Biology
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Biology

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following organelles is NOT part of the endomembrane system?

  • Golgi apparatus
  • Mitochondria (correct)
  • Lysosomes
  • Nuclear envelope

    • What do the ER and Golgi apparatus contribute to in the endomembrane system?

  • Energy production
  • Protein processing and transport (correct)
  • Photosynthesis
  • Cellular respiration

    • Which of the following is a component of the endomembrane system?

  • Cytoskeleton
  • Chloroplast
  • Mitochondria
  • Peroxisome (correct)

    • Which statement is TRUE regarding the endomembrane system?

    <p>It facilitates transport within the cell.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do lysosomes function within the endomembrane system?

    <p>They break down waste materials.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of centrioles during cell division?

    <p>Spindle organization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Centrioles are membrane-bound organelles.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following fibers is primarily responsible for cellular motility?

    <p>Microfilaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The central vacuole is important for maintaining cell rigidity in animal cells.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following structures with their descriptions:

    <p>Centrioles = Give rise to microtubules for the spindle Basal Body = Organizes the development of flagella and cilia Intermediate filaments = Maintain the shape of the cell Central Vacuole = Stores nutrients and maintains pressure on cell walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of gap junctions in animal cells?

    <p>To allow exchange of ions and small molecules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What surrounds the desmotubule in plasmodesmata?

    <p>Cytoplasm and plasma membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes connexins?

    <p>Proteins that make up gap junctions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the exchange of materials in gap junctions?

    <p>It permits exchange of ions and small molecules without cytoplasmic mixing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structural component primarily makes up plasmodesmata?

    <p>A narrow tube of endoplasmic reticulum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structures are present in plant cells but absent in animal cells?

    <p>Chloroplasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic feature of animal cells?

    <p>Cholesterol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do plant cells possess that helps maintain turgidity and storage?

    <p>Central vacuoles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organelle is predominantly found in animal cells but not in plant cells?

    <p>Centrioles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following organelles is unique to plant cells?

    <p>Chloroplasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes simple diffusion?

    <p>High to low concentration movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process specifically involves the diffusion of water across a membrane?

    <p>Osmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes facilitated diffusion?

    <p>Involves channel proteins for solute transport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during plasmolysis?

    <p>Movement of water out causing cell collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Countercurrent exchange refers to what mechanism?

    <p>Movement of substances between regions moving in opposite directions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes ovoviviparous reproduction in marine species?

    <p>Eggs develop inside the mother, resulting in live birth.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?

    <p>Anaphase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of the cell cycle is primarily responsible for the replication of the genome?

    <p>S Phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true regarding meiosis compared to mitosis?

    <p>Meiosis produces cells with half the chromosome number.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do cytokinesis processes differ between animal and plant cells?

    <p>Animal cells pinch their membrane while plant cells develop a cell plate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of the first meiotic division do homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material?

    <p>Prophase I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the tetrads during Metaphase I of meiosis?

    <p>Tetrads align at the metaphase plate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Anaphase I of meiosis is true?

    <p>Homologous pairs are pulled to opposite poles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature distinguishes the second division of meiosis from mitosis?

    <p>Only one gamete becomes functional in females</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of Telophase I in meiosis?

    <p>Formation of two haploid daughter cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characterized by the turning of a chromosomal segment 180°?

    <p>Inversion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs when chromosomes fail to separate during the first or second meiotic division?

    <p>Nondisjunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a sterile female who is lacking an X chromosome?

    <p>Turner syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the chromosomal composition of an individual with Klinefelter syndrome?

    <p>47, XXY</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic material is considered an exception to the universality of the genetic code?

    <p>mitochondrial DNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which generation is dominant in angiosperms?

    <p>Diploid sporophyte</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of asexual reproduction involves underground stems with buds?

    <p>Tubers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During fertilization in angiosperms, what does one sperm nucleus combine with to create the endosperm?

    <p>Two polar nuclei</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the flower is primarily responsible for producing haploid spores that develop into pollen?

    <p>Stamen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of auxins in artificial vegetative propagation?

    <p>To accelerate root growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes stems that run above ground and produce new plants at various nodes?

    <p>Runners</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure develops from the outer covering of the ovule?

    <p>Seed Coat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of vegetative propagation involves bending a stem to allow it to root in contact with soil?

    <p>Layering</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the diploid sporophyte generation give rise to in the process of spore formation?

    <p>Haploid spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the flower is responsible for catching pollen during fertilization?

    <p>Stigma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the menstrual cycle phase with its key event:

    <p>Follicular = FSH promotes development of follicle Ovulation = Mature follicle bursts releasing ovum Luteal = Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone Menstruation = Endometrium sloughs off if no fertilization occurs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the hormone to its function in the female reproductive system:

    <p>Estrogen = Thickens the endometrium Progesterone = Maintains the endometrial wall FSH = Promotes development of follicles LH = Triggers ovulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the structure with its connection in the female reproductive system:

    <p>Fallopian tube = Opens to the uterus Cervix = Connects with vaginal canal Uterus = Houses developing fetus Vaginal canal = Birth canal during delivery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the event during the menstrual cycle with its corresponding hormone action:

    <p>Follicular phase = Estrogen secretion increases Ovulation phase = LH surge occurs Luteal phase = Progesterone secretion peaks Menstruation phase = Drop in estrogen and progesterone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the outcome of fertilization with its consequence:

    <p>Ovum fertilized = Placenta produces hCG Ovum not fertilized = Corpus luteum atrophies hCG presence = Maintained levels of estrogen and progesterone Endometrium degradation = Menstruation begins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the hormone with its specific role in the menstrual cycle:

    <p>Estrogen = Stimulates endometrial thickening Progesterone = Supports endometrium for implantation FSH = Initiates the follicular phase LH = Triggers ovulation and corpus luteum formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following genetic terms with their definitions:

    <p>Mutations = Changes in DNA that can lead to tumors or be inherited Aneuploidy = An abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell Exons = Nucleotide sequences that are retained in mRNA Redundancy/Degeneracy = Multiple codons coding for the same amino acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of mutations to their examples:

    <p>Insertion = Addition of one or more nucleotide bases Deletion = Loss of one or more nucleotide bases Substitution = Replacement of one base with another Sickle-cell anemia = Example of a disease caused by a mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the processes of protein synthesis with their descriptions:

    <p>Replication = DNA is copied to create new DNA strands Transcription = DNA is converted into RNA Translation = RNA is decoded to produce proteins mRNA = Brings the genetic code from DNA to ribosomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the genetic conditions with their chromosome patterns:

    <p>Down Syndrome = Trisomy 21 Turner Syndrome = XO Klinefelter Syndrome = XXY Aneuploidy = Condition with extra or missing chromosomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the nitrogenous bases with their classifications:

    <p>Cytosine = Pyrimidine Uracil = Pyrimidine Adenine = Purine Guanine = Purine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs when an inducer binds to a repressor in an inducible system?

    <p>Structural genes are transcribed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a lysogenic cycle, what happens to the phage DNA?

    <p>It integrates into the host cell's genome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a repressible system in genetic transcription?

    <p>Transcription is constant until inhibited</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of techoic acids in bacteria?

    <p>Attachment and recognition by bacterial viruses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about virulent bacteriophages is true?

    <p>They produce multiple progeny before lysing the host cell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs to the size of cells during cleavage in embryonic development?

    <p>Each resulting cell contains less cytoplasm than the original zygote</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the animal and vegetal poles is true?

