Biology
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following organelles is NOT part of the endomembrane system?

  • Golgi apparatus
  • Mitochondria (correct)
  • Lysosomes
  • Nuclear envelope

    • What do the ER and Golgi apparatus contribute to in the endomembrane system?

  • Energy production
  • Protein processing and transport (correct)
  • Photosynthesis
  • Cellular respiration

    • Which of the following is a component of the endomembrane system?

  • Cytoskeleton
  • Chloroplast
  • Mitochondria
  • Peroxisome (correct)

    • Which statement is TRUE regarding the endomembrane system?

    <p>It facilitates transport within the cell.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do lysosomes function within the endomembrane system?

    <p>They break down waste materials.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of centrioles during cell division?

    <p>Spindle organization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Centrioles are membrane-bound organelles.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following fibers is primarily responsible for cellular motility?

    <p>Microfilaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The central vacuole is important for maintaining cell rigidity in animal cells.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following structures with their descriptions:

    <p>Centrioles = Give rise to microtubules for the spindle Basal Body = Organizes the development of flagella and cilia Intermediate filaments = Maintain the shape of the cell Central Vacuole = Stores nutrients and maintains pressure on cell walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of gap junctions in animal cells?

    <p>To allow exchange of ions and small molecules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What surrounds the desmotubule in plasmodesmata?

    <p>Cytoplasm and plasma membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes connexins?

    <p>Proteins that make up gap junctions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the exchange of materials in gap junctions?

    <p>It permits exchange of ions and small molecules without cytoplasmic mixing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structural component primarily makes up plasmodesmata?

    <p>A narrow tube of endoplasmic reticulum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structures are present in plant cells but absent in animal cells?

    <p>Chloroplasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic feature of animal cells?

    <p>Cholesterol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do plant cells possess that helps maintain turgidity and storage?

    <p>Central vacuoles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organelle is predominantly found in animal cells but not in plant cells?

    <p>Centrioles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following organelles is unique to plant cells?

    <p>Chloroplasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes simple diffusion?

    <p>High to low concentration movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process specifically involves the diffusion of water across a membrane?

    <p>Osmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes facilitated diffusion?

    <p>Involves channel proteins for solute transport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during plasmolysis?

    <p>Movement of water out causing cell collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Countercurrent exchange refers to what mechanism?

    <p>Movement of substances between regions moving in opposite directions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes ovoviviparous reproduction in marine species?

    <p>Eggs develop inside the mother, resulting in live birth.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?

    <p>Anaphase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of the cell cycle is primarily responsible for the replication of the genome?

    <p>S Phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true regarding meiosis compared to mitosis?

    <p>Meiosis produces cells with half the chromosome number.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do cytokinesis processes differ between animal and plant cells?

    <p>Animal cells pinch their membrane while plant cells develop a cell plate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of the first meiotic division do homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material?

    <p>Prophase I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the tetrads during Metaphase I of meiosis?

    <p>Tetrads align at the metaphase plate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Anaphase I of meiosis is true?

    <p>Homologous pairs are pulled to opposite poles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature distinguishes the second division of meiosis from mitosis?

    <p>Only one gamete becomes functional in females</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of Telophase I in meiosis?

    <p>Formation of two haploid daughter cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characterized by the turning of a chromosomal segment 180°?

    <p>Inversion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs when chromosomes fail to separate during the first or second meiotic division?

    <p>Nondisjunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a sterile female who is lacking an X chromosome?

    <p>Turner syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the chromosomal composition of an individual with Klinefelter syndrome?

    <p>47, XXY</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic material is considered an exception to the universality of the genetic code?

    <p>mitochondrial DNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which generation is dominant in angiosperms?

    <p>Diploid sporophyte</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of asexual reproduction involves underground stems with buds?

    <p>Tubers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During fertilization in angiosperms, what does one sperm nucleus combine with to create the endosperm?

    <p>Two polar nuclei</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the flower is primarily responsible for producing haploid spores that develop into pollen?

    <p>Stamen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of auxins in artificial vegetative propagation?

    <p>To accelerate root growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes stems that run above ground and produce new plants at various nodes?

    <p>Runners</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure develops from the outer covering of the ovule?

    <p>Seed Coat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of vegetative propagation involves bending a stem to allow it to root in contact with soil?

    <p>Layering</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the diploid sporophyte generation give rise to in the process of spore formation?

    <p>Haploid spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the flower is responsible for catching pollen during fertilization?

    <p>Stigma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the menstrual cycle phase with its key event:

    <p>Follicular = FSH promotes development of follicle Ovulation = Mature follicle bursts releasing ovum Luteal = Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone Menstruation = Endometrium sloughs off if no fertilization occurs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the hormone to its function in the female reproductive system:

    <p>Estrogen = Thickens the endometrium Progesterone = Maintains the endometrial wall FSH = Promotes development of follicles LH = Triggers ovulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the structure with its connection in the female reproductive system:

    <p>Fallopian tube = Opens to the uterus Cervix = Connects with vaginal canal Uterus = Houses developing fetus Vaginal canal = Birth canal during delivery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the event during the menstrual cycle with its corresponding hormone action:

    <p>Follicular phase = Estrogen secretion increases Ovulation phase = LH surge occurs Luteal phase = Progesterone secretion peaks Menstruation phase = Drop in estrogen and progesterone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the outcome of fertilization with its consequence:

    <p>Ovum fertilized = Placenta produces hCG Ovum not fertilized = Corpus luteum atrophies hCG presence = Maintained levels of estrogen and progesterone Endometrium degradation = Menstruation begins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the hormone with its specific role in the menstrual cycle:

    <p>Estrogen = Stimulates endometrial thickening Progesterone = Supports endometrium for implantation FSH = Initiates the follicular phase LH = Triggers ovulation and corpus luteum formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following genetic terms with their definitions:

    <p>Mutations = Changes in DNA that can lead to tumors or be inherited Aneuploidy = An abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell Exons = Nucleotide sequences that are retained in mRNA Redundancy/Degeneracy = Multiple codons coding for the same amino acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of mutations to their examples:

    <p>Insertion = Addition of one or more nucleotide bases Deletion = Loss of one or more nucleotide bases Substitution = Replacement of one base with another Sickle-cell anemia = Example of a disease caused by a mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the processes of protein synthesis with their descriptions:

    <p>Replication = DNA is copied to create new DNA strands Transcription = DNA is converted into RNA Translation = RNA is decoded to produce proteins mRNA = Brings the genetic code from DNA to ribosomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the genetic conditions with their chromosome patterns:

    <p>Down Syndrome = Trisomy 21 Turner Syndrome = XO Klinefelter Syndrome = XXY Aneuploidy = Condition with extra or missing chromosomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the nitrogenous bases with their classifications:

    <p>Cytosine = Pyrimidine Uracil = Pyrimidine Adenine = Purine Guanine = Purine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs when an inducer binds to a repressor in an inducible system?

    <p>Structural genes are transcribed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a lysogenic cycle, what happens to the phage DNA?

    <p>It integrates into the host cell's genome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a repressible system in genetic transcription?

    <p>Transcription is constant until inhibited</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of techoic acids in bacteria?

    <p>Attachment and recognition by bacterial viruses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about virulent bacteriophages is true?

    <p>They produce multiple progeny before lysing the host cell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs to the size of cells during cleavage in embryonic development?

