Exam 3 practice
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Questions and Answers

What is the A1C value that indicates diabetes mellitus?

  • 6.5% (correct)
  • 5.0%
  • 7.0%
  • 6.0%

What fasting plasma glucose value is indicative of diabetes mellitus?

  • 100 mg/dL
  • 126 mg/dL (correct)
  • 150 mg/dL
  • 80 mg/dL

What complication can develop from insulin therapy related to subcutaneous fat accumulation?

  • Allergic reactions
  • Hypokalemia (correct)
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hypoglycemia

Which type of drug can intensify the hypoglycemic effects of insulin?

<p>Sulfonylureas (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do beta blockers affect insulin-related responses?

<p>Mask signs of hypoglycemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What other therapeutic uses, besides diabetes mellitus, does the text mention for insulin?

<p>None of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of exercise in the treatment of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus?

<p>Enhances cellular responsiveness to insulin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended duration of moderate-intensity exercise per week for individuals with diabetes?

<p>150 minutes per week (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication can be given to decrease the risk of diabetic nephropathy?

<p>ACE inhibitor or ARB (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal blood pressure for individuals with diabetes?

<p>120/80 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary goals for blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime for patients on insulin therapy?

<p>$70-110$ before meals, $90-120$ at bedtime (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When considering the '4-step approach' to diabetes management, what is the decision process for selecting a second drug in Step 2?

<p>Considering efficacy, hypoglycemia risk, patient tolerability, and weight-related factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of metformin in the treatment of diabetes?

<p>Sensitizes insulin receptors in target tissues (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the common side effects associated with metformin use?

<p>Lactic acidosis and gastrointestinal effects (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

'Glargine' insulin has a duration of action up to how many hours?

<p>$24$ hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

'Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH)' insulin falls under which category of insulin based on duration?

<p>'Intermediate acting' (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of SERMS like Duavee?

<p>To activate estrogen receptors in some tissues and block them in others (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is estrogen therapy alone indicated?

<p>In women who have had a hysterectomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

<p>Positive effect on wound healing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are three approved indications for estrogen/progesterone replacement therapy?

<p>Prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is a nonpharmacologic form of contraception?

<p>Avoiding intercourse during periods of fertility (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of oral contraceptives?

<p>Inhibit ovulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which generation of progestin includes levonorgestrel and norgestrel?

<p>2nd generation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some adverse effects of combination oral contraceptives?

<p>Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the unique properties of Beyaz and Safyral?

<p>They contain an additional folic acid component (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS) like Duavee?

<p>To activate estrogen receptors in some tissues and block them in others (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended starting dosage of levothyroxine for elderly patients with coronary artery disease (CAD)?

<p>12.5-25 mcg (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of Liotrix?

<p>Balanced T4 to T3 ratio (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is primarily used in hyperthyroidism for the preparation of thyroid gland surgery?

<p>Methimazole (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary metabolic effects of estrogen?

<p>Block bone resorption (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indication for Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) in thyroid conditions?

<p>Hyperthyroidism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the dosage of levothyroxine differ for obese individuals?

<p>Dosage based on ideal body weight (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary adverse effect associated with Propylthiouracil usage?

<p>Agranulocytosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential side effects of Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) treatment?

<p>'Brassy' taste, burning sensation, soreness of teeth and gums (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Propylthiouracil primarily inhibit in the body?

<p>'Thyroid' hormone synthesis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key advantage of Radioactive Iodine 131 (lugol solution) over thyroid surgery?

<p>Low cost and less discomfort (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the indications of prostaglandins?

<p>Induction of abortion for cervical ripening before induction of labor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the therapeutic uses of testosterone?

<p>Replacement therapy in menopausal women (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary teratogenic effect mentioned in the text?

<p>Neural tube defects (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is NuvaRing used according to the text?

<p>Inserted into the vagina once a month (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What drug combination is used for medical abortion as discussed in the text?

<p>Mifepristone and misoprostol (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the adverse effects of Testosterone mentioned in the text?

<p>Prostate cancer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication reduces the risk for fetal neural tube defects as per the text?

<p>Levomefolate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary drawback associated with progestin-only contraceptives according to the text?

<p>Irregular bleeding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which second-generation antihistamine offers the best combination of efficacy and safety?

<p>Fexofenadine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect associated with Levocetirizine?

<p>Dry mouth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antihistamine should be avoided in patients with significant hepatic and renal impairment?

