Exam 3 practice
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Questions and Answers

What is the A1C value that indicates diabetes mellitus?

  • 6.5% (correct)
  • 5.0%
  • 7.0%
  • 6.0%

    • What fasting plasma glucose value is indicative of diabetes mellitus?

  • 100 mg/dL
  • 126 mg/dL (correct)
  • 150 mg/dL
  • 80 mg/dL

    • What complication can develop from insulin therapy related to subcutaneous fat accumulation?

  • Allergic reactions
  • Hypokalemia (correct)
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hypoglycemia

    • Which type of drug can intensify the hypoglycemic effects of insulin?

    <p>Sulfonylureas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do beta blockers affect insulin-related responses?

    <p>Mask signs of hypoglycemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What other therapeutic uses, besides diabetes mellitus, does the text mention for insulin?

    <p>None of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of exercise in the treatment of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus?

    <p>Enhances cellular responsiveness to insulin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended duration of moderate-intensity exercise per week for individuals with diabetes?

    <p>150 minutes per week</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication can be given to decrease the risk of diabetic nephropathy?

    <p>ACE inhibitor or ARB</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal blood pressure for individuals with diabetes?

    <p>120/80</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary goals for blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime for patients on insulin therapy?

    <p>$70-110$ before meals, $90-120$ at bedtime</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When considering the '4-step approach' to diabetes management, what is the decision process for selecting a second drug in Step 2?

    <p>Considering efficacy, hypoglycemia risk, patient tolerability, and weight-related factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of metformin in the treatment of diabetes?

    <p>Sensitizes insulin receptors in target tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the common side effects associated with metformin use?

    <p>Lactic acidosis and gastrointestinal effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    'Glargine' insulin has a duration of action up to how many hours?

    <p>$24$ hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    'Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH)' insulin falls under which category of insulin based on duration?

    <p>'Intermediate acting'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of SERMS like Duavee?

    <p>To activate estrogen receptors in some tissues and block them in others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is estrogen therapy alone indicated?

    <p>In women who have had a hysterectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

    <p>Positive effect on wound healing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are three approved indications for estrogen/progesterone replacement therapy?

    <p>Prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is a nonpharmacologic form of contraception?

    <p>Avoiding intercourse during periods of fertility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of oral contraceptives?

    <p>Inhibit ovulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which generation of progestin includes levonorgestrel and norgestrel?

    <p>2nd generation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are some adverse effects of combination oral contraceptives?

    <p>Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the unique properties of Beyaz and Safyral?

    <p>They contain an additional folic acid component</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS) like Duavee?

    <p>To activate estrogen receptors in some tissues and block them in others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended starting dosage of levothyroxine for elderly patients with coronary artery disease (CAD)?

    <p>12.5-25 mcg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of Liotrix?

    <p>Balanced T4 to T3 ratio</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is primarily used in hyperthyroidism for the preparation of thyroid gland surgery?

    <p>Methimazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary metabolic effects of estrogen?

    <p>Block bone resorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary indication for Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) in thyroid conditions?

    <p>Hyperthyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the dosage of levothyroxine differ for obese individuals?

    <p>Dosage based on ideal body weight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary adverse effect associated with Propylthiouracil usage?

    <p>Agranulocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the potential side effects of Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) treatment?

    <p>'Brassy' taste, burning sensation, soreness of teeth and gums</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does Propylthiouracil primarily inhibit in the body?

    <p>'Thyroid' hormone synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key advantage of Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) over thyroid surgery?

    <p>Low cost and less discomfort</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the indications of prostaglandins?

    <p>Induction of abortion for cervical ripening before induction of labor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the therapeutic uses of testosterone?

    <p>Replacement therapy in menopausal women</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary teratogenic effect mentioned in the text?

    <p>Neural tube defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is NuvaRing used according to the text?

    <p>Inserted into the vagina once a month</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What drug combination is used for medical abortion as discussed in the text?

    <p>Mifepristone and misoprostol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the adverse effects of Testosterone mentioned in the text?

    <p>Prostate cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication reduces the risk for fetal neural tube defects as per the text?

    <p>Levomefolate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary drawback associated with progestin-only contraceptives according to the text?

    <p>Irregular bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which second-generation antihistamine offers the best combination of efficacy and safety?

    <p>Fexofenadine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect associated with Levocetirizine?

    <p>Dry mouth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antihistamine should be avoided in patients with significant hepatic and renal impairment?

    <p>Desloratadine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antihistamine is generally well-tolerated for seasonal allergic rhinitis?