    <p>Each resulting cell contains less cytoplasm than the original zygote</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the animal and vegetal poles is true?

    <p>Vegetal pole divides very slowly compared to animal pole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes indeterminate cleavage from determinate cleavage?

    <p>Determinate cleavage is associated with limited developmental programs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cleavage is characterized by cells arranged in a spiral manner?

    <p>Spiral cleavage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following organisms typically exhibits radial cleavage?

    <p>Sea cucumbers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During early cleavage, how do polar cleavages differ from equatorial cleavages?

    <p>Polar cleavages stretch from pole to pole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the extraembryonic membranes formed from the vegetal pole during embryonic development?

    <p>To protect and nourish the embryo</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In deuterostomes, what is the fate of the blastopore during development?

    <p>It becomes the anus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following structures is derived from the ectoderm?

    <p>Nervous system components.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tissue type is NOT derived from the mesoderm layer?

    <p>Epithelial lining of the respiratory system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary function does the endoderm serve during embryonic development?

    <p>Creation of the lining for various organs like the digestive system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes protostome cleavage from deuterostome cleavage?

    <p>Spiral cleavage vs. radial cleavage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the chorion in mammals?

    <p>Formation of the placenta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial structure does the allantois bud off from during development?

    <p>Archenteron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of the yolk sac in placental mammals?

    <p>It delivers nutrients via the umbilical cord.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which membrane is responsible for cushioning the developing embryo?

    <p>Amnion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the allantois ultimately develop into in adults?

    <p>Urinary bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In birds and reptiles, what is the main function of the yolk sac membrane?

    <p>Digestion of yolk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of frog embryonic development related to the gray crescent?

    <p>It allows each cell to develop into a normal frog only if it contains a portion of the gray crescent.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During bird embryonic development, what structure is formed due to the presence of a large yolk?

    <p>Blastodisc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in human embryonic development is responsible for implantation?

    <p>Trophoblast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) during the early stages of embryonic development?

    <p>To maintain progesterone production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In comparison to sea urchins and frogs, what distinguishes the gastrulation process in birds?

    <p>It features an elongated blastopore along the primitive streak.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During human embryonic development, what does the inner cell mass of the blastocyst develop into?

    <p>Embryonic disc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant developmental characteristic is observed in mammalian embryos compared to other animals?

    <p>Formation of a blastocyst containing an outer trophoblast.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which embryonic structure is analogous to the blastodisc found in birds and reptiles?

    <p>Embryonic disc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What developmental aspect differentiates the gastrulation in frogs compared to that in birds?

    <p>Circular vs. elongated blastopore.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What circulatory system do arthropods possess?

    <p>Open circulatory system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does gas exchange occur in protozoans?

    <p>Via simple diffusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of the closed circulatory system found in annelids?

    <p>Blood is confined within vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure in arthropods allows hemolymph to return to the heart?

    <p>Ostia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the body organization of cnidarians?

    <p>Two cell thick body walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct relationship between cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate?

    <p>Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which functional feature of intercalated disks is important for cardiac muscle?

    <p>They improve electrical impulse transmission between cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the ductus venosus in fetal circulation?

    <p>It allows blood to bypass the liver.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does myoglobin differ from hemoglobin in function?

    <p>Myoglobin stores O2 in muscle, whereas hemoglobin transports O2 in blood.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes stroke volume?

    <p>Stroke volume measures the amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome when both sodium and calcium channels remain open in cardiac muscle?

    <p>The depolarization phase is prolonged.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the foramen ovale play in fetal circulation?

    <p>It allows blood to flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of white blood cells are primarily involved in the phagocytic process to engulf foreign cells?

    <p>Neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of interferons in the immune response?

    <p>Stimulate neighboring cells to produce protective proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is triggered by the secretion of histamine during an inflammatory response?

    <p>Vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the complement system play in the immune response?

    <p>Directly destroying pathogens by lysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which event occurs during an inflammatory response when skin is damaged and pathogens enter the body?

    <p>Release of chemokines by damaged cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily supports the upward movement of water in xylem?

    <p>Transpirational pull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about phloem is true?

    <p>Sieve-tube elements in phloem are living at maturity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cells do cambium give rise to?

    <p>Xylem and phloem cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of companion cells in phloem?

    <p>Support sieve-tube elements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do vessel elements differ from tracheids in the xylem?

    <p>Water moves through perforations in vessel elements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process results in the upward movement of water caused by evaporation from leaves?

    <p>Transpirational pull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would likely happen if a strip of bark is removed around a tree trunk?

    <p>Phloem connections will be severed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do tracheids primarily enable in the xylem?

    <p>Mechanical support</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of root hairs in plants?

    <p>To increase surface area for absorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the woody stem is responsible for lateral growth?

    <p>Cambium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer is located just beneath the epidermis in a woody stem?

    <p>Cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs in the zone of elongation in plants?

    <p>Cells elongate after division</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in a plant is mainly responsible for vertical growth?

    <p>Apical meristem</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do glucocorticoids play in the body?

    <p>Raise blood glucose levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone is responsible for converting glycogen into glucose in the body?

    <p>Glucagon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do mineralocorticoids have on the body's fluid balance?

    <p>Increases sodium reabsorption and causes passive water reabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of the adrenal medulla?

    <p>Regulation of sodium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone has a minor effect due to its primary source being the testes?

    <p>Cortical sex hormones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of gastrin in the gastrointestinal system?

    <p>Stimulates secretion of HCl</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone is released in response to acidic food entering the small intestine?

    <p>Secretin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does cholecystokinin play in digestion?

    <p>Causes contraction of the gall-bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the secretion of alkaline bicarbonate in the small intestine?

    <p>Acidic food entering the intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hormones is specifically associated with fat digestion?

    <p>Cholecystokinin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do auxins have on lateral buds?

    <p>They inhibit the development of lateral buds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which plant hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating rapid stem elongation?

    <p>Gibberellins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do anti-auxins function in relation to auxins?

    <p>They block the activity of auxins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do inhibitors play in plant growth?

    <p>They block cell division and maintain dormancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hormones is involved in fruit ripening and aging?

    <p>Ethylene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when Na+ gates open on the postsynaptic membrane?

    <p>The membrane is depolarized, creating an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chemical transmission across synapses is more common than electrical transmission.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Ca2+ ions in synaptic transmission?

    <p>Ca2+ ions facilitate the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vessels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The condition resulting from the opening of K+ gates in the postsynaptic membrane is known as ___.

    <p>inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their descriptions:

    <p>EPSP = Excitatory postsynaptic potential IPSP = Inhibitory postsynaptic potential Neurotransmitter = Chemical messengers that transmit signals across synapses Synaptic cleft = The space between presynaptic and postsynaptic cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which neurotransmitter is primarily secreted at neuromuscular junctions?

    <p>Acetylcholine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is an excitatory neurotransmitter.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name one function of dopamine in the central nervous system.

    <p>Regulating mood and motivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    ______________ is a neurotransmitter associated with the sympathetic nervous system.

    <p>Epinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the neurotransmitter with its respective characteristic:

    <p>Acetylcholine = Involved in muscle contraction/relaxation Serotonin = Regulates mood and emotional state GABA = Inhibitory neurotransmitter Dopamine = Affects reward and pleasure centers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing sensory input and is important for memory and creative thought?

    <p>Cerebral Cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in the hindbrain is crucial for balance and coordination of rapid movements?

    <p>Cerebellum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the hypothalamus within the forebrain?