    <p>Vegetal pole divides very slowly compared to animal pole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes indeterminate cleavage from determinate cleavage?

    <p>Determinate cleavage is associated with limited developmental programs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cleavage is characterized by cells arranged in a spiral manner?

    <p>Spiral cleavage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following organisms typically exhibits radial cleavage?

    <p>Sea cucumbers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During early cleavage, how do polar cleavages differ from equatorial cleavages?

    <p>Polar cleavages stretch from pole to pole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the extraembryonic membranes formed from the vegetal pole during embryonic development?

    <p>To protect and nourish the embryo</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In deuterostomes, what is the fate of the blastopore during development?

    <p>It becomes the anus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following structures is derived from the ectoderm?

    <p>Nervous system components.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tissue type is NOT derived from the mesoderm layer?

    <p>Epithelial lining of the respiratory system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary function does the endoderm serve during embryonic development?

    <p>Creation of the lining for various organs like the digestive system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes protostome cleavage from deuterostome cleavage?

    <p>Spiral cleavage vs. radial cleavage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the chorion in mammals?

    <p>Formation of the placenta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial structure does the allantois bud off from during development?

    <p>Archenteron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of the yolk sac in placental mammals?

    <p>It delivers nutrients via the umbilical cord.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which membrane is responsible for cushioning the developing embryo?

    <p>Amnion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the allantois ultimately develop into in adults?

    <p>Urinary bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In birds and reptiles, what is the main function of the yolk sac membrane?

    <p>Digestion of yolk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of frog embryonic development related to the gray crescent?

    <p>It allows each cell to develop into a normal frog only if it contains a portion of the gray crescent.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During bird embryonic development, what structure is formed due to the presence of a large yolk?

    <p>Blastodisc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in human embryonic development is responsible for implantation?

    <p>Trophoblast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) during the early stages of embryonic development?

    <p>To maintain progesterone production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In comparison to sea urchins and frogs, what distinguishes the gastrulation process in birds?

    <p>It features an elongated blastopore along the primitive streak.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During human embryonic development, what does the inner cell mass of the blastocyst develop into?

    <p>Embryonic disc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant developmental characteristic is observed in mammalian embryos compared to other animals?

    <p>Formation of a blastocyst containing an outer trophoblast.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which embryonic structure is analogous to the blastodisc found in birds and reptiles?

    <p>Embryonic disc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What developmental aspect differentiates the gastrulation in frogs compared to that in birds?

    <p>Circular vs. elongated blastopore.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What circulatory system do arthropods possess?

    <p>Open circulatory system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does gas exchange occur in protozoans?

    <p>Via simple diffusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of the closed circulatory system found in annelids?

    <p>Blood is confined within vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure in arthropods allows hemolymph to return to the heart?

    <p>Ostia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the body organization of cnidarians?

    <p>Two cell thick body walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct relationship between cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate?

    <p>Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which functional feature of intercalated disks is important for cardiac muscle?

    <p>They improve electrical impulse transmission between cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the ductus venosus in fetal circulation?

    <p>It allows blood to bypass the liver.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does myoglobin differ from hemoglobin in function?

    <p>Myoglobin stores O2 in muscle, whereas hemoglobin transports O2 in blood.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes stroke volume?

    <p>Stroke volume measures the amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome when both sodium and calcium channels remain open in cardiac muscle?

    <p>The depolarization phase is prolonged.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the foramen ovale play in fetal circulation?

    <p>It allows blood to flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of white blood cells are primarily involved in the phagocytic process to engulf foreign cells?

    <p>Neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of interferons in the immune response?

    <p>Stimulate neighboring cells to produce protective proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is triggered by the secretion of histamine during an inflammatory response?

    <p>Vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the complement system play in the immune response?

    <p>Directly destroying pathogens by lysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which event occurs during an inflammatory response when skin is damaged and pathogens enter the body?

    <p>Release of chemokines by damaged cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily supports the upward movement of water in xylem?

    <p>Transpirational pull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about phloem is true?

    <p>Sieve-tube elements in phloem are living at maturity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cells do cambium give rise to?

    <p>Xylem and phloem cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of companion cells in phloem?

    <p>Support sieve-tube elements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do vessel elements differ from tracheids in the xylem?

    <p>Water moves through perforations in vessel elements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process results in the upward movement of water caused by evaporation from leaves?

    <p>Transpirational pull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would likely happen if a strip of bark is removed around a tree trunk?

    <p>Phloem connections will be severed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do tracheids primarily enable in the xylem?

    <p>Mechanical support</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of root hairs in plants?

    <p>To increase surface area for absorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the woody stem is responsible for lateral growth?

    <p>Cambium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer is located just beneath the epidermis in a woody stem?

    <p>Cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs in the zone of elongation in plants?

    <p>Cells elongate after division</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in a plant is mainly responsible for vertical growth?

    <p>Apical meristem</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do glucocorticoids play in the body?

    <p>Raise blood glucose levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone is responsible for converting glycogen into glucose in the body?

    <p>Glucagon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do mineralocorticoids have on the body's fluid balance?

    <p>Increases sodium reabsorption and causes passive water reabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of the adrenal medulla?

    <p>Regulation of sodium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone has a minor effect due to its primary source being the testes?

    <p>Cortical sex hormones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of gastrin in the gastrointestinal system?

    <p>Stimulates secretion of HCl</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone is released in response to acidic food entering the small intestine?

    <p>Secretin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does cholecystokinin play in digestion?

    <p>Causes contraction of the gall-bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the secretion of alkaline bicarbonate in the small intestine?

    <p>Acidic food entering the intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hormones is specifically associated with fat digestion?

    <p>Cholecystokinin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do auxins have on lateral buds?

    <p>They inhibit the development of lateral buds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which plant hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating rapid stem elongation?

    <p>Gibberellins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do anti-auxins function in relation to auxins?

    <p>They block the activity of auxins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do inhibitors play in plant growth?

    <p>They block cell division and maintain dormancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hormones is involved in fruit ripening and aging?

    <p>Ethylene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when Na+ gates open on the postsynaptic membrane?

    <p>The membrane is depolarized, creating an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chemical transmission across synapses is more common than electrical transmission.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Ca2+ ions in synaptic transmission?

    <p>Ca2+ ions facilitate the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vessels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The condition resulting from the opening of K+ gates in the postsynaptic membrane is known as ___.

    <p>inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their descriptions:

    <p>EPSP = Excitatory postsynaptic potential IPSP = Inhibitory postsynaptic potential Neurotransmitter = Chemical messengers that transmit signals across synapses Synaptic cleft = The space between presynaptic and postsynaptic cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which neurotransmitter is primarily secreted at neuromuscular junctions?

    <p>Acetylcholine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is an excitatory neurotransmitter.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name one function of dopamine in the central nervous system.

    <p>Regulating mood and motivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    ______________ is a neurotransmitter associated with the sympathetic nervous system.

    <p>Epinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the neurotransmitter with its respective characteristic:

    <p>Acetylcholine = Involved in muscle contraction/relaxation Serotonin = Regulates mood and emotional state GABA = Inhibitory neurotransmitter Dopamine = Affects reward and pleasure centers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing sensory input and is important for memory and creative thought?

    <p>Cerebral Cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in the hindbrain is crucial for balance and coordination of rapid movements?

    <p>Cerebellum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the hypothalamus within the forebrain?

