat stress have on the expression of SsrB and SPI-2 genes in Salmonella?

    <p>Increases their expression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    The Case of Mary Mallon and Typhoid Fever

    • Mary Mallon was the first documented "asymptomatic carrier" of typhoid fever, able to spread the disease without being affected by it herself
    • She was demonized by the press and public, leading to her exile for the majority of her adult life
    • The causative agent of typhoid fever is a bacteria called Salmonella
    • Salmonella enterica is commonly found in humans and animals and has reservoirs in food processing plants, farms, and hospitals
    • Salmonella causes both non-typhoidal salmonellosis and typhoid fever, with different pathogenic mechanisms
    • Typhoid fever is a serious and potentially fatal illness that can lead to bacterial proliferation in the bloodstream and organs
    • Salmonella has pathogenicity islands, including SPI-1 and SPI-2, associated with invasion of host cells and survival within host cells
    • SPI-2 seems to be able to fill the functional role of SPI-1 as mutant strains of Salmonella harboring a knock out of SPI-1 can still cause disease
    • SPI-2 is associated with survival within host cells and maintaining the Salmonella Containing Vacuole (SCV)
    • SPI-5 plays a role in both intra and extracellular survival and does not contain a Type 3 Secretion System (T3SS)
    • Secretion systems, including Type II, Type III, and Type IV, allow bacteria to move compounds from the cytosol to the periplasm, extracellular environment, and host cells
    • Type III and Type IV secretion systems do not require secondary proteins to secrete compounds, unlike Type II systems, and are involved in virulence and conjugation, respectively

    Infectious Diseases Overview

    • Chickenpox is caused by Varicella-Zoster virus (VZV) from the Herpesviridae family and can remain latent, re-emerging as shingles in about 20% of patients later in life.
    • Chickenpox is usually diagnosed clinically, with symptoms including vesicles, pustules, and scabs, but can be life-threatening in immunocompromised patients.
    • Smallpox, caused by the variola virus, was eradicated from the population in 1979 and has two variants: variola major and variola minor.
    • Staphylococcal skin infections, caused by S. epidermidis and S. aureus, can lead to conditions such as folliculitis, boils, and toxic shock syndrome.
    • Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) is resistant to the antibiotic methicillin and has evolved to resist 60% of S. aureus strains, necessitating treatment with vancomycin.
    • A case study describes a patient diagnosed with necrotizing fasciitis, a severe condition caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which has natural reservoirs in the nasopharynx and skin.
    • The patient suffered from severe symptoms, and treatment involved the removal of 7% of her body surface and the use of vasopressors to raise her blood pressure.
    • Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors include a capsule to avoid phagocytosis, pilus-like M protein to bind complement regulatory protein, and streptolysins to lyse blood cells.
    • The incidence of necrotizing fasciitis is rising due to increased use of NSAIDs, which increase susceptibility to infection by S. pyogenes.
    • The Varicella vaccination is a routine childhood vaccination involving a live, attenuated form of the VSV.
    • Smallpox treatment involves diagnosis based on viral cultures and serology, and children are no longer routinely vaccinated against smallpox.
    • Infections caused by Staphylococcal skin infections regularly require surgical intervention, and MRSA has emerged as a community-acquired infection.

    Respiratory Tract Infections and Diseases: Key Points

    • The respiratory tract is divided into upper and lower parts, with different anatomical structures and functions.

    • The upper respiratory tract includes nasal passages, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx, while the lower respiratory tract includes alveoli for gas exchange.

    • The mucociliary escalator is a defense mechanism that removes microorganisms from the lungs through mucus secretion and cilia movement.

    • Viral infections of the respiratory tract include the common cold, caused by various viruses like rhinoviruses and coronaviruses, and viral sinusitis.

    • Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is a common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants and young children, transmitted through respiratory droplets.

    • Influenza is caused by negative-sense ssRNA viruses, with different types (A, B, C) and can undergo antigenic shift and drift, leading to new strains.

    • Influenza pathogenicity depends on proteins like hemagglutinin (HA), neuraminidase (NA), and M2, and can infect humans, pigs, and birds.

    • Antigenic shift and drift are mechanisms through which influenza viruses can evolve into new strains, causing more severe diseases.

    • Vaccines and antiviral drugs, such as neuraminidase inhibitors, are used for influenza treatment and prevention.

    • COVID-19, caused by SARS-CoV-2, is a novel coronavirus with flu-like symptoms and can lead to severe cases with a cytokine storm, with many cases being asymptomatic.

    • Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection affecting the larynx and is common in children aged 6 months to 5 years.

    • Type A influenza is the cause of most flu pandemics due to its ability to infect a variety of animals, leading to antigenic shift.

    • Bacterial infections also play a role in respiratory tract diseases, with specific etiologies and anatomical locations.