    <p>Managing visceral functions like hunger and thirst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the midbrain primarily serve as a center for?

    <p>Motor control and visual/auditory impulse relay</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following structures is NOT part of the hindbrain?

    <p>Thalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing sensory input and is crucial for memory and creative thought?

    <p>Cerebral Cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the hypothalamus?

    <p>Maintaining visceral functions like temperature and thirst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in the hindbrain is specifically associated with the timing of rapid movements?

    <p>Cerebellum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component serves as a relay center for visual and auditory impulses within the brain?

    <p>Midbrain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The medulla oblongata is primarily responsible for which of the following functions?

    <p>Breathing and heart rate regulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary outcome of glycolysis?

    <p>Produces 2 pyruvate molecules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cellular respiration, what is the role of oxygen?

    <p>Acts as a final electron acceptor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step in glycolysis is known as the rate determining step?

    <p>Consumption of ATP by phosphofructokinase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of fermentation in glucose catabolism?

    <p>Regenerates NAD+ under anaerobic conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is produced during one turn of the citric acid cycle?

    <p>4 CO₂, 6 NADH, and 2 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does the electron transport chain (ETC) occur within the cell?

    <p>Inner mitochondrial membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following processes of ATP production in eukaryotes with their corresponding ATP outputs:

    <p>Glycolysis = 6 ATP PDC = 6 ATP CAC = 24 ATP Total ATP production = 36 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of glycolysis with their respective contributions to ATP production:

    <p>2 ATP invested = -2 ATP 4 ATP generated = +4 ATP 2 NADH = +4 ATP Net gain from glycolysis = 6 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of the citric acid cycle (CAC) to their ATP contributions:

    <p>6 NADH = +18 ATP 2 FADH2 = +4 ATP 2 GTP = +2 ATP Total ATP from CAC = 24 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match each part of aerobic respiration with its type of energy carrier generated:

    <p>Glycolysis = ATP and NADH PDC = NADH CAC = NADH and FADH2 Total from all processes = 36 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following stages of cellular respiration with their respective energy investment or extraction:

    <p>Glycolysis = Investment of 2 ATP PDC = Extraction of 6 ATP through NADH CAC = Extraction of 24 ATP Overall process = Total of 36 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following parts of the mitochondria with their functions:

    <p>Intermembrane space = Accumulation of H+ ions Inner membrane = Where oxidative phosphorylation occurs Matrix = Site of the Krebs cycle ATP synthase = Phosphorylates ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following energy sources with their usage order when glucose is low:

    <p>Glycogen = Other carbs (stored glucose) Fat = Triglycerides hydrolyzed to fatty acids Protein = Converted to glucose or intermediates None = Used only when carbs and fats are gone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the metabolic cycle with its description:

    <p>Cori cycle = Converts lactic acid to pyruvate Glyoxylate cycle = Occurs in plants and bacteria Krebs cycle = Generates energy from Acetyl-CoA Beta-oxidation = Breaks down fatty acids for energy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of molecules with their storage forms:

    <p>Fats = Stored as triglycerides in adipose tissue Carbohydrates = Stored as glycogen in liver Proteins = Converted to glucose when needed ATP = Energetic currency of the cell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following compounds with their roles in fat metabolism:

    <p>Lipases = Hydrolyze triglycerides into fatty acids Fatty acids = Carried by blood to tissues Glycerol = A glycolytic intermediate Acetyl-CoA = Entry point for Krebs cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of human respiration with their descriptions:

    <p>Alveoli = Sacs where gas exchange occurs Medulla oblongata = Controls the rate of ventilation Hemoglobin = Transporter of oxygen in the blood Trachea = Airway that connects the larynx to the bronchi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following processes of respiration with their functions:

    <p>Inhalation = Air flows into the lungs Exhalation = Air is expelled from the lungs Diffusion = Gas exchange across membranes Bulk flow = Movement of air or blood driven by pressure differences</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to gas transport with their descriptions:

    <p>Bohr effect = Oxygen release decreases under low pH O2 diffusion = Oxygen moves from alveoli to blood CO2 transport = Carbon dioxide mostly as bicarbonate ions Surface tension reduction = Surfactant lowers tension in alveoli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following cellular components of respiration with their features:

    <p>Bronchi = Branches that direct air into lungs Capillaries = Surround alveoli for gas exchange Interstitial fluid = Medium for oxygen diffusion to cells Diaphragm = Muscle that aids in breathing mechanics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following factors affecting hemoglobin's oxygen affinity with their effects:

    <p>High CO2 = Decreases O2 binding affinity Low pH = Enhances oxygen release Increased pH = Promotes oxygen binding Carbonic anhydrase = Catalyzes conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the stroma in the chloroplast?

    <p>Site for the Calvin cycle reactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During chemiosmosis in chloroplasts, where do H+ ions accumulate?

    <p>Lumen of the thylakoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes photons in relation to photosystems?

    <p>They are captured by chlorophyll in the light-harvesting complex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the overall net reaction of photosynthesis?

    <p>CO2 + H2O → Glucose + O2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a granum in relation to chloroplast structure?

    <p>A stack of thylakoid membranes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process occurs within the stroma of chloroplasts?

    <p>Calvin cycle (dark reactions)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of photosynthesis is primarily responsible for capturing light energy?

    <p>Chlorophyll pigment in photosystems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What accumulates in the lumen during the light reactions of photosynthesis?

    <p>H+ ions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the net reaction of photosynthesis?

    <p>It results in the reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates and release of O2 from water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes the stack of thylakoids within a chloroplast?

    <p>Granum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the end product of the Calvin Cycle after six turns?

    <p>1 Glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step in the Calvin Cycle involves the fixation of CO2 to RuBP?

    <p>Carboxylation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many ATP molecules are required to regenerate 6 RuBP from G3P?

    <p>6 ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of G3P in the Calvin Cycle?

    <p>It helps in the synthesis of carbohydrates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly represents the inputs needed for the Calvin Cycle to produce glucose?

    <p>6CO2, 18 ATP, 12 NADPH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do peroxisomes play in photorespiration?

    <p>They are involved in breaking down O2 fixation products.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of guard cells in leaves?

    <p>To surround and control the size of stomata.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do nitrifying bacteria contribute to plant nutrition?

    <p>By converting ammonia and nitrites into nitrates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structural adaptation allows the palisade layer in leaves to maximize photosynthesis?

    <p>It is composed of elongated chloroplast-containing cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Casparian strip in plant physiology?

    <p>To control the flow of water through plant cell walls.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of chondrocytes in cartilage?

    <p>Produce collagen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is compact bone primarily structured?

    <p>With densely packed osteons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of spongy (cancellous) bone?

    <p>It contains adipose tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does bone growth primarily occur in long bones?

    <p>Along the epiphyseal plates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the composition of cartilage?