    <p>Managing visceral functions like hunger and thirst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the midbrain primarily serve as a center for?

    <p>Motor control and visual/auditory impulse relay</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following structures is NOT part of the hindbrain?

    <p>Thalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing sensory input and is crucial for memory and creative thought?

    <p>Cerebral Cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the hypothalamus?

    <p>Maintaining visceral functions like temperature and thirst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in the hindbrain is specifically associated with the timing of rapid movements?

    <p>Cerebellum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component serves as a relay center for visual and auditory impulses within the brain?

    <p>Midbrain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The medulla oblongata is primarily responsible for which of the following functions?

    <p>Breathing and heart rate regulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary outcome of glycolysis?

    <p>Produces 2 pyruvate molecules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cellular respiration, what is the role of oxygen?

    <p>Acts as a final electron acceptor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step in glycolysis is known as the rate determining step?

    <p>Consumption of ATP by phosphofructokinase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of fermentation in glucose catabolism?

    <p>Regenerates NAD+ under anaerobic conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is produced during one turn of the citric acid cycle?

    <p>4 CO₂, 6 NADH, and 2 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does the electron transport chain (ETC) occur within the cell?

    <p>Inner mitochondrial membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following processes of ATP production in eukaryotes with their corresponding ATP outputs:

    <p>Glycolysis = 6 ATP PDC = 6 ATP CAC = 24 ATP Total ATP production = 36 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of glycolysis with their respective contributions to ATP production:

    <p>2 ATP invested = -2 ATP 4 ATP generated = +4 ATP 2 NADH = +4 ATP Net gain from glycolysis = 6 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of the citric acid cycle (CAC) to their ATP contributions:

    <p>6 NADH = +18 ATP 2 FADH2 = +4 ATP 2 GTP = +2 ATP Total ATP from CAC = 24 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match each part of aerobic respiration with its type of energy carrier generated:

    <p>Glycolysis = ATP and NADH PDC = NADH CAC = NADH and FADH2 Total from all processes = 36 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following stages of cellular respiration with their respective energy investment or extraction:

    <p>Glycolysis = Investment of 2 ATP PDC = Extraction of 6 ATP through NADH CAC = Extraction of 24 ATP Overall process = Total of 36 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following parts of the mitochondria with their functions:

    <p>Intermembrane space = Accumulation of H+ ions Inner membrane = Where oxidative phosphorylation occurs Matrix = Site of the Krebs cycle ATP synthase = Phosphorylates ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following energy sources with their usage order when glucose is low:

    <p>Glycogen = Other carbs (stored glucose) Fat = Triglycerides hydrolyzed to fatty acids Protein = Converted to glucose or intermediates None = Used only when carbs and fats are gone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the metabolic cycle with its description:

    <p>Cori cycle = Converts lactic acid to pyruvate Glyoxylate cycle = Occurs in plants and bacteria Krebs cycle = Generates energy from Acetyl-CoA Beta-oxidation = Breaks down fatty acids for energy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of molecules with their storage forms:

    <p>Fats = Stored as triglycerides in adipose tissue Carbohydrates = Stored as glycogen in liver Proteins = Converted to glucose when needed ATP = Energetic currency of the cell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following compounds with their roles in fat metabolism:

    <p>Lipases = Hydrolyze triglycerides into fatty acids Fatty acids = Carried by blood to tissues Glycerol = A glycolytic intermediate Acetyl-CoA = Entry point for Krebs cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of human respiration with their descriptions:

    <p>Alveoli = Sacs where gas exchange occurs Medulla oblongata = Controls the rate of ventilation Hemoglobin = Transporter of oxygen in the blood Trachea = Airway that connects the larynx to the bronchi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following processes of respiration with their functions:

    <p>Inhalation = Air flows into the lungs Exhalation = Air is expelled from the lungs Diffusion = Gas exchange across membranes Bulk flow = Movement of air or blood driven by pressure differences</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to gas transport with their descriptions:

    <p>Bohr effect = Oxygen release decreases under low pH O2 diffusion = Oxygen moves from alveoli to blood CO2 transport = Carbon dioxide mostly as bicarbonate ions Surface tension reduction = Surfactant lowers tension in alveoli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following cellular components of respiration with their features:

    <p>Bronchi = Branches that direct air into lungs Capillaries = Surround alveoli for gas exchange Interstitial fluid = Medium for oxygen diffusion to cells Diaphragm = Muscle that aids in breathing mechanics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following factors affecting hemoglobin's oxygen affinity with their effects:

    <p>High CO2 = Decreases O2 binding affinity Low pH = Enhances oxygen release Increased pH = Promotes oxygen binding Carbonic anhydrase = Catalyzes conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the stroma in the chloroplast?

    <p>Site for the Calvin cycle reactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During chemiosmosis in chloroplasts, where do H+ ions accumulate?

    <p>Lumen of the thylakoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes photons in relation to photosystems?

    <p>They are captured by chlorophyll in the light-harvesting complex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the overall net reaction of photosynthesis?

    <p>CO2 + H2O → Glucose + O2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a granum in relation to chloroplast structure?

    <p>A stack of thylakoid membranes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process occurs within the stroma of chloroplasts?

    <p>Calvin cycle (dark reactions)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of photosynthesis is primarily responsible for capturing light energy?

    <p>Chlorophyll pigment in photosystems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What accumulates in the lumen during the light reactions of photosynthesis?

    <p>H+ ions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the net reaction of photosynthesis?

    <p>It results in the reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates and release of O2 from water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes the stack of thylakoids within a chloroplast?

    <p>Granum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the end product of the Calvin Cycle after six turns?

    <p>1 Glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step in the Calvin Cycle involves the fixation of CO2 to RuBP?

    <p>Carboxylation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many ATP molecules are required to regenerate 6 RuBP from G3P?

    <p>6 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of G3P in the Calvin Cycle?

    <p>It helps in the synthesis of carbohydrates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly represents the inputs needed for the Calvin Cycle to produce glucose?

    <p>6CO2, 18 ATP, 12 NADPH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do peroxisomes play in photorespiration?

    <p>They are involved in breaking down O2 fixation products.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of guard cells in leaves?

    <p>To surround and control the size of stomata.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do nitrifying bacteria contribute to plant nutrition?

    <p>By converting ammonia and nitrites into nitrates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structural adaptation allows the palisade layer in leaves to maximize photosynthesis?

    <p>It is composed of elongated chloroplast-containing cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Casparian strip in plant physiology?

    <p>To control the flow of water through plant cell walls.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of chondrocytes in cartilage?

    <p>Produce collagen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is compact bone primarily structured?

    <p>With densely packed osteons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of spongy (cancellous) bone?

    <p>It contains adipose tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does bone growth primarily occur in long bones?

    <p>Along the epiphyseal plates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the composition of cartilage?