    Bacterial Respiratory Tract Infections: Key Points

    • Acute otitis media (AOM) is the most common diagnosis in sick children, caused by viruses, Gram-positive, and Gram-negative bacteria.
    • In infants and young toddlers, shorter and almost horizontal Eustachian tubes make middle ear drainage less optimal.
    • The most frequent causes of AOM in healthy children are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
    • Bacterial sinusitis often accompanies middle ear infections in children and pneumonia in adults, treated with antibiotics.
    • Streptococcus pyogenes, or group A streptococcus (GAS), causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis, and can lead to scarlet fever and sequelae like acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis.
    • Streptococcal pharyngitis is contagious and spread through person-to-person and indirect contact, with symptoms including fever, sore throat, and a distinctive red rash.
    • Streptococcal sequelae include autoimmune reactions causing serious conditions like acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis.
    • Diphtheria, caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, leads to a thick, leatherlike pseudomembrane in the throat and is diagnosed through PCR or antigenic testing.
    • Whooping cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis, is highly contagious and acquired through inhalation of aerosolized droplets, with an incubation period of 7–21 days.
    • Diphtheria vaccine is part of the DTaP series of vaccinations and is inactivated diphtheria toxin.
    • Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes a thick, leatherlike pseudomembrane in diphtheria.
    • Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, with an incubation period of 7–21 days.

    Bacterial Infections and Systemic Parasitic Infections: Understanding the Links and Implications

    • Elizabeth, 58, with mitral valve prolapse, on immunosuppressive therapy, developed bacterial endocarditis after a dental procedure, caused by Streptococcus mutans.
    • Bacterial endocarditis can be subacute (gradual, with fatigue, fever, weight loss) or acute (sudden, potentially fatal within days).
    • Pathogenesis of infective endocarditis involves pathogens gaining access to the bloodstream, adhering to cardiac valve surfaces, creating infected vegetation, and potential complications like stroke or abscesses.
    • Images show normal and infected heart valves, illustrating the impact of bacterial endocarditis.
    • Malaria affects 219 million people worldwide, causing 435,000 deaths, mostly in children, and is transmitted by four species of Plasmodium.
    • The complex life cycle of Plasmodium involves sporozoites, merozoites, and gametocytes, with symptoms including chills, fever, and sweating.
    • Plasmodium's immune evasion and treatment with chloroquine are key aspects of malaria management.
    • Babesiosis, caused by Babesia microti and transmitted by ticks, leads to mild flu-like illness in immunocompetent patients and prolonged illness in immunosuppressed individuals.
    • Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi and transmitted by the Reduviid bug, presents with acute symptoms such as enlarged spleen and liver, and chronic symptoms 10-20 years after infection.
    • The Reduviid bug releases the parasite in its feces, entering the host through nearby bug bites.
    • The text aims to construct lists of systemic parasitic infections, relate disease stages to the infecting agent's growth cycle, list affected organ systems, and devise infection prevention plans.
    • The content provides detailed insights into the pathogenesis, symptoms, and treatment of bacterial endocarditis, malaria, babesiosis, and Chagas disease, highlighting the impact of these infections on human health.

    Systemic Bacterial Infections and Their Characteristics

    • Sepsis is an immune response due to bacteria in the bloodstream, leading to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and septic shock.
    • A case study of a patient with Yersinia pestis infection (plague) illustrates the transmission and symptoms of the disease, including bubonic, septicemic, and pneumonic forms.
    • Virulence factors of Yersinia pestis include lipoproteins, F1 protein capsule, biofilm formation, and a type III secretion system.
    • Lyme disease, caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, is transmitted by ticks and has stages with distinct symptoms, such as a bull's eye rash in the early stage.
    • Typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, lives inside macrophages in the gastrointestinal tract, and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route.
    • Rocky Mountain spotted fever, caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, is transmitted by ticks and lice, and presents with a rash starting on the wrists and ankles.
    • Pneumonic plague is easily transmitted from person to person, in contrast to bubonic plague, which is not transmissible.
    • Lyme disease, caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and transmitted by ticks, presents with a bull's-eye rash and is treated with antibiotics like doxycycline.
    • Lyme disease has distinct stages with varied symptoms, including neurological and cardiac involvement in the second stage.
    • Typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, can be transmitted via the fecal-oral route and presents with rose spots.
    • Rocky Mountain spotted fever, caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, is transmitted by ticks and lice and presents with a rash starting on the wrists and ankles.
    • Bacterial infections of the heart have different manifestations, and endocarditis can be compared and contrasted based on different types.