<p>Desloratadine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antihistamine is generally well-tolerated for seasonal allergic rhinitis?

<p>Desloratadine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antihistamine should not be taken with fruit juice?

<p>Fexofenadine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nonopioid antitussive is structurally similar to local anesthetics tetracaine and procaine?

<p>Benzonatate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

"Omalizumab" is a monoclonal antibody directed against which immunoglobulin that plays a central role in the allergic release of inflammatory mediators?

<p>IgE (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

"Montelukast" benefits derive from its mechanism of action involving blocking the binding of what to their receptors?

<p>Leukotrienes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential side effect of anabolic steroids related to lipids?

<p>Increase in LDL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug class can cause life-threatening hypotension when combined with nitrates?

<p>Phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of alpha1-adrenergic antagonists in treating benign prostatic hyperplasia?

<p>Relaxation of bladder neck smooth muscle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug can cause abnormal ejaculation among the alpha1-adrenergic antagonists?

<p>Tamsulosin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of activating H2 receptors?

<p>Increased secretion of gastric acid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs is known to block histamine actions at H1 receptors but not at H2 receptors?

<p>H1 antagonists (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential severe side effect associated with phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors?

<p>Ischemic optic neuropathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the side effects specifically mentioned for Tamsulosin [Flomax] and Alfuzosin [Uroxatral]?

<p>Hypertension, fainting, dizziness, somnolence, nasal congestion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What might be a potential drug interaction concern for patients taking Alpha1-adrenergic antagonists?

<p>Life-threatening hypotension when combined with nitrates (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect associated with H1 antagonists according to the given text?

<p>Dry mouth and constipation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cimetidine affect insulin release?

<p>Intensifies the response (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary MOA of Meglitinides (Repaglinide and Nateglinide)?

<p>Stimulate pancreatic insulin release (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which race are Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (Acarbose or Miglitol) more effective in?

<p>Latinos (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of DPP-4 inhibitors (gliptins)?

<p>Enhance the actions of incretin hormones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does colesevelam work in the treatment of diabetes mellitus?

<p>Lowers cholesterol and blood glucose (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect can occur with GLP-1 receptor agonists (incretin mimetics)?

<p>Medullary thyroid cancer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

<p>Insulin replacement and bicarbonate to reverse acidosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does hyperosmolar hyperglycemia state (HHS) most frequently occur?

<p>In type 2 diabetics with acute infections or stressors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is normal thyroid function important in the first trimester of pregnancy?

<p>To support the development of the fetal nervous system (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should Levothyroxine (T4) be taken?

<p>On an empty stomach 30 minutes before breakfast (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of exacerbation management in asthma?

<p>Prevent recurrent exacerbations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In asthma treatment, which step is chosen for initial therapy based on the severity of asthma?

<p>Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus SABA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What important factor influences the decision to move up or down a step in asthma therapy?

<p>Frequency of SABA use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important measure in managing both COPD and asthma?

<p>Prevent progressive loss of lung function (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which FEV1/FVC ratio indicates COPD?

<p>&lt;0.7 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment for Stage I (Mild) COPD?

<p>No daily medication needed, SABAs PRN (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathophysiological difference between asthma and COPD?

<p>Asthma is primarily inflammation-driven, while COPD involves both inflammation and bronchoconstriction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should cold remedies be avoided for respiratory conditions?

<p>Cold remedies can exacerbate symptoms by thickening secretions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary anti-inflammatory agents used in asthma treatment?

<p>Budesonide and fluticasone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which age group is recommended to use inhaled mucolytics according to guidelines?

<p>Children older than six (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main contribution of nebulizers in delivering inhaled treatments?

<p>They provide a soft mist inhalation method. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect is specifically associated with the use of glucocorticoids in asthma treatment?

<p>Adrenal suppression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with Cromolyn use?

<p>Malignancy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which condition is Omalizumab indicated according to the text?

<p>Severe asthma controlled with inhaled glucocorticoids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug class is Ipratropium a part of?

<p>Bronchodilators (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of SABA medications like Albuterol?

<p>Preventative treatment for exercise-induced bronchospasm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common side effect associated with Theophylline use?

<p>Headache (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of LABA medications like Salmeterol according to the text?

<p>Long-term control in patients who experience frequent attacks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is NOT approved for use in asthma but is commonly used for maintenance therapy in COPD?

<p>Tiotropium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential adverse effect associated with the use of Anticholinergic drugs like Tiotropium?