    <p>It is a flexible connective tissue made of collagen and elastin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of the skeleton with their descriptions:

    <p>Axial skeleton = Comprises skull, vertebral column, and rib cage Appendicular skeleton = Includes bones of limbs and girdles Sutures = Immovable joints found in the skull Moveable joints = Bones that move relative to each other</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their definitions:

    <p>Origin = Point where muscle attaches to a stationary bone Insertion = Point of muscle attachment to a moving bone Extension = Straightening of a joint Flexion = Bending of a joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of joints with their characteristics:

    <p>Sutures = Connect bones in a fixed manner Moveable joints = Allow for movement Ligaments = Connect bone to bone Tendons = Connect muscle to bone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of the skeleton system with their functions:

    <p>Skeleton = Provides structure and support Ligaments = Stabilize joints Tendons = Facilitate movement by connecting muscles to bones Flexion = Reduces the angle between body parts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of movements with their descriptions:

    <p>Extension = Increases the angle of a joint Flexion = Decreases the angle of a joint Origin = Attachment at a fixed point Insertion = Attachment at a moving point</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the components of skeletal muscle with their descriptions:

    <p>Myofibrils = Filaments divided into sarcomeres Sarcoplasmic Reticulum = Stores Ca²⁺ and surrounds myofibrils Sarcolemma = Cell membrane that can propagate action potentials Mitochondria = Organelles present in large amounts in myofibrils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the terms related to skeletal muscle structure with their definitions:

    <p>Sarcomeres = Individual contractile units of muscle fibers Sarcoplasm = Cytoplasm of skeletal muscle cells T-tubules = Channels for ion flow connecting to the sarcolemma Multinucleated = Characteristic of skeletal muscle fiber cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the properties of skeletal muscle with their characteristics:

    <p>Striated Muscle = Responsible for voluntary movement Contractile Fibers = Fibers that enable muscle contraction Connective Tissue = Holds fibers together in the muscular system Action Potentials = Electrical impulses propagated by the sarcolemma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their specific function in skeletal muscle:

    <p>Ca²⁺ = Necessary for muscle contraction Myofibrils = Structures that contract and enable movement Sarcoplasmic Reticulum = Regulates calcium ion concentration Mitochondria = Provides energy for muscle contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following structures of skeletal muscle with their functions:

    <p>Sarcoplasmic Reticulum = Stores calcium ions for muscle contractions Sarcoplasm = Serves as the medium for metabolic processes T-tubules = Facilitates the spread of action potentials Myofibrils = Primary contractile elements of muscle fibers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the parts of the sarcomere with their descriptions:

    <p>Z line = Boundary of a single sarcomere; anchor thin filaments M line = Center of the sarcomere I band = Region containing thin filaments (actin) only H zone = Region containing thick filaments (myosin) only</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the regions of the sarcomere with their characteristics:

    <p>A band = Actin and myosin overlapping I band = Reduces during contraction H zone = Reduces during contraction Z line = Serves as an anchor for actin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of filament with its designation:

    <p>Actin = Thin filament Myosin = Thick filament Z line = Anchors thin filaments M line = Centerline of the sarcomere</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match each sarcomere component with its function or role:

    <p>I band = Contains only thin filaments H zone = Contains only thick filaments A band = Does not reduce during contraction Z line = Defines the limits of a sarcomere</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the contraction effects with sarcomere components:

    <p>I band = Decreases during contraction H zone = Decreases during contraction A band = Remains unchanged during contraction M line = Stays at the center during contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of muscle response with its description:

    <p>Simple Twitch = Response of a single muscle fiber to a brief stimulus; includes latent period, contraction, and relaxation Summation = Contractions combine to become stronger and more prolonged Tetanus = Continuous contractions where the muscle cannot relax Tonus = State of partial contraction; muscle never completely relaxed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the component of a simple twitch to its corresponding phase:

    <p>Latent Period = Time between stimulation and onset of contraction Contraction = Phase where muscle fibers actively shorten Relaxation = Phase when muscle fibers return to original length Absolute Refractory Period = Time when muscle is unresponsive to further stimulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the term with its definition in muscle responses:

    <p>Summation = The enhancement of muscle contractions through repeated stimulation Tetanus = A state where muscle fibers are unable to relax due to continuous stimulation Tonus = A moderate level of muscle contraction present even at rest Simple Twitch = A quick muscle contraction followed by relaxation in response to a single stimulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the phase of a simple twitch to its timing characteristics:

    <p>Latent Period = Initial delay before contraction begins Contraction = Period where muscle actively shortens Relaxation = Time when muscle returns to resting state Absolute Refractory Period = Duration during which muscle fibers cannot respond to new stimuli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the characteristics with their corresponding muscle response phases:

    <p>Tonus = A state of partial contraction allowing muscle readiness Simple Twitch = Involves a distinct sequence of latent, contraction, and relaxation Summation = Leads to stronger and prolonged muscle contractions Tetanus = Results from rapid frequency of stimuli without relaxation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does HCl play in the stomach's digestive process?

    <p>It activates pepsinogen into pepsin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is NOT secreted by the pancreas?

    <p>Pepsin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the pyloric sphincter in the digestive system?

    <p>To control the release of chyme into the small intestine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure in the small intestine is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption?

    <p>Villi and microvilli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of bile in digestion?

    <p>It emulsifies fats to aid in their digestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the large intestine?

    <p>Reabsorption of water and salts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone stimulates the gallbladder to release bile?

    <p>Cholecystokinin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what process do fungi obtain nutrients from their environment?

    <p>Absorption through rhizoids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a source of Vitamin K in the body?

    <p>Bacteria in the large intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of secretin in the digestive process?

    <p>To neutralize chyme</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of goblet cells in the stomach?

    <p>Secretion of protective mucous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type in the stomach is primarily responsible for producing hydrochloric acid (HCl)?

    <p>Parietal cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of bile in the digestive system?

    <p>Emulsification of fats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is primarily responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the pancreas?

    <p>Amylase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the digestive system?

    <p>Presence of fatty food</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the portal vein in the digestive system?

    <p>Directing monosaccharides to the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which secretion is primarily involved in the neutralization of chyme in the small intestine?

    <p>Bicarbonate juice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells?

    <p>Vitamin B-12 absorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of enterogastrone in the digestive process?

    <p>Inhibits stomach gland secretion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cells secrete the hormone gastrin in the stomach?

    <p>G-cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the nephron structures with their primary functions:

    <p>Proximal convoluted tubule = Active reabsorption of glucose, ions, and amino acids Loop of Henle = Concentration of urine through filtration Distal convoluted tubule = Reabsorption of remaining nutrients and water Collecting duct = Collects waste and adjusts water reabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the segments of the Loop of Henle with their characteristics:

    <p>Descending limb = Only permeable to water Ascending limb = Pumps out Na+, K+, Cl- Filtration process = Reabsorbs 99% of filtrate Salty medulla = Increases urine concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the hormone with its function in kidney regulation:

    <p>Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) = Increases permeability of collecting duct Aldosterone = Regulates sodium reabsorption Natriuretic peptide = Inhibits sodium reabsorption Renin = Activates angiotensin pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the process with its effect on urine composition:

    <p>Filtration = Removes excess substances from blood Reabsorption = Decreases waste in urine Secretion = Increases waste in urine Concentration = Increases solute level in urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the nephron functions with their descriptions:

    <p>Reabsorption = Process of reclaiming water and solutes Secretion = Transportation of waste into tubular fluid Filtration = Initial removal of blood plasma Concentration = Adjustment of urine volume and composition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the epidermis contains 25-30 dead layers filled with keratin?

    <p>Stratum corneum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the stratum spinosum?

    <p>Strength and flexibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which epidermal layer do lamellar bodies release hydrophobic lipids?

    <p>Stratum granulosum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the epidermis is only found in the palms, soles of feet, and fingertips?

    <p>Stratum lucidum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the stratum basale?

    <p>Presence of stem cells dividing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the stratum corneum in the epidermis?