    <p>It is a flexible connective tissue made of collagen and elastin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of the skeleton with their descriptions:

    <p>Axial skeleton = Comprises skull, vertebral column, and rib cage Appendicular skeleton = Includes bones of limbs and girdles Sutures = Immovable joints found in the skull Moveable joints = Bones that move relative to each other</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their definitions:

    <p>Origin = Point where muscle attaches to a stationary bone Insertion = Point of muscle attachment to a moving bone Extension = Straightening of a joint Flexion = Bending of a joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of joints with their characteristics:

    <p>Sutures = Connect bones in a fixed manner Moveable joints = Allow for movement Ligaments = Connect bone to bone Tendons = Connect muscle to bone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of the skeleton system with their functions:

    <p>Skeleton = Provides structure and support Ligaments = Stabilize joints Tendons = Facilitate movement by connecting muscles to bones Flexion = Reduces the angle between body parts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of movements with their descriptions:

    <p>Extension = Increases the angle of a joint Flexion = Decreases the angle of a joint Origin = Attachment at a fixed point Insertion = Attachment at a moving point</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the components of skeletal muscle with their descriptions:

    <p>Myofibrils = Filaments divided into sarcomeres Sarcoplasmic Reticulum = Stores Ca²⁺ and surrounds myofibrils Sarcolemma = Cell membrane that can propagate action potentials Mitochondria = Organelles present in large amounts in myofibrils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the terms related to skeletal muscle structure with their definitions:

    <p>Sarcomeres = Individual contractile units of muscle fibers Sarcoplasm = Cytoplasm of skeletal muscle cells T-tubules = Channels for ion flow connecting to the sarcolemma Multinucleated = Characteristic of skeletal muscle fiber cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the properties of skeletal muscle with their characteristics:

    <p>Striated Muscle = Responsible for voluntary movement Contractile Fibers = Fibers that enable muscle contraction Connective Tissue = Holds fibers together in the muscular system Action Potentials = Electrical impulses propagated by the sarcolemma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their specific function in skeletal muscle:

    <p>Ca²⁺ = Necessary for muscle contraction Myofibrils = Structures that contract and enable movement Sarcoplasmic Reticulum = Regulates calcium ion concentration Mitochondria = Provides energy for muscle contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following structures of skeletal muscle with their functions:

    <p>Sarcoplasmic Reticulum = Stores calcium ions for muscle contractions Sarcoplasm = Serves as the medium for metabolic processes T-tubules = Facilitates the spread of action potentials Myofibrils = Primary contractile elements of muscle fibers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the parts of the sarcomere with their descriptions:

    <p>Z line = Boundary of a single sarcomere; anchor thin filaments M line = Center of the sarcomere I band = Region containing thin filaments (actin) only H zone = Region containing thick filaments (myosin) only</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the regions of the sarcomere with their characteristics:

    <p>A band = Actin and myosin overlapping I band = Reduces during contraction H zone = Reduces during contraction Z line = Serves as an anchor for actin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of filament with its designation:

    <p>Actin = Thin filament Myosin = Thick filament Z line = Anchors thin filaments M line = Centerline of the sarcomere</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match each sarcomere component with its function or role:

    <p>I band = Contains only thin filaments H zone = Contains only thick filaments A band = Does not reduce during contraction Z line = Defines the limits of a sarcomere</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the contraction effects with sarcomere components:

    <p>I band = Decreases during contraction H zone = Decreases during contraction A band = Remains unchanged during contraction M line = Stays at the center during contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of muscle response with its description:

    <p>Simple Twitch = Response of a single muscle fiber to a brief stimulus; includes latent period, contraction, and relaxation Summation = Contractions combine to become stronger and more prolonged Tetanus = Continuous contractions where the muscle cannot relax Tonus = State of partial contraction; muscle never completely relaxed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the component of a simple twitch to its corresponding phase:

    <p>Latent Period = Time between stimulation and onset of contraction Contraction = Phase where muscle fibers actively shorten Relaxation = Phase when muscle fibers return to original length Absolute Refractory Period = Time when muscle is unresponsive to further stimulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the term with its definition in muscle responses:

    <p>Summation = The enhancement of muscle contractions through repeated stimulation Tetanus = A state where muscle fibers are unable to relax due to continuous stimulation Tonus = A moderate level of muscle contraction present even at rest Simple Twitch = A quick muscle contraction followed by relaxation in response to a single stimulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the phase of a simple twitch to its timing characteristics:

    <p>Latent Period = Initial delay before contraction begins Contraction = Period where muscle actively shortens Relaxation = Time when muscle returns to resting state Absolute Refractory Period = Duration during which muscle fibers cannot respond to new stimuli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the characteristics with their corresponding muscle response phases:

    <p>Tonus = A state of partial contraction allowing muscle readiness Simple Twitch = Involves a distinct sequence of latent, contraction, and relaxation Summation = Leads to stronger and prolonged muscle contractions Tetanus = Results from rapid frequency of stimuli without relaxation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does HCl play in the stomach's digestive process?

    <p>It activates pepsinogen into pepsin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is NOT secreted by the pancreas?

    <p>Pepsin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the pyloric sphincter in the digestive system?

    <p>To control the release of chyme into the small intestine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in the small intestine is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption?

    <p>Villi and microvilli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of bile in digestion?

    <p>It emulsifies fats to aid in their digestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the large intestine?

    <p>Reabsorption of water and salts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone stimulates the gallbladder to release bile?

    <p>Cholecystokinin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what process do fungi obtain nutrients from their environment?

    <p>Absorption through rhizoids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a source of Vitamin K in the body?

    <p>Bacteria in the large intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of secretin in the digestive process?

    <p>To neutralize chyme</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of goblet cells in the stomach?

    <p>Secretion of protective mucous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type in the stomach is primarily responsible for producing hydrochloric acid (HCl)?

    <p>Parietal cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of bile in the digestive system?

    <p>Emulsification of fats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is primarily responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the pancreas?

    <p>Amylase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the digestive system?

    <p>Presence of fatty food</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the portal vein in the digestive system?

    <p>Directing monosaccharides to the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which secretion is primarily involved in the neutralization of chyme in the small intestine?

    <p>Bicarbonate juice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells?

    <p>Vitamin B-12 absorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of enterogastrone in the digestive process?

    <p>Inhibits stomach gland secretion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cells secrete the hormone gastrin in the stomach?

    <p>G-cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the nephron structures with their primary functions:

    <p>Proximal convoluted tubule = Active reabsorption of glucose, ions, and amino acids Loop of Henle = Concentration of urine through filtration Distal convoluted tubule = Reabsorption of remaining nutrients and water Collecting duct = Collects waste and adjusts water reabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the segments of the Loop of Henle with their characteristics:

    <p>Descending limb = Only permeable to water Ascending limb = Pumps out Na+, K+, Cl- Filtration process = Reabsorbs 99% of filtrate Salty medulla = Increases urine concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the hormone with its function in kidney regulation:

    <p>Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) = Increases permeability of collecting duct Aldosterone = Regulates sodium reabsorption Natriuretic peptide = Inhibits sodium reabsorption Renin = Activates angiotensin pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the process with its effect on urine composition:

    <p>Filtration = Removes excess substances from blood Reabsorption = Decreases waste in urine Secretion = Increases waste in urine Concentration = Increases solute level in urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the nephron functions with their descriptions:

    <p>Reabsorption = Process of reclaiming water and solutes Secretion = Transportation of waste into tubular fluid Filtration = Initial removal of blood plasma Concentration = Adjustment of urine volume and composition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the epidermis contains 25-30 dead layers filled with keratin?

    <p>Stratum corneum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the stratum spinosum?

    <p>Strength and flexibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which epidermal layer do lamellar bodies release hydrophobic lipids?

    <p>Stratum granulosum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the epidermis is only found in the palms, soles of feet, and fingertips?

    <p>Stratum lucidum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the stratum basale?

    <p>Presence of stem cells dividing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the stratum corneum in the epidermis?

    <p>Acts as a barrier to prevent water loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the epidermis is only found in the palms, soles of feet, and fingertips?