    Infectious Diseases and Gastrointestinal Tract Infections

    • Katherine, a 17-year-old from Waikiki, Hawaii, developed symptoms including nausea, fever, and aches, and was diagnosed with hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection.
    • Hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E are all RNA viruses, with different transmission routes, symptoms, and outcomes.
    • Mumps is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus, highly infectious, and is spread via sneezing and coughing; vaccination has largely eliminated cases.
    • Peptic ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori, a Gram-negative spirochete, identified in 1983 as the causative agent of peptic ulcer disease, and linked to stomach ulceration and gastric cancer.
    • H. pylori colonizes the human gastric mucosa, causing superficial gastritis and can lead to duodenal ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma, or MALT or non-Hodgkin lymphoma over time.
    • H. pylori colonizes the gastric epithelium through acid adaptation, motility, chemotaxis, urease production, flagella, and adhesin-mediated adherence to epithelial cell receptors.
    • H. pylori initiates epithelial damage via effector proteins that impair epithelial barrier integrity, increase epithelial proliferation and motility, and lead to vacuolation and apoptosis.
    • H. pylori infection can be detected through the urease test of biopsies, but culture can be problematic due to the fastidious nature of the bacteria.
    • Rotaviruses are mainly transmitted through the fecal-oral route and can be diagnosed using PCR assays or serologic assays.
    • Rotavirus illness can be prevented through vaccination, with two available vaccines, RotaTeq® and Rotarix®, providing up to 87% protection.
    • Treatment for rotavirus illness is supportive, with oral rehydration therapy to prevent dehydration.
    • Bacterial infections of the gastrointestinal tract can be categorized by bacterial pathogenic mechanisms, with different virulence mechanisms leading to various GI disease symptoms.

    Viral Gastrointestinal Infections and Related Conditions

    • Motility-related diarrhea results from rapid food movement in the intestine due to enterotoxins and rotavirus, causing poor nutrient absorption.
    • Several gastrointestinal conditions include gastritis, gastroenteritis, enteritis, enterocolitis, and colitis, each with distinct inflammation locations in the digestive tract.
    • Hepatitis, inflammation of the liver, can be caused by various factors including infection, alcohol, toxic chemicals, and autoimmune reactions, leading to symptoms like jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia.
    • Viral infections like norovirus, transmitted via the fecal-oral route, can cause sudden onset symptoms and are common in cruise ship outbreaks.
    • Rotavirus, a non-enveloped double-stranded RNA virus, is widespread, infecting nearly every child globally by age 3-5, causing significant child fatalities, especially in low-income countries.
    • The infectious cycle of rotavirus involves attachment to glycan receptors, internalization, and assembly of viral proteins, leading to infection of mature enterocytes in the intestine.
    • Rotavirus-induced diarrhea is initiated by the release of non-structural protein 4 (NSP4), stimulating enterochromaffin cells to release 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), increasing gastrointestinal motility and inducing diarrhea.
    • Rotavirus can also activate the vomiting center in the brainstem, leading to the vomiting reflex, and clinical intervention involves 5-HT3 receptor antagonists to attenuate vomiting in children with acute gastroenteritis.
    • Rotavirus has immune evasion strategies, including inhibition of the innate interferon response through various viral proteins, such as NSP1 and VPs, inactivating MAVS.
    • The study aims to match gastrointestinal symptoms to the viral infections causing them, list transmission routes of specific viral diseases, and discuss viral pathogenic mechanisms in the gastrointestinal tract.
    • Treatment for viral diarrhea primarily involves rehydration therapy, as there is no effective antiviral therapy available.
    • The global impact of rotavirus is significant, causing over 200,000 child fatalities in 2013, with consistent prevalence in hospitalized cases, particularly affecting low-income countries due to limited healthcare and comorbid conditions.

    Microbial Infections and Diseases: Key Points

    • H. pylori virulence factors including Blood-group antigen binding adhesin (BabA) and Sialic acid-binding adhesin (SabA) are associated with adherence, persistence, and damage.
    • H. pylori induces epithelial damage via effector proteins such as cytotoxin-associated gene (cagA) and Vacuolating cytotoxin A (VacA).
    • Diagnostic methods for H. pylori infection include urease test, histology, urea breath tests, serology, and stool antigenic tests.
    • A case history details a 6-year-old girl's illness after visiting a dairy farm, where she developed symptoms of E. coli O157:H7 infection and subsequently hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).
    • Intestinal diseases caused by Gram-negative bacteria include E. coli gastroenteritis, Shigellosis, and Salmonella infections.
    • Salmonella genus comprises S. enterica and S. bongori, with various subspecies and serovars, causing clinical conditions like typhoid fever and enterocolitis.
    • Pathogenicity and virulence factors of Salmonella include attachment and invasion mechanisms, dictated by two major Salmonella Pathogenicity Islands: SPI-1 and SPI-2.
    • The SPI-1-encoded Type III secretion system (T3SS) and SPI-2-encoded T3SS are crucial for Salmonella pathogenesis in the host's epithelial cells.
    • The serotype of Salmonella determines the utilization of virulence factors for pathogenesis.
    • Salmonellosis encompasses typhoid fever and enterocolitis, with different clinical manifestations and severity.
    • The text provides insights into the diagnosis, pathogenesis, and treatment of H. pylori, E. coli, Shigella, and Salmonella infections, including detailed molecular mechanisms and clinical presentations.
    • The case history of the 6-year-old girl illustrates the severe consequences of E. coli O157:H7 infection, emphasizing the importance of understanding and managing Gram-negative bacterial infections.