    <p>Acts as a barrier to prevent water loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the epidermis is only found in the palms, soles of feet, and fingertips?

    <p>Stratum lucidum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the stratum basale play in the epidermis?

    <p>Houses stem cells responsible for generating new skin cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic describes the stratum granulosum?

    <p>Has 3-5 layers of dying cells releasing lipids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the desmosomes found in the stratum spinosum?

    <p>To hold cells together and provide structural integrity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best defines an ecosystem?

    <p>The interplay between a community and its abiotic environment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to the zone of water where light penetrates and supports aquatic photosynthesis?

    <p>Photic zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a community from a population in biological organization?

    <p>A community includes different species, while a population comprises the same species.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the term 'biotic' in an environmental context?

    <p>All living entities that affect the life of an organism.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which level of biological organization is characterized as an individual unit of a biological system?

    <p>Organism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biomes with their characteristics:

    <p>Desert = Minimal concentrated rain, small plants and animals Tropical Rain Forest = High temperatures, torrential rains, no leaf shedding Tundra = Treeless, frozen, very short growing season Temperate Deciduous Forest = Cold winters, warm summers, trees shed leaves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the terrestrial biomes with their descriptions:

    <p>Grassland = Low rainfall, no shelter for herbivores Taiga = Long winters, inhabited by spruce, floors contain moss Temperate Coniferous Forest = Cold, dry, needles for water conservation Polar = Frozen, no vegetation, terrestrial animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biome with its typical flora and fauna:

    <p>Desert = Small plants and desert-adapted animals Tropical Rain Forest = Epiphytes and saprophytes present Grassland = Animals with long legs or hooved feet Tundra = Lichens and moss with polar bears</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biome with its climate characteristics:

    <p>Grassland = Low rainfall with open areas Temperate Deciduous Forest = Moderate rainfall, leaf shedding Taiga = Cold, dry winters with conifers Desert = Days of growing season following rain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the biome with the type of vegetation found there:

    <p>Temperate Coniferous Forest = Fir, pine, spruce trees Tropical Rain Forest = Dense vegetation, high canopy Polar = No vegetation, frozen terrain Taiga = Spruce as a dominant species</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their characteristics:

    <p>Monera = Prokaryotic organisms that lack a nucleus Protista = Primarily unicellular eukaryotes Fungi = Organisms that decompose organic material Plantae = Multicellular autotrophic organisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their examples:

    <p>Monera = Bacteria Protista = Amoeba Fungi = Mushrooms Plantae = Moss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their nutritional modes:

    <p>Monera = Heterotrophic and autotrophic Fungi = Absorptive heterotrophs Plantae = Photoautotrophs Animalia = Ingestive heterotrophs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their cellular organization:

    <p>Fungi = Cell walls made of chitin Plantae = Cell walls made of cellulose Animalia = No cell walls present Protista = Can be unicellular or multicellular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following kingdoms with their reproductive strategies:

    <p>Fungi = Spore formation Plantae = Alternation of generations Animalia = Sexual reproduction predominates Protista = Binary fission or sexual reproduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics of Kingdom Monera with their descriptions:

    <p>Prokaryotes = Organisms that lack a nucleus Asexual reproduction = Reproduction without the fusion of gametes Circular DNA = DNA structure commonly found in bacteria Peptidoglycan cell wall = Main structural component of bacterial cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the mechanisms of acquiring genetic material in bacteria with their definitions:

    <p>Transduction = Genetic material transfer via a virus Transformation = Genetic alteration by direct uptake of genetic material Conjugation = Direct transfer of DNA between two bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of bacteria with their characteristics:

    <p>Gram-positive = Thick peptidoglycan layer Gram-negative = Thin peptidoglycan layer with an outer membrane Lysogenic phage = Virus that integrates into bacterial DNA F+ cell = Bacteria that can donate DNA during conjugation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to bacterial reproduction with their explanations:

    <p>Cell wall = Rigid structure providing shape and protection Transcription and translation = Processes that occur simultaneously in bacteria Asexual reproduction = Method of reproduction resulting in identical offspring Nucleus absence = Characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of genetic material acquisition with their processes:

    <p>Transformation = Uptake of naked DNA by bacteria Transduction = DNA is transferred by a bacteriophage Conjugation = Plasmid transfer through a pilus Lateral gene transfer = Acquisition of genes from other bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following groups in the Kingdom Protista with their characteristics:

    <p>Protozoa = Heterotrophic and move with pseudopods or cilia Algae = Photosynthetic and includes <em>Euglena</em> Slime molds = Often placed in Fungi but related to protists Ciliophors = Example includes <em>Paramecium</em></p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of organisms in the Kingdom Protista with their mode of nutrition:

    <p>Protozoa = Heterotrophic Algae = Autotrophic Slime molds = Heterotrophic Phytoplankton = Autotrophic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the movements of the following protists with their type:

    <p>Amoebas = Move with pseudopods Ciliophors = Move with cilia Euglena = Move with flagellum Phytoplankton = Generally non-motile</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the examples to their respective categories within the Kingdom Protista:

    <p>Paramecium = Protozoa Euglena = Algae Phytoplankton = Algae Slime molds = Slime molds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics with the correct groups in the Kingdom Protista:

    <p>Heterotrophic = Protozoa Photosynthetic = Algae Related to fungi = Slime molds Moved by cilia = Ciliophors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following classes of fungi with their examples:

    <p>Zygomycetes = Bread mold Basidiomycetes = Mushrooms Ascomycetes = Sac fungi Chytridiomycetes = Chytrids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to fungi with their definitions:

    <p>Hyphae = Branching filament of fungi Mycelium = Collective mass of hyphae Saprophytic = Organism that feeds on decaying matter Parasitic = Organism that feeds on a host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following reproductive strategies in fungi with their descriptions:

    <p>Sexual reproduction = Involves the fusion of haploid adults Asexual reproduction = Involves spore formation Budding = A form of asexual reproduction in yeast Fragmentation = Individual breaks into pieces that grow into new fungi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of fungi with their primary nutritional strategy:

    <p>Heterotrophs = Organisms that obtain food from other sources Autotrophs = Organisms that produce their own food Saprophytic fungi = Fungi that decompose dead organic matter Parasitic fungi = Fungi that absorb nutrients from living hosts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following fungus characteristics with their corresponding features:

    <p>Eukaryotic = Cells with a nucleus Multicellular = Composed of multiple cells Septa = Divides hyphae in most fungi Spores = Reproductive units of fungi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following features with their corresponding types of angiosperms:

    <p>Monocotyledons = Leaves with parallel veins Dicotyledons = Net veined leaves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the structure of flowers with its function:

    <p>Ovary = Produces megaspores Anther = Produces microspores Stigma = Receives pollen Petals = Attracts pollinators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following examples with their respective classifications:

    <p>Wheat = Monocotyledons Maple = Dicotyledons Corn = Monocotyledons Potato = Dicotyledons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics with either monocotyledons or dicotyledons:

    <p>Scattered vascular bundles = Monocotyledons Vascular bundles arranged in a ring = Dicotyledons Flower parts in multiples of 4 or 5 = Dicotyledons Most are non-woody = Monocotyledons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following plant structures with their reproductive roles:

    <p>Pollen = Male gamete Ovule = Female gamete Stamen = Male reproductive part Pistil = Female reproductive part</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the phyla of Kingdom Animalia with their characteristics:

    <p>Porifera = Two layers of cells, have pores, sessile Cnidarians = Digestive sac sealed at one end, net nerves Platyhelminthes = Bilateral symmetry, three layers of cells Echinoderms = Radially symmetrical, water vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms related to Cnidarians with their descriptions:

    <p>Cnidoblasts = Specialized cells containing stinging cells Nematocysts = Stinging cells inside cnidoblasts Ectoderm = Outer layer of Cnidarians Endoderm = Inner layer of Cnidarians</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following organisms with their respective phyla:

    <p>Sponges = Porifera Jellyfish = Cnidarians Flat worms = Platyhelminthes Sea stars = Echinoderms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics to their respective phyla:

    <p>Porifera = No true tissues, filter feeders Cnidarians = Radial symmetry, live in aquatic environments Platyhelminthes = Flat-bodied, can be parasitic Nematodes = Unsegmented, cylindrical worms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following features with the corresponding phyla:

    <p>Porifera = Pores for water flow Cnidarians = Stinging tentacles for prey capture Platyhelminthes = Gastrovascular cavity for digestion Annelids = Segmented body plan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following animal phyla with their characteristics:

    <p>Annelida = Possess coelom and well-defined systems Mollusca = Soft-bodied with mantles and gills Arthropoda = Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton Echinodermata = Radial symmetry and water vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the classes of Mollusca with their examples:

    <p>Class Gastropoda = Slugs and snails Class Cephalopoda = Octopus and squid Class Bivalvia = Clams and oysters Class Polyplacophora = Chitons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of Arthropods with their features:

    <p>Insects = Three pairs of legs and tracheal tubes Arachnids = Four pairs of legs and book lungs Crustaceans = Segmented body with gills Myriapods = Many legs and elongated bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following characteristics with their respective animal phyla:

    <p>Annelida = Segmented body and true body cavities Mollusca = Breathe using gills and have chambered hearts Arthropoda = Open circulatory system and chitinous exoskeleton Cnidaria = Radial symmetry and stinging cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their definitions:

    <p>Coelom = True body cavity in the mesoderm Mantle = Tissue that secretes a shell Chitin = Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton Blood sinus = Open spaces in the circulatory system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following animal phyla with their characteristics:

    <p>Annelida = Possess coelom and well-defined systems Mollusca = Soft-bodied with mantles and gills Arthropoda = Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton Echinodermata = Radial symmetry and water vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following classes of Mollusca with their examples:

    <p>Class Gastropoda = Slugs and snails Class Cephalopoda = Octopus and squid Class Bivalvia = Clams and oysters Class Polyplacophora = Chitons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following groups within Arthropoda with their characteristics:

    <p>Insects = Three pairs of legs and spiracles Arachnids = Four pairs of legs and book lungs Crustaceans = Segmented body with variable appendages Myriapods = Long segmented body with many legs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following features with the respective animal phyla:

    <p>Annelida = Well-defined nervous and circulatory systems Mollusca = Mantles that secrete calcium carbonate Arthropoda = Open circulatory system with sinuses Cnidaria = Radial symmetry and cnidocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following descriptions with their corresponding Arthropod classes:

    <p>Insects = Exhibit complete metamorphosis and have antennae Arachnids = Include spiders and scorpions with book lungs Crustaceans = Aquatic, with gills and usually a carapace Myriapods = Terrestrial with many legs divided into segments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of selection with its description:

    <p>Stabilizing = Eliminates individuals with extreme or unusual traits Directional = Favors traits at one extreme of a range Disruptive = Selects against common traits, favoring extremes Artificial = Carried out by humans for desirable traits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of selection with an example:

    <p>Stabilizing = Prevents extreme wing sizes in birds Directional = Insecticide resistance in pests Disruptive = Tall weeds in fields versus short weeds on lawns Sexual = Males displaying brighter colors to attract females</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the selection type with its specific effect:

    <p>Sexual = Leads to sexual dimorphism Disruptive = Common traits decline in frequency Directional = One phenotype becomes more common Artificial = Humans influence breeding outcomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of selection with its outcome:

    <p>Stabilizing = Increased average trait value Directional = Shift in mean trait value Disruptive = Creation of two distinct phenotypes Sexual = Enhanced reproductive success of certain traits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the selection type with its characteristic:

    <p>Stabilizing = Reduces variance in a trait's expression Directional = Selects against one extreme phenotype Disruptive = Promotes diversity within a population Artificial = Requires human intervention for selection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the selection type with its predominant environment:

    <p>Stabilizing = Stable environments with little change Directional = Changing environments favoring one extreme Disruptive = Variable environments with multiple niches Sexual = Populations with mate choice dynamics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following concepts with their descriptions related to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

    <p>Allele Frequencies = Remain constant from generation to generation Natural Selection = All traits are selectively neutral Genetic Drift = Population is large Gene Flow = Population isolated from other populations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following conditions to their effects on a population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

    <p>No Mutations = Prevents new alleles from being introduced Large Population = Minimizes impact of genetic drift No Migration = Keeps allele frequencies stable No Natural Selection = Ensures all traits are neutral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the symbols in the Hardy-Weinberg equation to their meanings:

    <p>p = Frequency of dominant allele q = Frequency of recessive allele p^2 = Frequency of homozygous dominant genotype q^2 = Frequency of homozygous recessive genotype</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following factors to their role in evolution and population genetics:

    <p>Mutations = Source of genetic variation Natural Selection = Adaptation to environment Migration = Movement of alleles between populations Genetic Drift = Random changes in allele frequencies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following statements with their implications regarding disruption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

    <p>Introduction of new alleles = Caused by mutations Changes in allele frequencies = Indicates natural selection or genetic drift Population structure changes = Results in gene flow Small population size = Enhances effects of genetic drift</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the origin of life theories or phenomena with their descriptions:

    <p>Heterotroph Theory = First cells were unable to produce their own food Primordial Soup = The mixture of organic molecules in early Earth's oceans Eukaryotic Origin = Originated from a symbiotic relationship among prokaryotes Oxygenation Event = Formation of ozone layer from photosynthetic activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of early prokaryotes with their characteristics:

    <p>Heterotrophic Prokaryotes = Obtained energy by consuming organic substances Autotrophic Prokaryotes = Produced their own food through photosynthesis Prototobionts = Precursors to early cellular life Proteinoids = Abiotically produced polypeptides formed through dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the significant steps in chemical evolution with their outcomes:

    <p>Formation of Primordial Soup = Inorganic molecules converted to organic Rise of Autotrophs = Enabled the oxygenation of the atmosphere Endosymbiotic Theory = Explains the origin of eukaryotic cells Abiotic Chemical Evolution Ends = Marked by the accumulation of atmospheric oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of cellular processes with their definitions:

    <p>Dehydration Condensation = Process for synthesizing polymers from monomers Adaptive Radiation = Divergent evolution resulting in multiple species from a common ancestor Chemical Evolution = Formation of complex molecules from simpler ones Photosynthesis = Process by which autotrophs convert light energy into chemical energy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following stages in the origin of life with their corresponding products:

    <p>Complex Molecule Synthesis = Formation of amino acids and organic compounds Isolation into Protobionts = Concentration of organic molecules into early cell-like structures Development of Eukaryotes = Secured through endosymbiotic associations Formation of Ozone Layer = Resulting from the interaction of UV light with oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Système Endomembranaire

    • Comprend : enveloppe nucléaire, réticulum endoplasmique (RE), appareil de Golgi, lysosomes, vacuoles, vésicules, peroxisomes, et membrane cellulaire.
    • N'inclut pas : mitochondries et chloroplastes.