    <p>Stratum lucidum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the stratum basale play in the epidermis?

    <p>Houses stem cells responsible for generating new skin cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic describes the stratum granulosum?

    <p>Has 3-5 layers of dying cells releasing lipids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the desmosomes found in the stratum spinosum?

    <p>To hold cells together and provide structural integrity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best defines an ecosystem?

    <p>The interplay between a community and its abiotic environment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to the zone of water where light penetrates and supports aquatic photosynthesis?

    <p>Photic zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a community from a population in biological organization?

    <p>A community includes different species, while a population comprises the same species.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the term 'biotic' in an environmental context?

    <p>All living entities that affect the life of an organism.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which level of biological organization is characterized as an individual unit of a biological system?

    <p>Organism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biomes with their characteristics:

    <p>Desert = Minimal concentrated rain, small plants and animals Tropical Rain Forest = High temperatures, torrential rains, no leaf shedding Tundra = Treeless, frozen, very short growing season Temperate Deciduous Forest = Cold winters, warm summers, trees shed leaves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the terrestrial biomes with their descriptions:

    <p>Grassland = Low rainfall, no shelter for herbivores Taiga = Long winters, inhabited by spruce, floors contain moss Temperate Coniferous Forest = Cold, dry, needles for water conservation Polar = Frozen, no vegetation, terrestrial animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biome with its typical flora and fauna:

    <p>Desert = Small plants and desert-adapted animals Tropical Rain Forest = Epiphytes and saprophytes present Grassland = Animals with long legs or hooved feet Tundra = Lichens and moss with polar bears</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biome with its climate characteristics:

    <p>Grassland = Low rainfall with open areas Temperate Deciduous Forest = Moderate rainfall, leaf shedding Taiga = Cold, dry winters with conifers Desert = Days of growing season following rain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biome with the type of vegetation found there:

    <p>Temperate Coniferous Forest = Fir, pine, spruce trees Tropical Rain Forest = Dense vegetation, high canopy Polar = No vegetation, frozen terrain Taiga = Spruce as a dominant species</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their characteristics:

    <p>Monera = Prokaryotic organisms that lack a nucleus Protista = Primarily unicellular eukaryotes Fungi = Organisms that decompose organic material Plantae = Multicellular autotrophic organisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their examples:

    <p>Monera = Bacteria Protista = Amoeba Fungi = Mushrooms Plantae = Moss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their nutritional modes:

    <p>Monera = Heterotrophic and autotrophic Fungi = Absorptive heterotrophs Plantae = Photoautotrophs Animalia = Ingestive heterotrophs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their cellular organization:

    <p>Fungi = Cell walls made of chitin Plantae = Cell walls made of cellulose Animalia = No cell walls present Protista = Can be unicellular or multicellular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their reproductive strategies:

    <p>Fungi = Spore formation Plantae = Alternation of generations Animalia = Sexual reproduction predominates Protista = Binary fission or sexual reproduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics of Kingdom Monera with their descriptions:

    <p>Prokaryotes = Organisms that lack a nucleus Asexual reproduction = Reproduction without the fusion of gametes Circular DNA = DNA structure commonly found in bacteria Peptidoglycan cell wall = Main structural component of bacterial cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the mechanisms of acquiring genetic material in bacteria with their definitions:

    <p>Transduction = Genetic material transfer via a virus Transformation = Genetic alteration by direct uptake of genetic material Conjugation = Direct transfer of DNA between two bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of bacteria with their characteristics:

    <p>Gram-positive = Thick peptidoglycan layer Gram-negative = Thin peptidoglycan layer with an outer membrane Lysogenic phage = Virus that integrates into bacterial DNA F+ cell = Bacteria that can donate DNA during conjugation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to bacterial reproduction with their explanations:

    <p>Cell wall = Rigid structure providing shape and protection Transcription and translation = Processes that occur simultaneously in bacteria Asexual reproduction = Method of reproduction resulting in identical offspring Nucleus absence = Characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of genetic material acquisition with their processes:

    <p>Transformation = Uptake of naked DNA by bacteria Transduction = DNA is transferred by a bacteriophage Conjugation = Plasmid transfer through a pilus Lateral gene transfer = Acquisition of genes from other bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following groups in the Kingdom Protista with their characteristics:

    <p>Protozoa = Heterotrophic and move with pseudopods or cilia Algae = Photosynthetic and includes <em>Euglena</em> Slime molds = Often placed in Fungi but related to protists Ciliophors = Example includes <em>Paramecium</em></p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of organisms in the Kingdom Protista with their mode of nutrition:

    <p>Protozoa = Heterotrophic Algae = Autotrophic Slime molds = Heterotrophic Phytoplankton = Autotrophic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the movements of the following protists with their type:

    <p>Amoebas = Move with pseudopods Ciliophors = Move with cilia Euglena = Move with flagellum Phytoplankton = Generally non-motile</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the examples to their respective categories within the Kingdom Protista:

    <p>Paramecium = Protozoa Euglena = Algae Phytoplankton = Algae Slime molds = Slime molds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics with the correct groups in the Kingdom Protista:

    <p>Heterotrophic = Protozoa Photosynthetic = Algae Related to fungi = Slime molds Moved by cilia = Ciliophors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following classes of fungi with their examples:

    <p>Zygomycetes = Bread mold Basidiomycetes = Mushrooms Ascomycetes = Sac fungi Chytridiomycetes = Chytrids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to fungi with their definitions:

    <p>Hyphae = Branching filament of fungi Mycelium = Collective mass of hyphae Saprophytic = Organism that feeds on decaying matter Parasitic = Organism that feeds on a host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following reproductive strategies in fungi with their descriptions:

    <p>Sexual reproduction = Involves the fusion of haploid adults Asexual reproduction = Involves spore formation Budding = A form of asexual reproduction in yeast Fragmentation = Individual breaks into pieces that grow into new fungi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of fungi with their primary nutritional strategy:

    <p>Heterotrophs = Organisms that obtain food from other sources Autotrophs = Organisms that produce their own food Saprophytic fungi = Fungi that decompose dead organic matter Parasitic fungi = Fungi that absorb nutrients from living hosts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following fungus characteristics with their corresponding features:

    <p>Eukaryotic = Cells with a nucleus Multicellular = Composed of multiple cells Septa = Divides hyphae in most fungi Spores = Reproductive units of fungi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following features with their corresponding types of angiosperms:

    <p>Monocotyledons = Leaves with parallel veins Dicotyledons = Net veined leaves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the structure of flowers with its function:

    <p>Ovary = Produces megaspores Anther = Produces microspores Stigma = Receives pollen Petals = Attracts pollinators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following examples with their respective classifications:

    <p>Wheat = Monocotyledons Maple = Dicotyledons Corn = Monocotyledons Potato = Dicotyledons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics with either monocotyledons or dicotyledons:

    <p>Scattered vascular bundles = Monocotyledons Vascular bundles arranged in a ring = Dicotyledons Flower parts in multiples of 4 or 5 = Dicotyledons Most are non-woody = Monocotyledons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following plant structures with their reproductive roles:

    <p>Pollen = Male gamete Ovule = Female gamete Stamen = Male reproductive part Pistil = Female reproductive part</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the phyla of Kingdom Animalia with their characteristics:

    <p>Porifera = Two layers of cells, have pores, sessile Cnidarians = Digestive sac sealed at one end, net nerves Platyhelminthes = Bilateral symmetry, three layers of cells Echinoderms = Radially symmetrical, water vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to Cnidarians with their descriptions:

    <p>Cnidoblasts = Specialized cells containing stinging cells Nematocysts = Stinging cells inside cnidoblasts Ectoderm = Outer layer of Cnidarians Endoderm = Inner layer of Cnidarians</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following organisms with their respective phyla:

    <p>Sponges = Porifera Jellyfish = Cnidarians Flat worms = Platyhelminthes Sea stars = Echinoderms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics to their respective phyla:

    <p>Porifera = No true tissues, filter feeders Cnidarians = Radial symmetry, live in aquatic environments Platyhelminthes = Flat-bodied, can be parasitic Nematodes = Unsegmented, cylindrical worms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following features with the corresponding phyla:

    <p>Porifera = Pores for water flow Cnidarians = Stinging tentacles for prey capture Platyhelminthes = Gastrovascular cavity for digestion Annelids = Segmented body plan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following animal phyla with their characteristics:

    <p>Annelida = Possess coelom and well-defined systems Mollusca = Soft-bodied with mantles and gills Arthropoda = Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton Echinodermata = Radial symmetry and water vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the classes of Mollusca with their examples:

    <p>Class Gastropoda = Slugs and snails Class Cephalopoda = Octopus and squid Class Bivalvia = Clams and oysters Class Polyplacophora = Chitons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of Arthropods with their features:

    <p>Insects = Three pairs of legs and tracheal tubes Arachnids = Four pairs of legs and book lungs Crustaceans = Segmented body with gills Myriapods = Many legs and elongated bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics with their respective animal phyla:

    <p>Annelida = Segmented body and true body cavities Mollusca = Breathe using gills and have chambered hearts Arthropoda = Open circulatory system and chitinous exoskeleton Cnidaria = Radial symmetry and stinging cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their definitions:

    <p>Coelom = True body cavity in the mesoderm Mantle = Tissue that secretes a shell Chitin = Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton Blood sinus = Open spaces in the circulatory system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following animal phyla with their characteristics:

    <p>Annelida = Possess coelom and well-defined systems Mollusca = Soft-bodied with mantles and gills Arthropoda = Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton Echinodermata = Radial symmetry and water vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following classes of Mollusca with their examples:

    <p>Class Gastropoda = Slugs and snails Class Cephalopoda = Octopus and squid Class Bivalvia = Clams and oysters Class Polyplacophora = Chitons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following groups within Arthropoda with their characteristics:

    <p>Insects = Three pairs of legs and spiracles Arachnids = Four pairs of legs and book lungs Crustaceans = Segmented body with variable appendages Myriapods = Long segmented body with many legs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following features with the respective animal phyla:

    <p>Annelida = Well-defined nervous and circulatory systems Mollusca = Mantles that secrete calcium carbonate Arthropoda = Open circulatory system with sinuses Cnidaria = Radial symmetry and cnidocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following descriptions with their corresponding Arthropod classes:

    <p>Insects = Exhibit complete metamorphosis and have antennae Arachnids = Include spiders and scorpions with book lungs Crustaceans = Aquatic, with gills and usually a carapace Myriapods = Terrestrial with many legs divided into segments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of selection with its description:

    <p>Stabilizing = Eliminates individuals with extreme or unusual traits Directional = Favors traits at one extreme of a range Disruptive = Selects against common traits, favoring extremes Artificial = Carried out by humans for desirable traits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of selection with an example:

    <p>Stabilizing = Prevents extreme wing sizes in birds Directional = Insecticide resistance in pests Disruptive = Tall weeds in fields versus short weeds on lawns Sexual = Males displaying brighter colors to attract females</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the selection type with its specific effect:

    <p>Sexual = Leads to sexual dimorphism Disruptive = Common traits decline in frequency Directional = One phenotype becomes more common Artificial = Humans influence breeding outcomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of selection with its outcome:

    <p>Stabilizing = Increased average trait value Directional = Shift in mean trait value Disruptive = Creation of two distinct phenotypes Sexual = Enhanced reproductive success of certain traits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the selection type with its characteristic:

    <p>Stabilizing = Reduces variance in a trait's expression Directional = Selects against one extreme phenotype Disruptive = Promotes diversity within a population Artificial = Requires human intervention for selection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the selection type with its predominant environment:

    <p>Stabilizing = Stable environments with little change Directional = Changing environments favoring one extreme Disruptive = Variable environments with multiple niches Sexual = Populations with mate choice dynamics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following concepts with their descriptions related to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

    <p>Allele Frequencies = Remain constant from generation to generation Natural Selection = All traits are selectively neutral Genetic Drift = Population is large Gene Flow = Population isolated from other populations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following conditions to their effects on a population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

    <p>No Mutations = Prevents new alleles from being introduced Large Population = Minimizes impact of genetic drift No Migration = Keeps allele frequencies stable No Natural Selection = Ensures all traits are neutral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the symbols in the Hardy-Weinberg equation to their meanings:

    <p>p = Frequency of dominant allele q = Frequency of recessive allele p^2 = Frequency of homozygous dominant genotype q^2 = Frequency of homozygous recessive genotype</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following factors to their role in evolution and population genetics:

    <p>Mutations = Source of genetic variation Natural Selection = Adaptation to environment Migration = Movement of alleles between populations Genetic Drift = Random changes in allele frequencies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following statements with their implications regarding disruption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

    <p>Introduction of new alleles = Caused by mutations Changes in allele frequencies = Indicates natural selection or genetic drift Population structure changes = Results in gene flow Small population size = Enhances effects of genetic drift</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the origin of life theories or phenomena with their descriptions:

    <p>Heterotroph Theory = First cells were unable to produce their own food Primordial Soup = The mixture of organic molecules in early Earth's oceans Eukaryotic Origin = Originated from a symbiotic relationship among prokaryotes Oxygenation Event = Formation of ozone layer from photosynthetic activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of early prokaryotes with their characteristics:

    <p>Heterotrophic Prokaryotes = Obtained energy by consuming organic substances Autotrophic Prokaryotes = Produced their own food through photosynthesis Prototobionts = Precursors to early cellular life Proteinoids = Abiotically produced polypeptides formed through dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the significant steps in chemical evolution with their outcomes:

    <p>Formation of Primordial Soup = Inorganic molecules converted to organic Rise of Autotrophs = Enabled the oxygenation of the atmosphere Endosymbiotic Theory = Explains the origin of eukaryotic cells Abiotic Chemical Evolution Ends = Marked by the accumulation of atmospheric oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of cellular processes with their definitions:

    <p>Dehydration Condensation = Process for synthesizing polymers from monomers Adaptive Radiation = Divergent evolution resulting in multiple species from a common ancestor Chemical Evolution = Formation of complex molecules from simpler ones Photosynthesis = Process by which autotrophs convert light energy into chemical energy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following stages in the origin of life with their corresponding products:

    <p>Complex Molecule Synthesis = Formation of amino acids and organic compounds Isolation into Protobionts = Concentration of organic molecules into early cell-like structures Development of Eukaryotes = Secured through endosymbiotic associations Formation of Ozone Layer = Resulting from the interaction of UV light with oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Système Endomembranaire

    • Comprend : enveloppe nucléaire, réticulum endoplasmique (RE), appareil de Golgi, lysosomes, vacuoles, vésicules, peroxisomes, et membrane cellulaire.
    • N'inclut pas : mitochondries et chloroplastes.