    <p>Desloratadine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antihistamine should not be taken with fruit juice?

    <p>Fexofenadine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nonopioid antitussive is structurally similar to local anesthetics tetracaine and procaine?

    <p>Benzonatate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    "Omalizumab" is a monoclonal antibody directed against which immunoglobulin that plays a central role in the allergic release of inflammatory mediators?

    <p>IgE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    "Montelukast" benefits derive from its mechanism of action involving blocking the binding of what to their receptors?

    <p>Leukotrienes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential side effect of anabolic steroids related to lipids?

    <p>Increase in LDL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug class can cause life-threatening hypotension when combined with nitrates?

    <p>Phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of alpha1-adrenergic antagonists in treating benign prostatic hyperplasia?

    <p>Relaxation of bladder neck smooth muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug can cause abnormal ejaculation among the alpha1-adrenergic antagonists?

    <p>Tamsulosin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main effect of activating H2 receptors?

    <p>Increased secretion of gastric acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs is known to block histamine actions at H1 receptors but not at H2 receptors?

    <p>H1 antagonists</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential severe side effect associated with phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors?

    <p>Ischemic optic neuropathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the side effects specifically mentioned for Tamsulosin [Flomax] and Alfuzosin [Uroxatral]?

    <p>Hypertension, fainting, dizziness, somnolence, nasal congestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might be a potential drug interaction concern for patients taking Alpha1-adrenergic antagonists?

    <p>Life-threatening hypotension when combined with nitrates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common adverse effect associated with H1 antagonists according to the given text?

    <p>Dry mouth and constipation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does cimetidine affect insulin release?

    <p>Intensifies the response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary MOA of Meglitinides (Repaglinide and Nateglinide)?

    <p>Stimulate pancreatic insulin release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which race are Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (Acarbose or Miglitol) more effective in?

    <p>Latinos</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of DPP-4 inhibitors (gliptins)?

    <p>Enhance the actions of incretin hormones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does colesevelam work in the treatment of diabetes mellitus?

    <p>Lowers cholesterol and blood glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse effect can occur with GLP-1 receptor agonists (incretin mimetics)?

    <p>Medullary thyroid cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

    <p>Insulin replacement and bicarbonate to reverse acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does hyperosmolar hyperglycemia state (HHS) most frequently occur?

    <p>In type 2 diabetics with acute infections or stressors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is normal thyroid function important in the first trimester of pregnancy?

    <p>To support the development of the fetal nervous system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should Levothyroxine (T4) be taken?

    <p>On an empty stomach 30 minutes before breakfast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal of exacerbation management in asthma?

    <p>Prevent recurrent exacerbations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In asthma treatment, which step is chosen for initial therapy based on the severity of asthma?

    <p>Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus SABA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What important factor influences the decision to move up or down a step in asthma therapy?

    <p>Frequency of SABA use</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important measure in managing both COPD and asthma?

    <p>Prevent progressive loss of lung function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which FEV1/FVC ratio indicates COPD?

    <p>&lt;0.7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for Stage I (Mild) COPD?

    <p>No daily medication needed, SABAs PRN</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the pathophysiological difference between asthma and COPD?

    <p>Asthma is primarily inflammation-driven, while COPD involves both inflammation and bronchoconstriction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should cold remedies be avoided for respiratory conditions?

    <p>Cold remedies can exacerbate symptoms by thickening secretions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary anti-inflammatory agents used in asthma treatment?

    <p>Budesonide and fluticasone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which age group is recommended to use inhaled mucolytics according to guidelines?

    <p>Children older than six</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main contribution of nebulizers in delivering inhaled treatments?

    <p>They provide a soft mist inhalation method.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse effect is specifically associated with the use of glucocorticoids in asthma treatment?

    <p>Adrenal suppression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with Cromolyn use?

    <p>Malignancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which condition is Omalizumab indicated according to the text?

    <p>Severe asthma controlled with inhaled glucocorticoids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug class is Ipratropium a part of?

    <p>Bronchodilators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of SABA medications like Albuterol?

    <p>Preventative treatment for exercise-induced bronchospasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common side effect associated with Theophylline use?

    <p>Headache</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of LABA medications like Salmeterol according to the text?

    <p>Long-term control in patients who experience frequent attacks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is NOT approved for use in asthma but is commonly used for maintenance therapy in COPD?

    <p>Tiotropium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential adverse effect associated with the use of Anticholinergic drugs like Tiotropium?

    <p>Sinusitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what condition should Aclidinium be used according to the text?