    Centrioles

    • Impliqués dans l'organisation du fuseau lors de la division cellulaire.
    • Pas de membrane.

    Cytosquelette

    • Composé de trois types de filaments :
      • Microtubules : faits de tubuline, soutiennent les activités cellulaires.
      • Filaments intermédiaires : maintiennent la forme de la cellule.
      • Microfilaments : faits d'actine, impliqués dans la motilité, présents dans les cellules musculaires et les phagocytes.

    Flagelles et Cils

    • Structure en 9+2 : neuf paires de microtubules entourant une paire de microtubules.

    Vacuole centrale

    • Occupe la majeure partie de l’intérieur de certaines plantes.
    • Exerce une pression (turgescence) sur les parois cellulaires pour maintenir la rigidité.
    • Stocke des nutriments et remplace les lysosomes dans les cellules animales.

    Murs cellulaires

    • Présents dans les plantes, les champignons, les protistes et les bactéries.
    • Plantes : en cellulose.
    • Champignons : en chitine (groupe hydroxyle de cellulose remplacé par l’azote).

    Jonctions communicantes

    • Jonctions de type gap : permettent aux cellules animales d'échanger des ions et petites molécules sans mélange cytoplasmique.
    • Plasmodesmes : canaux entre cellules végétales, contiennent un tube de réticulum endoplasmique (desmotubule).

    Différences entre cellules végétales et animales

    • Cellules végétales possèdent des murs cellulaires, chloroplastes et vacuoles centrales.
    • Cellules animales ont des lysosomes, centrioles, et cholestérol.

    Modes de transport

    • Transport passif :
      • Diffusion simple : transport d'une concentration élevée vers une concentration basse.
      • Osmose : diffusion de l'eau à travers une membrane.
      • Dialyse : diffusion de solutés.
      • Plasmolyse : mouvement d'eau hors d'une cellule provoquant son effondrement.
      • Diffusion facilitée : solutés ou eau à travers une protéine de canal.
      • Échange contre-courant : diffusion entre deux zones avec flux opposé.

    Stratégies de reproduction marine

    • Ovipare : fécondation interne, ponte d'œufs.
    • Vivipare : fécondation interne, naissance vivante.
    • Ovovivipare : fécondation interne, les œufs se développent à l'intérieur de la mère.

    Cycle cellulaire

    • Phase S : duplication du génome.
    • Phases G1 et G2 : phases d'intervalles.

    Mitose

    • Division cellulaire aboutissant à deux cellules identiques (2N).
    • Phases de la mitose :
      • Prophase : condensation de la chromatine.
      • Métaphase : alignement des chromosomes.
      • Anaphase : séparation des chromatides sœurs.
      • Télophase : formation de nouvelles membranes nucléaires.

    Méiose

    • Réduction du nombre chromosomique de 2N à N, se produit dans les cellules sexuelles.
    • Premier division meiotique :
      • Prophase I : formation de tétrades et crossing-over.
      • Métaphase I : alignement des tétrades.
      • Anaphase I : séparation des paires homologues.
      • Télophase I : formation de deux cellules filles haploïdes.

    Anomalies chromosomiques

    • Inversion : segment chromosomique tourné de 180°.
    • Translocation : échange de segments entre chromosomes non homologues.
    • Non-disjonction : échec dans la séparation des chromosomes homologues ou chromatides sœurs.
    • Syndromes : Turner (femelle stérile, monosomie) et Klinefelter (XXY).

    Production d'ATP eucaryote

    • Glycolyse : création de 36 ATP à partir d'une molécule de glucose.
    • Cycle de l’acide citrique : production complémentaire d’ATP à partir de NADH et FADH2.

    Composants des chloroplastes

    • Stroma : site du cycle Calvin (réactions sombres).
    • Thylakoïdes : membranes contenant les complexes protéiques de photosynthèse.
    • Granum : empilement de thylakoïdes.

    Photosynthèse

    • Transformation du CO2 en glucides et libération d'O2 à partir de l'eau.
    • Le cycle de Calvin utilise ATP et NADPH pour réduire le CO2.

    Respirations photo

    • Fixation de l'O2 par rubisco, conduisant à la photorespiration qui génère des déchets à éliminer par les peroxysomes.

    Adaptations des feuilles

    • Cutanisation : réduction de la transpiration et conservation de l'eau.
    • Tissu palissadique : cellules contenant des chloroplastes maximisant la surface.
    • Contrôle des stomates par les cellules garde.

    Cycle de l’azote

    • Bactéries nitrifiantes oxydent l’ammoniaque et les nitrites pour produire des nitrates, utilisés par les plantes pour synthétiser des protéines.

    Squelette des vertébrés

    • Composé d'un endosquelette comprenant cartilage et os.
    • Cartilage : tissu conjonctif souple et flexible.
    • Os : tissu conjonctif dur, dense (os compact) et léger (os spongieux).

    Reproduction asexuée chez les plantes

    • Formation de spores par alternance de générations.
    • Propagation végétative par tissus indifférenciés (méristèmes).

    Cycle menstruel

    • Quatre phases : folliculaire, ovulation, lutéale, menstruation.
    • FSH et LH régulent le développement des follicules et la sécrétion d'hormones.### Développement embryonnaire
    • Allantoïs : Sac provenant de l'archentéron, encercle l'embryon, forme la couche sous le chorion, donne naissance au cordon ombilical et à la vessie urinaire chez l'adulte.
    • Amnios : Enveloppe la cavité amniotique, protège l'embryon en développement.
    • Vésicule vitelline : Présente chez les oiseaux et reptiles pour digérer le vitellus; absente chez les mammifères placentaires.

    Développements embryonnaires spécifiques

    • Grenouilles : La présence de la croissante grise dans chaque cellule est cruciale pour le développement normal. Yolk extensif et plug vitellin près du bord dorsal.
    • Oiseaux : La clivage se produit dans un disque aplati (blastodisc), avec une dépression primitive qui donne un blastopore allongé.
    • Humains : Stade de blastocyste avec trophoblaste et masse cellulaire interne, impliqué dans l'implantation et la production de HCG.

    Circulation chez les invertébrés

    • Protozoaires : Utilisent la diffusion simple pour l'échange gazeux.
    • Cnidaires : Structure à deux couches cellulaires, contact direct avec l'environnement.
    • Arthropodes : Système circulatoire ouvert (hémolymphe) et système fermé chez les annélides.

    Système cardiovasculaire

    • Hémoglobine : Affinité plus forte pour le CO que la myoglobine.
    • Circulation sanguine : Ductus venosus, foramen ovale et ductus arteriosus permettent de contourner certaines parties du cœur.
    • Débit cardiaque (DC) : Calculé par le volume d'éjection x fréquence cardiaque.

    Mécanismes de défense non spécifiques

    • Phagocytes : Incluent les neutrophiles et monocytes pour éliminer les agents pathogènes.
    • Réponse inflammatoire : Histamine provoque la vasodilatation, attirant davantage de WBC.
    • Compléments : Protéines qui soutiennent l'activité des phagocytes.

    Structure des plantes

    • Xylème : Conduit l'eau et les minéraux vers le haut, composé de trachéides et d'éléments de vaisseaux.
    • Phloème : Conduit les sucres vers le bas, composé d'éléments de tube crible.
    • Cambium : Meristème qui produit le xylème et le phloème.