    Centrioles

    • Impliqués dans l'organisation du fuseau lors de la division cellulaire.
    • Pas de membrane.

    Cytosquelette

    • Composé de trois types de filaments :
      • Microtubules : faits de tubuline, soutiennent les activités cellulaires.
      • Filaments intermédiaires : maintiennent la forme de la cellule.
      • Microfilaments : faits d'actine, impliqués dans la motilité, présents dans les cellules musculaires et les phagocytes.

    Flagelles et Cils

    • Structure en 9+2 : neuf paires de microtubules entourant une paire de microtubules.

    Vacuole centrale

    • Occupe la majeure partie de l’intérieur de certaines plantes.
    • Exerce une pression (turgescence) sur les parois cellulaires pour maintenir la rigidité.
    • Stocke des nutriments et remplace les lysosomes dans les cellules animales.

    Murs cellulaires

    • Présents dans les plantes, les champignons, les protistes et les bactéries.
    • Plantes : en cellulose.
    • Champignons : en chitine (groupe hydroxyle de cellulose remplacé par l’azote).

    Jonctions communicantes

    • Jonctions de type gap : permettent aux cellules animales d'échanger des ions et petites molécules sans mélange cytoplasmique.
    • Plasmodesmes : canaux entre cellules végétales, contiennent un tube de réticulum endoplasmique (desmotubule).

    Différences entre cellules végétales et animales

    • Cellules végétales possèdent des murs cellulaires, chloroplastes et vacuoles centrales.
    • Cellules animales ont des lysosomes, centrioles, et cholestérol.

    Modes de transport

    • Transport passif :
      • Diffusion simple : transport d'une concentration élevée vers une concentration basse.
      • Osmose : diffusion de l'eau à travers une membrane.
      • Dialyse : diffusion de solutés.
      • Plasmolyse : mouvement d'eau hors d'une cellule provoquant son effondrement.
      • Diffusion facilitée : solutés ou eau à travers une protéine de canal.
      • Échange contre-courant : diffusion entre deux zones avec flux opposé.

    Stratégies de reproduction marine

    • Ovipare : fécondation interne, ponte d'œufs.
    • Vivipare : fécondation interne, naissance vivante.
    • Ovovivipare : fécondation interne, les œufs se développent à l'intérieur de la mère.

    Cycle cellulaire

    • Phase S : duplication du génome.
    • Phases G1 et G2 : phases d'intervalles.

    Mitose

    • Division cellulaire aboutissant à deux cellules identiques (2N).
    • Phases de la mitose :
      • Prophase : condensation de la chromatine.
      • Métaphase : alignement des chromosomes.
      • Anaphase : séparation des chromatides sœurs.
      • Télophase : formation de nouvelles membranes nucléaires.

    Méiose

    • Réduction du nombre chromosomique de 2N à N, se produit dans les cellules sexuelles.
    • Premier division meiotique :
      • Prophase I : formation de tétrades et crossing-over.
      • Métaphase I : alignement des tétrades.
      • Anaphase I : séparation des paires homologues.
      • Télophase I : formation de deux cellules filles haploïdes.

    Anomalies chromosomiques

    • Inversion : segment chromosomique tourné de 180°.
    • Translocation : échange de segments entre chromosomes non homologues.
    • Non-disjonction : échec dans la séparation des chromosomes homologues ou chromatides sœurs.
    • Syndromes : Turner (femelle stérile, monosomie) et Klinefelter (XXY).

    Production d'ATP eucaryote

    • Glycolyse : création de 36 ATP à partir d'une molécule de glucose.
    • Cycle de l’acide citrique : production complémentaire d’ATP à partir de NADH et FADH2.

    Composants des chloroplastes

    • Stroma : site du cycle Calvin (réactions sombres).
    • Thylakoïdes : membranes contenant les complexes protéiques de photosynthèse.
    • Granum : empilement de thylakoïdes.

    Photosynthèse

    • Transformation du CO2 en glucides et libération d'O2 à partir de l'eau.
    • Le cycle de Calvin utilise ATP et NADPH pour réduire le CO2.

    Respirations photo

    • Fixation de l'O2 par rubisco, conduisant à la photorespiration qui génère des déchets à éliminer par les peroxysomes.

    Adaptations des feuilles

    • Cutanisation : réduction de la transpiration et conservation de l'eau.
    • Tissu palissadique : cellules contenant des chloroplastes maximisant la surface.
    • Contrôle des stomates par les cellules garde.

    Cycle de l’azote

    • Bactéries nitrifiantes oxydent l’ammoniaque et les nitrites pour produire des nitrates, utilisés par les plantes pour synthétiser des protéines.

    Squelette des vertébrés

    • Composé d'un endosquelette comprenant cartilage et os.
    • Cartilage : tissu conjonctif souple et flexible.
    • Os : tissu conjonctif dur, dense (os compact) et léger (os spongieux).

    Reproduction asexuée chez les plantes

    • Formation de spores par alternance de générations.
    • Propagation végétative par tissus indifférenciés (méristèmes).

    Cycle menstruel

    • Quatre phases : folliculaire, ovulation, lutéale, menstruation.
    • FSH et LH régulent le développement des follicules et la sécrétion d'hormones.### Développement embryonnaire
    • Allantoïs : Sac provenant de l'archentéron, encercle l'embryon, forme la couche sous le chorion, donne naissance au cordon ombilical et à la vessie urinaire chez l'adulte.
    • Amnios : Enveloppe la cavité amniotique, protège l'embryon en développement.
    • Vésicule vitelline : Présente chez les oiseaux et reptiles pour digérer le vitellus; absente chez les mammifères placentaires.

    Développements embryonnaires spécifiques

    • Grenouilles : La présence de la croissante grise dans chaque cellule est cruciale pour le développement normal. Yolk extensif et plug vitellin près du bord dorsal.
    • Oiseaux : La clivage se produit dans un disque aplati (blastodisc), avec une dépression primitive qui donne un blastopore allongé.
    • Humains : Stade de blastocyste avec trophoblaste et masse cellulaire interne, impliqué dans l'implantation et la production de HCG.

    Circulation chez les invertébrés

    • Protozoaires : Utilisent la diffusion simple pour l'échange gazeux.
    • Cnidaires : Structure à deux couches cellulaires, contact direct avec l'environnement.
    • Arthropodes : Système circulatoire ouvert (hémolymphe) et système fermé chez les annélides.

    Système cardiovasculaire

    • Hémoglobine : Affinité plus forte pour le CO que la myoglobine.
    • Circulation sanguine : Ductus venosus, foramen ovale et ductus arteriosus permettent de contourner certaines parties du cœur.
    • Débit cardiaque (DC) : Calculé par le volume d'éjection x fréquence cardiaque.

    Mécanismes de défense non spécifiques

    • Phagocytes : Incluent les neutrophiles et monocytes pour éliminer les agents pathogènes.
    • Réponse inflammatoire : Histamine provoque la vasodilatation, attirant davantage de WBC.
    • Compléments : Protéines qui soutiennent l'activité des phagocytes.

    Structure des plantes

    • Xylème : Conduit l'eau et les minéraux vers le haut, composé de trachéides et d'éléments de vaisseaux.
    • Phloème : Conduit les sucres vers le bas, composé d'éléments de tube crible.
    • Cambium : Meristème qui produit le xylème et le phloème.

    Glande surrénale

    • Cortex surrénalien : Sécrète glucocorticoïdes (cortisol) et minéralocorticoïdes (aldostérone).
    • Médullaire surrénale : Produces épinéphrine et norépinephrine pour la réponse « combat ou fuite ».