    Campylobacter Infection: Key Points

    • Typhoid fever and enterocolitis are distinct diseases with different symptoms and durations.
    • Campylobacter spp. are Gram-negative, spiral-shaped bacteria causing intestinal infections and are transmitted through consumption of undercooked meat and unpasteurized milk.
    • Campylobacter has caused over 57,000 cases of campylobacteriosis globally from 1978 to 2014 and is the 3rd leading cause of food-borne illnesses and hospitalizations.
    • Most Campylobacter spp. cause intestinal infection, with C. jejuni and C. coli being the most frequent culprits, leading to a range of symptoms from asymptomatic to severe illness.
    • Campylobacter primarily colonizes the chicken GI tract and can be transmitted to humans through contaminated water, animal products, and direct contact.
    • Campylobacter invasion and pathogenicity involve a complex interplay of virulence factors, including attachment and invasion mechanisms, mucus interactions, and production of toxins.
    • In humans, Campylobacter circumvents the mucus layer and stimulates a pro-inflammatory response, whereas in chickens, it resides in the mucus layer without causing inflammation.
    • Campylobacter produces the cytolethal distending toxin (CDT) holotoxin, which leads to cell death, increased permeability, and impairment of adaptive immune responses.
    • The CDT holotoxin consists of three subunits, CdtA, CdtB, and CdtC, which are taken up into host cells and cause double-strand DNA breaks and cell-cycle arrest.
    • Campylobacter-induced cell death may enhance pathogen survival and spread, and the damage is exacerbated by toxin-induced macrophage-dependent inflammation.
    • Campylobacter infections cause fever, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea, with relapses occurring in untreated patients and rare deaths directly attributable to C. jejuni infection.
    • Campylobacter infections have been associated with outbreaks, and the bacteria can be passed between chicks within a flock via the fecal-oral route and can contaminate water supplies and animal products.

    Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Infection and Immune Response

    • Urethral discharge was found positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in a physical examination, confirmed by culture and Gram stain analysis
    • Symptoms of gonorrhea include painful urination, discharge from the penis, and swelling of the testicles in men, while women may have mild symptoms or none at all
    • Gonorrhea can lead to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease and ophthalmia neonatorum
    • Gonorrhea is transmitted through sexual contact and can also be spread perinatally from mother to baby during childbirth
    • Steps of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection involve initial adherence, replication, invasion, and release of immune-activating fragments
    • The TIFA-dependent immunity pathway is triggered by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, leading to inflammation and recruitment of neutrophils
    • Neisseria gonorrhoeae uses various strategies to evade complement and promote serum resistance and invasion
    • The bacterium interacts with immune cells such as macrophages, neutrophils, and dendritic cells, modulating their functions during infection
    • Neisseria gonorrhoeae stimulates the production of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) to enhance its competitive edge in the vaginal microbiome
    • The organism produces characteristic colonies on chocolate agar and was identified as Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    • Symptoms of the infection had resolved in the patient upon a return visit, and a repeat culture was negative
    • The case of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection was subsequently reported to the state public health department

    Salmonella Pathogenicity and Secretion Systems

    • Salmonella Pathogenicity Islands (SPI) are master regulators of gene expression for virulence factors
    • SPI-1 is associated with the invasion of host cells and is regulated by HilA
    • SPI-2 is associated with survival within host cells, and its master regulator is SsrAB
    • SPI-5's function is debated, but it plays a role in intra and extracellular survival
    • Heat stress increases the expression of SsrB and SPI-2 genes in Salmonella
    • Different types of secretion systems include Type II, III, and IV, each with distinct mechanisms and roles
    • Bacterial capsules aid in persistence and adhesion by helping bacteria evade immune detection and adhere to host cells
    • Endotoxins are components of bacterial cells released when the cell is destroyed, while exotoxins are secreted by microbes
    • Anthrax toxin and Tetanospasmin are examples of exotoxins with specific functions and subunits
    • Prokaryotic immune evasion strategies include antigenic masking, antigenic variation, and intracellular location
    • Protozoans use immune avoidance strategies such as antigenic masking, antigenic variation, and immunosuppression
    • Viral latency plays a role in the pathogenesis of infections, with herpesviruses serving as an example.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge of the fascinating case of Mary Mallon and the biology of typhoid fever in this quiz. Learn about the causative agent, Salmonella, its pathogenicity islands, and the different secretion systems involved in bacterial virulence and survival.

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