    Glande surrénale

    • Cortex surrénalien : Sécrète glucocorticoïdes (cortisol) et minéralocorticoïdes (aldostérone).
    • Médullaire surrénale : Produces épinéphrine et norépinephrine pour la réponse « combat ou fuite ».

    Hormones gastro-intestinales

    • Gastrine : Stimule sécrétion d'HCl en réponse à la nourriture.
    • Sécrétine : Neutralise l'acidité du chyme par sécrétion de bicarbonate.
    • Cholecystokinine : Stimule contraction de la vésicule biliaire en réponse aux graisses.

    Hormones de plante

    • Auxines : Contrôlent la phototropisme et la géotropisme, inhibent la croissance des bourgeons latéraux.
    • Gibbérellines : Stimulent l'allongement rapide des tiges.
    • Éthylène : Stimule la maturation des fruits.

    Transmission synaptique

    • Électrique : Moins commun, implique les jonctions gap.
    • Chimique : Nécessite l'ouverture des canaux Ca2+, libération de neurotransmetteurs, et interaction avec les récepteurs postsynaptiques.

    Respiration humaine

    • Alvéoles : Site d'échange gazeux entre le système circulatoire et les poumons.
    • Flux air : Inspirer par contraction diaphragmatique, expirer passivement.
    • Effet Bohr : Diminution de l'affinité de l'hémoglobine pour O2 en conditions de faible pH.

    Structure du cerveau

    • Cortex cérébral : Traite les entrées sensorielles, crucial pour la mémoire.
    • Thalamus : Relay entre la moelle épinière et le cortex cérébral.
    • Hindbrain : Comprend le cervelet, le pont et le bulbe rachidien pour la régulation des fonctions vitales.

    Catabolisme du glucose

    • Glycolyse : Décomposition du glucose en pyruvate, produisant de l'ATP et du NADH.
    • Respiration cellulaire : Peut produire 36-38 ATP en utilisant O₂ comme accepteur final.

    Composants des chloroplastes

    • Stroma : Site de la réaction de Calvin.
    • Thylakoïdes : Contienen les complexes protéiques pour la photosynthèse.
    • Photosynthèse : Réduction de CO2 pour former des glucides et libération d'O2.

    Diversité végétale

    • Angiospermes : Plantes à fleurs, graines couvertes.
    • Monocotylédones : Feuilles à nervures parallèles.
    • Dicotylédones : Feuilles nettes avec groupes vasculaires concentrés.

    Règne Animalia

    • Multicellulaires, hétérotrophes, mobilité : Comprend des phylums variés comme les Porifères, Cnidaires et Arthropodes.
    • Granularité de classification : Des organismes simples à ceux avec des systèmes définis comme les Annelides et mollusques.

    Types de sélection naturelle

    • Stabilisateur : Élimine les traits extrêmes.
    • Directionnelle : Favorise un trait extrême, drainage de la diversité.### Sélection Naturelle et Ses Types
    • Sélection Disruptive (diversification) : Favorise les traits extrêmes; exclusion des traits communs. Exemples : courtes herbes sur les pelouses vs grandes herbes dans les champs.
    • Sélection Sexuelle : Différences de reproduction chez les mâles et parfois les femelles; les traits favorables augmentent la fréquence de reproduction des mâles; les femelles choisissent des mâles de qualité pour améliorer la progéniture.
    • Sélection Artificielle : Interventions humaines pour cultiver ou élever des animaux présentant des traits désirables.

    Système Musculaire

    • Composition du système musculaire : fibres contractiles maintenues par le tissu conjonctif.
    • Muscle Squelettique : Muscle strié responsable des mouvements volontaires; fibres multinucléées.
      • Myofibrilles : Filaments organisés en sarcomères.
      • Sarcoplasmic Reticulum : Stocke Ca²⁺, entoure les myofibrilles.
      • Sarcoplasm : Cytoplasme du muscle.
      • Sarcolemma : Membrane cellulaire capable de propager les potentiels d'action.

    Sarcomère

    • Composé de filaments fins (actine) et de filaments épais (myosine).
    • Ligne Z : Limite d'un sarcomère, ancre les filaments fins.
    • Zone H : Contient uniquement des filaments épais.
    • A Bande : Zone d'interaction entre l'actine et la myosine durant la contraction.

    Types de Réponse Musculaire

    • Contraction Simple : Réaction d'une seule fibre musculaire à un stimulus bref.
    • Somme et Tétanos : Contraction de plusieurs fibres, devenant plus fortes; tétanos = contractions continues.
    • Tonus : État de contraction partielle, jamais complètement relâché.

    Équilibre Génétique (Équation de Hardy Weinberg)

    • Les fréquences allélique demeurent constantes dans une population; aucune évolution.
    • Conditions : traits dans la population sont neutres, aucune mutation, population isolée, grande taille, pas de migration nette.

    Digestion

    Estomac

    • Sécrète le jus gastrique ; stockage et mélange des aliments.
    • Dégradation chimique : Pepsine activée par HCl; ulcères peptiques dus à la défaillance de la muqueuse.
    • Libération contrôlée dans l'intestin grêle via le sphincter pylorique.

    Intestin Grêle

    • Débute avec le duodénum qui continue la dégradation des nutriments; valves séparent l'intestin grêle du gros intestin.
    • Origine des Enzymes : Intestin grêle produit des enzymes; le pancréas sécrète des enzymes digestives en milieu alcalin.

    Gros Intestin

    • Réabsorption de l'eau et des sels pour former les selles; stockage des déchets dans le rectum.
    • Bactéries principales sources de vitamine K.

    Hormones Digestives

    • Gastrine : Stimule la production de jus gastrique.
    • Sécrétine : Stimule le pancréas pour produire du bicarbonate.
    • Cholecystokinine : Libération de bile par la vésicule biliaire.

    Digestion chez les Plantes et les Champignons

    • Digestion Intracellulaire : Dégradation enzymatique à l'intérieur des cellules.
    • Digestion Extracellulaire : Absorption des nutriments de l'environnement; exemple : Piège de la vénus attrape-mouches.

    Cellules du Système Digestif

    • Estomac : Production de mucus par les cellules calciformes; sécrétion de HCl et pepsine par les cellules principales.
    • Intestin Grêle : Absorption via villosités; sécrétion de diverses enzymes pour digérer différents nutriments.

    Niveaux d'Organisation Biologique

    • Organisme, Population, Communauté, Écosystème, Biosphère.

    Biomes Terrestres

    • Désert : Pluviométrie minimale, petite végétation.
    • Forêt Tempérée Décidue : Hivers froids, étés chauds, arbres perdant leurs feuilles.
    • Toundra : Zone gelée, courte saison de croissance.

    Classification des Organismes

    • Cinq royaumes : Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia.
    • Royaume Protiste : Eucaryotes unicellulaires; exemple : protozoaires, algues.
    • Royaume Fungi : Eucaryotes multicellulaires, hétérotrophes; reproduction par spores ou bourgeonnement.

    Théorie de l'Hétérotrophie

    • Premières cellules hétérotrophes, incapables de produire leur propre nourriture.
    • Formation de l'atmosphère primitive sans oxygène; synthèse de molécules complexes.

    Origine des Eucaryotes

    • Théorie endosymbiotique : origine des cellules eucaryotes par l'association symbiotique de prokaryotes.

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