    <p>Bronchospasm associated with COPD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary adverse effect associated with Monoclonal Antibody Omalizumab?

    <p>Life-threatening anaphylaxis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug blocks neurokinin1-type receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)?

    <p>Prochlorperazine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of using lorazepam in combination regimens to suppress chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?

    <p>Sedation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main concern associated with haloperidol and droperidol use?

    <p>Prolonged QT interval and fatal dysrhythmias</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which patients is metoclopramide commonly used to block dopamine receptors in the CTZ?

    <p>Patients receiving chemotherapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug related to marijuana is used in the treatment of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?

    <p>Dronabinol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs before drugs are given in the context of nausea?

    <p>Anticipatory emesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is motion sickness managed?

    <p>Scopolamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is considered a bulk forming agent for the management of diarrhea?

    <p>Bismuth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of opioids in managing diarrhea?

    <p>Increase absorption of fluid and salt</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In managing Crohn disease, which antibiotic may be used for symptom control?

    <p>Metronidazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug class is most effective against acute episodes of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis?

    <p>5-Aminosalicylates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of immunomodulators in managing Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis?

    <p>Induce and maintain remission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which condition is Loperamide specifically used?

    <p>Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug can be used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting tubular resorption of calcium and increasing calcium excretion?

    <p>Calcitonin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of Alendronate for osteoporosis treatment?

    <p>Esophagitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is a receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL) used for the treatment of osteoporosis?

    <p>Denosumab</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic differentiates Teriparatide from other osteoporosis treatments mentioned in the text?

    <p>Promotes bone formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug can be dosed yearly and is specifically used for Paget disease of bone?

    <p>Tiludronate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is a calcimimetic drug used for primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?

    <p>Cinacalcet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant adverse effect associated with Denosumab therapy for osteoporosis?

    <p>Musculoskeletal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of spironolactone in the treatment of acne?

    <p>Blocks steroid receptors including sex hormones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which topical treatment is specifically used for psoriasis due to its anti-inflammatory effects and is applied 2-3 times a day for a limited duration?

    <p>Calcipotriene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug used for hair loss treatment regulates cell differentiation and proliferation and suppresses lymphocyte activity when applied to psoriatic lesions twice daily?

    <p>Calcitriol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is NOT used in the treatment of Actinic Keratosis (AK)?

    <p>Methotrexate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between antiperspirants and deodorants?

    <p>Antiperspirants reduce sweat flow, deodorants suppress bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary organism that causes seborrheic dermatitis, and what topical treatment is commonly used for it?

    <p>Pityrosporum Ovale - Ketoconazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    'Vaniqua' is primarily used for which purpose?

    <p>Removal of facial hair in women</p> Signup and view all the answers

    'Anthralin' is known for which effect when applied to psoriatic lesions?

    <p>'Anthralin' has an antiproliferative effect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    'Tars' are used in psoriasis treatment for their effect on the condition by:

    <p>'Tars' work by enzyme inhibition and antimycotic action</p> Signup and view all the answers

    'Imiquimod', 'Podofilox', and 'Kunecatechins' are topical treatments primarily used for:

    <p>'Imiquimod', 'Podofilox', and 'Kunecatechins' treat venereal warts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Vitamin D in the body?

    <p>Promotes calcium resorption from bone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cells are responsible for depositing new bone in the body?

    <p>Osteoblasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with Vitamin D deficiency in children?

    <p>Rickets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for hypoparathyroidism?

    <p>Calcium supplements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor regulates calcium absorption in the small intestine?

    <p>Vitamin D</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of trabecular bone is replaced each year?

    <p>25%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of osteoclasts in bone metabolism?

    <p>Resorb and break down old bone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lab test is commonly done to check for Vitamin D levels?

    <p>Serum concentration of 25 hydroxy vitamin D</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the three factors that regulate calcium in the body?

    <p>Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, calcitonin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the drug of choice for the treatment of anemia?

    <p>Ferrous sulfate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is Palifermin indicated for?

    <p>Hematologic malignancies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the irreversible side effect of long-term high dose therapy with Reglan?

    <p>Tardive dyskinesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of increased iron demand in pregnancy?

    <p>Blood volume expansion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vitamin deficiency can result from impaired absorption, celiac disease, and regional enteritis?

    <p>Vitamin B12 deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the nondrug treatment for acne mentioned in the text?

    <p>Salicylic Acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which formulation has the highest medication absorption?

    <p>Ointment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the local adverse effects of topical glucocorticoids?

    <p>Thinning of the skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

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