141 Questions
What is the A1C value that indicates diabetes mellitus?
6.5%
What fasting plasma glucose value is indicative of diabetes mellitus?
126 mg/dL
What complication can develop from insulin therapy related to subcutaneous fat accumulation?
Hypokalemia
Which type of drug can intensify the hypoglycemic effects of insulin?
Sulfonylureas
How do beta blockers affect insulin-related responses?
Mask signs of hypoglycemia
What other therapeutic uses, besides diabetes mellitus, does the text mention for insulin?
None of the above
What is the primary role of exercise in the treatment of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Enhances cellular responsiveness to insulin
What is the recommended duration of moderate-intensity exercise per week for individuals with diabetes?
150 minutes per week
Which medication can be given to decrease the risk of diabetic nephropathy?
ACE inhibitor or ARB
What is the goal blood pressure for individuals with diabetes?
120/80
What are the primary goals for blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime for patients on insulin therapy?
$70-110$ before meals, $90-120$ at bedtime
When considering the '4-step approach' to diabetes management, what is the decision process for selecting a second drug in Step 2?
Considering efficacy, hypoglycemia risk, patient tolerability, and weight-related factors
What is the primary function of metformin in the treatment of diabetes?
Sensitizes insulin receptors in target tissues
What are the common side effects associated with metformin use?
Lactic acidosis and gastrointestinal effects
'Glargine' insulin has a duration of action up to how many hours?
$24$ hours
'Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH)' insulin falls under which category of insulin based on duration?
'Intermediate acting'
What is the purpose of SERMS like Duavee?
To activate estrogen receptors in some tissues and block them in others
When is estrogen therapy alone indicated?
In women who have had a hysterectomy
What are the benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
Positive effect on wound healing
What are three approved indications for estrogen/progesterone replacement therapy?
Prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis
Which method is a nonpharmacologic form of contraception?
Avoiding intercourse during periods of fertility
What is the mechanism of action of oral contraceptives?
Inhibit ovulation
Which generation of progestin includes levonorgestrel and norgestrel?
2nd generation
What are some adverse effects of combination oral contraceptives?
Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis
What are the unique properties of Beyaz and Safyral?
They contain an additional folic acid component
What is the purpose of Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS) like Duavee?
To activate estrogen receptors in some tissues and block them in others
What is the recommended starting dosage of levothyroxine for elderly patients with coronary artery disease (CAD)?
12.5-25 mcg
What is the primary effect of Liotrix?
Balanced T4 to T3 ratio
Which drug is primarily used in hyperthyroidism for the preparation of thyroid gland surgery?
Methimazole
What are the primary metabolic effects of estrogen?
Block bone resorption
What is the primary indication for Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) in thyroid conditions?
Hyperthyroidism
How does the dosage of levothyroxine differ for obese individuals?
Dosage based on ideal body weight
What is the primary adverse effect associated with Propylthiouracil usage?
Agranulocytosis
What are the potential side effects of Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) treatment?
'Brassy' taste, burning sensation, soreness of teeth and gums
What does Propylthiouracil primarily inhibit in the body?
'Thyroid' hormone synthesis
What is the key advantage of Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) over thyroid surgery?
Low cost and less discomfort
What are the indications of prostaglandins?
Induction of abortion for cervical ripening before induction of labor
What are the therapeutic uses of testosterone?
Replacement therapy in menopausal women
What is the primary teratogenic effect mentioned in the text?
Neural tube defects
How is NuvaRing used according to the text?
Inserted into the vagina once a month
What drug combination is used for medical abortion as discussed in the text?
Mifepristone and misoprostol
What are the adverse effects of Testosterone mentioned in the text?
Prostate cancer
Which medication reduces the risk for fetal neural tube defects as per the text?
Levomefolate
What is the primary drawback associated with progestin-only contraceptives according to the text?
Irregular bleeding
Which second-generation antihistamine offers the best combination of efficacy and safety?
Fexofenadine
What is a common side effect associated with Levocetirizine?
Dry mouth
Which antihistamine should be avoided in patients with significant hepatic and renal impairment?
Desloratadine
Which antihistamine is generally well-tolerated for seasonal allergic rhinitis?
Desloratadine
Which antihistamine should not be taken with fruit juice?
Fexofenadine
Which nonopioid antitussive is structurally similar to local anesthetics tetracaine and procaine?