    Hormones gastro-intestinales

    • Gastrine : Stimule sécrétion d'HCl en réponse à la nourriture.
    • Sécrétine : Neutralise l'acidité du chyme par sécrétion de bicarbonate.
    • Cholecystokinine : Stimule contraction de la vésicule biliaire en réponse aux graisses.

    Hormones de plante

    • Auxines : Contrôlent la phototropisme et la géotropisme, inhibent la croissance des bourgeons latéraux.
    • Gibbérellines : Stimulent l'allongement rapide des tiges.
    • Éthylène : Stimule la maturation des fruits.

    Transmission synaptique

    • Électrique : Moins commun, implique les jonctions gap.
    • Chimique : Nécessite l'ouverture des canaux Ca2+, libération de neurotransmetteurs, et interaction avec les récepteurs postsynaptiques.

    Respiration humaine

    • Alvéoles : Site d'échange gazeux entre le système circulatoire et les poumons.
    • Flux air : Inspirer par contraction diaphragmatique, expirer passivement.
    • Effet Bohr : Diminution de l'affinité de l'hémoglobine pour O2 en conditions de faible pH.

    Structure du cerveau

    • Cortex cérébral : Traite les entrées sensorielles, crucial pour la mémoire.
    • Thalamus : Relay entre la moelle épinière et le cortex cérébral.
    • Hindbrain : Comprend le cervelet, le pont et le bulbe rachidien pour la régulation des fonctions vitales.

    Catabolisme du glucose

    • Glycolyse : Décomposition du glucose en pyruvate, produisant de l'ATP et du NADH.
    • Respiration cellulaire : Peut produire 36-38 ATP en utilisant O₂ comme accepteur final.

    Composants des chloroplastes

    • Stroma : Site de la réaction de Calvin.
    • Thylakoïdes : Contienen les complexes protéiques pour la photosynthèse.
    • Photosynthèse : Réduction de CO2 pour former des glucides et libération d'O2.

    Diversité végétale

    • Angiospermes : Plantes à fleurs, graines couvertes.
    • Monocotylédones : Feuilles à nervures parallèles.
    • Dicotylédones : Feuilles nettes avec groupes vasculaires concentrés.

    Règne Animalia

    • Multicellulaires, hétérotrophes, mobilité : Comprend des phylums variés comme les Porifères, Cnidaires et Arthropodes.
    • Granularité de classification : Des organismes simples à ceux avec des systèmes définis comme les Annelides et mollusques.

    Types de sélection naturelle

    • Stabilisateur : Élimine les traits extrêmes.
    • Directionnelle : Favorise un trait extrême, drainage de la diversité.### Sélection Naturelle et Ses Types
    • Sélection Disruptive (diversification) : Favorise les traits extrêmes; exclusion des traits communs. Exemples : courtes herbes sur les pelouses vs grandes herbes dans les champs.
    • Sélection Sexuelle : Différences de reproduction chez les mâles et parfois les femelles; les traits favorables augmentent la fréquence de reproduction des mâles; les femelles choisissent des mâles de qualité pour améliorer la progéniture.
    • Sélection Artificielle : Interventions humaines pour cultiver ou élever des animaux présentant des traits désirables.

    Système Musculaire

    • Composition du système musculaire : fibres contractiles maintenues par le tissu conjonctif.
    • Muscle Squelettique : Muscle strié responsable des mouvements volontaires; fibres multinucléées.
      • Myofibrilles : Filaments organisés en sarcomères.
      • Sarcoplasmic Reticulum : Stocke Ca²⁺, entoure les myofibrilles.
      • Sarcoplasm : Cytoplasme du muscle.
      • Sarcolemma : Membrane cellulaire capable de propager les potentiels d'action.

    Sarcomère

    • Composé de filaments fins (actine) et de filaments épais (myosine).
    • Ligne Z : Limite d'un sarcomère, ancre les filaments fins.
    • Zone H : Contient uniquement des filaments épais.
    • A Bande : Zone d'interaction entre l'actine et la myosine durant la contraction.

    Types de Réponse Musculaire

    • Contraction Simple : Réaction d'une seule fibre musculaire à un stimulus bref.
    • Somme et Tétanos : Contraction de plusieurs fibres, devenant plus fortes; tétanos = contractions continues.
    • Tonus : État de contraction partielle, jamais complètement relâché.

    Équilibre Génétique (Équation de Hardy Weinberg)

    • Les fréquences allélique demeurent constantes dans une population; aucune évolution.
    • Conditions : traits dans la population sont neutres, aucune mutation, population isolée, grande taille, pas de migration nette.

    Digestion

    Estomac

    • Sécrète le jus gastrique ; stockage et mélange des aliments.
    • Dégradation chimique : Pepsine activée par HCl; ulcères peptiques dus à la défaillance de la muqueuse.
    • Libération contrôlée dans l'intestin grêle via le sphincter pylorique.

    Intestin Grêle

    • Débute avec le duodénum qui continue la dégradation des nutriments; valves séparent l'intestin grêle du gros intestin.
    • Origine des Enzymes : Intestin grêle produit des enzymes; le pancréas sécrète des enzymes digestives en milieu alcalin.

    Gros Intestin

    • Réabsorption de l'eau et des sels pour former les selles; stockage des déchets dans le rectum.
    • Bactéries principales sources de vitamine K.

    Hormones Digestives

    • Gastrine : Stimule la production de jus gastrique.
    • Sécrétine : Stimule le pancréas pour produire du bicarbonate.
    • Cholecystokinine : Libération de bile par la vésicule biliaire.

    Digestion chez les Plantes et les Champignons

    • Digestion Intracellulaire : Dégradation enzymatique à l'intérieur des cellules.
    • Digestion Extracellulaire : Absorption des nutriments de l'environnement; exemple : Piège de la vénus attrape-mouches.

    Cellules du Système Digestif

    • Estomac : Production de mucus par les cellules calciformes; sécrétion de HCl et pepsine par les cellules principales.
    • Intestin Grêle : Absorption via villosités; sécrétion de diverses enzymes pour digérer différents nutriments.

    Niveaux d'Organisation Biologique

    • Organisme, Population, Communauté, Écosystème, Biosphère.

    Biomes Terrestres

    • Désert : Pluviométrie minimale, petite végétation.
    • Forêt Tempérée Décidue : Hivers froids, étés chauds, arbres perdant leurs feuilles.
    • Toundra : Zone gelée, courte saison de croissance.

    Classification des Organismes

    • Cinq royaumes : Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia.
    • Royaume Protiste : Eucaryotes unicellulaires; exemple : protozoaires, algues.
    • Royaume Fungi : Eucaryotes multicellulaires, hétérotrophes; reproduction par spores ou bourgeonnement.

    Théorie de l'Hétérotrophie

    • Premières cellules hétérotrophes, incapables de produire leur propre nourriture.
    • Formation de l'atmosphère primitive sans oxygène; synthèse de molécules complexes.

    Origine des Eucaryotes

    • Théorie endosymbiotique : origine des cellules eucaryotes par l'association symbiotique de prokaryotes.

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    Testez vos connaissances sur le système endomembranaire. Ce quiz couvre les différents composants tels que l'enveloppe nucléaire, l'ER, le Golgi et bien d'autres. Vérifiez ce que vous savez sur ces structures et leur importance dans la cellule.

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