<p>Sinusitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what condition should Aclidinium be used according to the text?

<p>Bronchospasm associated with COPD (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary adverse effect associated with Monoclonal Antibody Omalizumab?

<p>Life-threatening anaphylaxis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug blocks neurokinin1-type receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)?

<p>Prochlorperazine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary benefit of using lorazepam in combination regimens to suppress chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?

<p>Sedation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main concern associated with haloperidol and droperidol use?

<p>Prolonged QT interval and fatal dysrhythmias (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which patients is metoclopramide commonly used to block dopamine receptors in the CTZ?

<p>Patients receiving chemotherapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug related to marijuana is used in the treatment of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?

<p>Dronabinol (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs before drugs are given in the context of nausea?

<p>Anticipatory emesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is motion sickness managed?

<p>Scopolamine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is considered a bulk forming agent for the management of diarrhea?

<p>Bismuth (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of opioids in managing diarrhea?

<p>Increase absorption of fluid and salt (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing Crohn disease, which antibiotic may be used for symptom control?

<p>Metronidazole (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug class is most effective against acute episodes of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis?

<p>5-Aminosalicylates (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of immunomodulators in managing Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis?

<p>Induce and maintain remission (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which condition is Loperamide specifically used?

<p>Diarrhea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug can be used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting tubular resorption of calcium and increasing calcium excretion?

<p>Calcitonin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of Alendronate for osteoporosis treatment?

<p>Esophagitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is a receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL) used for the treatment of osteoporosis?

<p>Denosumab (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic differentiates Teriparatide from other osteoporosis treatments mentioned in the text?

<p>Promotes bone formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug can be dosed yearly and is specifically used for Paget disease of bone?

<p>Tiludronate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is a calcimimetic drug used for primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Cinacalcet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant adverse effect associated with Denosumab therapy for osteoporosis?

<p>Musculoskeletal pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of spironolactone in the treatment of acne?

<p>Blocks steroid receptors including sex hormones (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which topical treatment is specifically used for psoriasis due to its anti-inflammatory effects and is applied 2-3 times a day for a limited duration?

<p>Calcipotriene (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug used for hair loss treatment regulates cell differentiation and proliferation and suppresses lymphocyte activity when applied to psoriatic lesions twice daily?

<p>Calcitriol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is NOT used in the treatment of Actinic Keratosis (AK)?

<p>Methotrexate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between antiperspirants and deodorants?

<p>Antiperspirants reduce sweat flow, deodorants suppress bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary organism that causes seborrheic dermatitis, and what topical treatment is commonly used for it?

<p>Pityrosporum Ovale - Ketoconazole (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

'Vaniqua' is primarily used for which purpose?

<p>Removal of facial hair in women (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

'Anthralin' is known for which effect when applied to psoriatic lesions?

<p>'Anthralin' has an antiproliferative effect (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

'Tars' are used in psoriasis treatment for their effect on the condition by:

<p>'Tars' work by enzyme inhibition and antimycotic action (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

'Imiquimod', 'Podofilox', and 'Kunecatechins' are topical treatments primarily used for:

<p>'Imiquimod', 'Podofilox', and 'Kunecatechins' treat venereal warts (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Vitamin D in the body?

<p>Promotes calcium resorption from bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are responsible for depositing new bone in the body?

<p>Osteoblasts (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with Vitamin D deficiency in children?

<p>Rickets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for hypoparathyroidism?

<p>Calcium supplements (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor regulates calcium absorption in the small intestine?

<p>Vitamin D (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of trabecular bone is replaced each year?

<p>25% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of osteoclasts in bone metabolism?

<p>Resorb and break down old bone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What lab test is commonly done to check for Vitamin D levels?

<p>Serum concentration of 25 hydroxy vitamin D (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three factors that regulate calcium in the body?

<p>Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, calcitonin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of anemia?

<p>Ferrous sulfate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is Palifermin indicated for?

<p>Hematologic malignancies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the irreversible side effect of long-term high dose therapy with Reglan?

<p>Tardive dyskinesia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of increased iron demand in pregnancy?

<p>Blood volume expansion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin deficiency can result from impaired absorption, celiac disease, and regional enteritis?

<p>Vitamin B12 deficiency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the nondrug treatment for acne mentioned in the text?

<p>Salicylic Acid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which formulation has the highest medication absorption?

<p>Ointment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the local adverse effects of topical glucocorticoids?

<p>Thinning of the skin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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