Benzonatate
"Omalizumab" is a monoclonal antibody directed against which immunoglobulin that plays a central role in the allergic release of inflammatory mediators?
IgE
"Montelukast" benefits derive from its mechanism of action involving blocking the binding of what to their receptors?
Leukotrienes
What is a potential side effect of anabolic steroids related to lipids?
Increase in LDL
Which drug class can cause life-threatening hypotension when combined with nitrates?
Phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors
What is the mechanism of action of alpha1-adrenergic antagonists in treating benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Relaxation of bladder neck smooth muscle
Which drug can cause abnormal ejaculation among the alpha1-adrenergic antagonists?
Tamsulosin
What is the main effect of activating H2 receptors?
Increased secretion of gastric acid
Which class of drugs is known to block histamine actions at H1 receptors but not at H2 receptors?
H1 antagonists
What is a potential severe side effect associated with phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors?
Ischemic optic neuropathy
What are the side effects specifically mentioned for Tamsulosin [Flomax] and Alfuzosin [Uroxatral]?
Hypertension, fainting, dizziness, somnolence, nasal congestion
What might be a potential drug interaction concern for patients taking Alpha1-adrenergic antagonists?
Life-threatening hypotension when combined with nitrates
What is a common adverse effect associated with H1 antagonists according to the given text?
Dry mouth and constipation
How does cimetidine affect insulin release?
Intensifies the response
What is the primary MOA of Meglitinides (Repaglinide and Nateglinide)?
Stimulate pancreatic insulin release
Which race are Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (Acarbose or Miglitol) more effective in?
Latinos
What is the mechanism of DPP-4 inhibitors (gliptins)?
Enhance the actions of incretin hormones
How does colesevelam work in the treatment of diabetes mellitus?
Lowers cholesterol and blood glucose
What adverse effect can occur with GLP-1 receptor agonists (incretin mimetics)?
Medullary thyroid cancer
What is the treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Insulin replacement and bicarbonate to reverse acidosis
When does hyperosmolar hyperglycemia state (HHS) most frequently occur?
In type 2 diabetics with acute infections or stressors
Why is normal thyroid function important in the first trimester of pregnancy?
To support the development of the fetal nervous system
How should Levothyroxine (T4) be taken?
On an empty stomach 30 minutes before breakfast
What is the goal of exacerbation management in asthma?
Prevent recurrent exacerbations
In asthma treatment, which step is chosen for initial therapy based on the severity of asthma?
Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus SABA
What important factor influences the decision to move up or down a step in asthma therapy?
Frequency of SABA use
What is an important measure in managing both COPD and asthma?
Prevent progressive loss of lung function
Which FEV1/FVC ratio indicates COPD?
<0.7
What is the treatment for Stage I (Mild) COPD?
No daily medication needed, SABAs PRN
What is the pathophysiological difference between asthma and COPD?
Asthma is primarily inflammation-driven, while COPD involves both inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
Why should cold remedies be avoided for respiratory conditions?
Cold remedies can exacerbate symptoms by thickening secretions.
What are the primary anti-inflammatory agents used in asthma treatment?
Budesonide and fluticasone
Which age group is recommended to use inhaled mucolytics according to guidelines?
Children older than six
What is the main contribution of nebulizers in delivering inhaled treatments?
They provide a soft mist inhalation method.
What adverse effect is specifically associated with the use of glucocorticoids in asthma treatment?
Adrenal suppression
Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with Cromolyn use?
Malignancy
For which condition is Omalizumab indicated according to the text?
Severe asthma controlled with inhaled glucocorticoids
Which drug class is Ipratropium a part of?
Bronchodilators
What is the primary purpose of SABA medications like Albuterol?
Preventative treatment for exercise-induced bronchospasm
Which of the following is a common side effect associated with Theophylline use?
Headache
What is a key characteristic of LABA medications like Salmeterol according to the text?
Long-term control in patients who experience frequent attacks
Which drug is NOT approved for use in asthma but is commonly used for maintenance therapy in COPD?
Tiotropium
What is a potential adverse effect associated with the use of Anticholinergic drugs like Tiotropium?
Sinusitis
In what condition should Aclidinium be used according to the text?
Bronchospasm associated with COPD
What is the primary adverse effect associated with Monoclonal Antibody Omalizumab?
Life-threatening anaphylaxis
Which drug blocks neurokinin1-type receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)?
Prochlorperazine
What is the primary benefit of using lorazepam in combination regimens to suppress chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?
Sedation
What is the main concern associated with haloperidol and droperidol use?
Prolonged QT interval and fatal dysrhythmias
In which patients is metoclopramide commonly used to block dopamine receptors in the CTZ?
Patients receiving chemotherapy
Which drug related to marijuana is used in the treatment of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?
Dronabinol
What occurs before drugs are given in the context of nausea?
Anticipatory emesis
How is motion sickness managed?
Scopolamine
Which drug is considered a bulk forming agent for the management of diarrhea?
Bismuth
What is the primary mechanism of action of opioids in managing diarrhea?
Increase absorption of fluid and salt
In managing Crohn disease, which antibiotic may be used for symptom control?
Metronidazole
Which drug class is most effective against acute episodes of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis?
5-Aminosalicylates
What is the role of immunomodulators in managing Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis?
Induce and maintain remission
For which condition is Loperamide specifically used?
Diarrhea
Which drug can be used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting tubular resorption of calcium and increasing calcium excretion?
Calcitonin
What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of Alendronate for osteoporosis treatment?
Esophagitis
Which drug is a receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL) used for the treatment of osteoporosis?
Denosumab
What characteristic differentiates Teriparatide from other osteoporosis treatments mentioned in the text?
Promotes bone formation
Which drug can be dosed yearly and is specifically used for Paget disease of bone?
Tiludronate
Which medication is a calcimimetic drug used for primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Cinacalcet
What is a significant adverse effect associated with Denosumab therapy for osteoporosis?
Musculoskeletal pain
What is the primary mechanism of action of spironolactone in the treatment of acne?
Blocks steroid receptors including sex hormones
Which topical treatment is specifically used for psoriasis due to its anti-inflammatory effects and is applied 2-3 times a day for a limited duration?
Calcipotriene
Which drug used for hair loss treatment regulates cell differentiation and proliferation and suppresses lymphocyte activity when applied to psoriatic lesions twice daily?
Calcitriol
Which drug is NOT used in the treatment of Actinic Keratosis (AK)?
Methotrexate
What is the primary difference between antiperspirants and deodorants?
Antiperspirants reduce sweat flow, deodorants suppress bacteria
What is the primary organism that causes seborrheic dermatitis, and what topical treatment is commonly used for it?
Pityrosporum Ovale - Ketoconazole
'Vaniqua' is primarily used for which purpose?
Removal of facial hair in women
'Anthralin' is known for which effect when applied to psoriatic lesions?
'Anthralin' has an antiproliferative effect
'Tars' are used in psoriasis treatment for their effect on the condition by:
'Tars' work by enzyme inhibition and antimycotic action
'Imiquimod', 'Podofilox', and 'Kunecatechins' are topical treatments primarily used for:
'Imiquimod', 'Podofilox', and 'Kunecatechins' treat venereal warts
What is the role of Vitamin D in the body?
Promotes calcium resorption from bone
Which cells are responsible for depositing new bone in the body?
Osteoblasts
Which condition is associated with Vitamin D deficiency in children?
Rickets
What is the primary treatment for hypoparathyroidism?
Calcium supplements
Which factor regulates calcium absorption in the small intestine?
Vitamin D
What percentage of trabecular bone is replaced each year?
25%
What is the primary role of osteoclasts in bone metabolism?
Resorb and break down old bone
What lab test is commonly done to check for Vitamin D levels?
Serum concentration of 25 hydroxy vitamin D
What are the three factors that regulate calcium in the body?
Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, calcitonin
What is the drug of choice for the treatment of anemia?
Ferrous sulfate
Which condition is Palifermin indicated for?
Hematologic malignancies
What is the irreversible side effect of long-term high dose therapy with Reglan?
Tardive dyskinesia
What is the primary cause of increased iron demand in pregnancy?
Blood volume expansion
Which vitamin deficiency can result from impaired absorption, celiac disease, and regional enteritis?
Vitamin B12 deficiency
What is the nondrug treatment for acne mentioned in the text?
Salicylic Acid
Which formulation has the highest medication absorption?
Ointment
What are the local adverse effects of topical glucocorticoids?
Thinning of the skin
Test your knowledge on different methods of administering testosterone, including oral androgens, intramuscular esters, transdermal patches and gels, subcutaneous pellets, and buccal tablets. Learn about application techniques and safety precautions for topical testosterone use.
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