Surgical Site Infections: Skin Microflora

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

In what circumstance can normal human microflora establish disease?

  • When they remain in their normal, non-sterile setting.
  • When introduced into unprotected, normally sterile sites. (correct)
  • When exposed to antimicrobial agents.
  • When the host immune system is robust and responsive.

Which characteristic differentiates transient microbial colonization from permanent colonization?

  • Transient colonization always causes disease, unlike permanent colonization.
  • Transient colonization involves irreversible alterations to the host's microbiome.
  • Transient colonization persists for a short duration, such as hours or days. (correct)
  • Transient colonization is exclusively composed of Gram-negative bacteria.

Which of the following bacteria is a common example of Gram-negative bacteria present in skin microflora?

  • Escherichia coli (correct)
  • Corynebacterium species
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Propionibacterium species

Why do Gram-negative bacteria not colonize on the skin surface permanently?

<p>The skin surface is too dry for them to thrive. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios presents the highest risk for a skin infection, based on the provided information?

<p>A carrier of <em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> experiencing a burn. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Staphylococcus aureus cause skin infections?

<p>By establishing a carrier state and causing infection when risk factors arise. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a minor pyogenic infection of a hair follicle, characterized by a raised, reddened base. This is most likely:

<p>Folliculitis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical location is most likely associated with folliculitis?

<p>Areas of skin subject to friction and sweat. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between a furuncle and folliculitis?

<p>Furuncles involve a larger, painful nodule with underlying necrotic tissue, while folliculitis is a superficial infection of the hair follicle. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with multiple furuncles that have coalesced into a more extensive, multiloculated abscess. Systemic symptoms include chills and fever. This presentation is most consistent with:

<p>A carbuncle with systemic involvement due to bacteremia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary underlying factor contributing to acne vulgaris?

<p>Hormonal influences on sebum secretion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is specific to dermatophytoses?

<p>Fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around the nose and mouth. The lesions began as small vesicles that ruptured. This presentation suggests:

<p>Impetigo due to <em>Streptococcus pyogenes</em> or <em>Staphylococcus aureus</em>. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key factor in the transmission and spread of impetigo?

<p>It can be spread via fomites like shared clothing and towels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does bullous impetigo differ from non-bullous impetigo?

<p>Bullous impetigo is characterized by large serum-filled bullae (blisters) due to exfoliative toxin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neonate presents with abrupt onset of perioral erythema that quickly spreads over the entire body, followed by cutaneous blisters and desquamation of the epithelium. Slight pressure displaces the skin (positive Nikolsky sign). This presentation suggests:

<p>Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of skin damage in Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?

<p>The bacterial toxin causing desquamation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a serious, rapidly spreading skin infection characterized by edema, erythema, pain, fever, and lymphadenopathy, primarily affecting the lower extremities. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Erysipelas. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of erysipelas that distinguishes it from other skin infections?

<p>It involves the deeper layers of the dermis and often presents with systemic symptoms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a 'physiologic' wound that is subject to infection?

<p>The endometrial surface after placental separation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a source of wound infection related to material from infected individuals?

<p>Contamination of a surgical wound by S. aureus spread by a carrier. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided text, what is the critical time period after contamination of a surgical wound to prevent infection?

<p>The first 3 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the classification of wounds, what is the best description for a surgical wound that extends into sites of normal flora (excluding the colon) without known contamination?

<p>Clean contaminated wound. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a wound caused by a penetrating injury contaminated with soil. Which of the following is mostly likely to be the etiological agent?

<p>Clostridium species. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which etiological agent is most likely to be associated with burn wounds?

<p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of postpartum uterine infections, which factor increases the risk of endometrial infection?

<p>A prolonged delivery after membrane rupture with retained placental fragments. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of screening pregnant women for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization at 35-37 weeks of gestation?

<p>To prevent early-onset GBS disease in the newborn. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for gas gangrene (clostridial myositis)?

<p>Surgical debridement and high-dose penicillin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The alpha-toxin produced by Clostridium perfringens in gas gangrene primarily leads to?

<p>Tissue damage and muscle death. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Necrotizing fasciitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is best described as:

<p>A deep infection involving destruction of muscle and fat layers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unlike skin infections, cellulitis is characterized by:

<p>An acute inflammation of subcutaneous connective tissue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the correct order of steps to identify Gram-positive cocci?

<p>Gram-positive cocci -&gt; Catalase test -&gt; Coagulase test and Mannitol fermentation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species be differentiated in the lab?

<p>Catalase test. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What lab result identifies S. aureus?

<p>Catalase-positive, Coagulase-positive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What proportion of nosocomial infections do surgical site infections represent?

<p>They are the 2nd or 3rd most common. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately differentiates surgical site infection (SSI) infection and colonization?

<p>Infection has systemic and local signs of inflammmation and counts ≥ $10^5$ cfu/mL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgical site infection (SSI) which arises following a complication that is not directly related to the wound can be best defined as:

<p>Secondary (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops a surgical site infection 2 months after surgery. What is the best classification for this infection?

<p>Intermediate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do prophylactic antibiotics help prevent surgical site infections?

<p>They should be administered before the incision to ensure effective delivery to the wound. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to clean a wound with sterile saline solution prior to swabbing for culture?

<p>To remove any antiseptic residues that may interfere with bacterial growth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of the skin detachment observed in Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?

<p>Exfoliative toxins produced by <em>S. aureus</em> targeting desmosomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of screening pregnant women for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization at 35-37 weeks of gestation?

<p>To identify women who require intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent neonatal GBS infection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a painful, raised skin lesion that appears to be an extension of folliculitis with an underlying collection of necrotic tissue. Which of the following best describes this skin condition?

<p>Furuncle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who underwent surgery develops a wound infection with a bacterial count of $2 \times 10^6$ cfu/mL. According to the definitions provided, how should this wound be classified?

<p>Infected (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor significantly elevates the likelihood of endometrial infection following childbirth?

<p>A prolonged labor after membrane rupture with retained placental fragments. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Human normal microflora

The normal microbial community that colonizes the human body; it contains numerous and diverse microorganisms. Colonization can be permanent or transient.

Folliculitis

A skin infection of the hair follicles, often caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It presents as a raised, reddened base of the follicle with a small collection of pus.

Furuncle

An extension of folliculitis, presenting as a large, painful, raised nodule with an underlying collection of necrotic tissue. It may drain spontaneously or after surgical incision and is often caused by S aureus.

Carbuncle

Occurs when furuncles coalesce and extend into the deeper subcutaneous tissue, patients may manifest chills and fevers. It indicates systemic spread of staphylococci.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acne vulgaris

Inflammation of hair follicles and associated sebaceous glands, caused primarily by Propionibacterium acnes. Hormonal influences on sebum secretion at puberty are a primary cause.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dermatophytoses

Fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails. Caused by organisms that can use the keratin of these tissues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impetigo

A skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci). The initial lesion is often a small vesicle that ruptures, leading to skin erosion, serous exudate and honey-colored crust.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bullous impetigo

A distinct disease caused by strains of S. aureus that produce exfoliative toxin. It is most common in small children and characterized by large, serum-filled blisters within the skin layers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

A condition (also known as Ritter disease) caused by strains of S. aureus that produce exfoliative toxin. There is an abrupt onset of localized perioral erythema that spreads across the entire body with cutaneous blisters. High mortality in immunocompromised adults.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Erysipelas

A serious, rapidly spreading infection of the deeper layers of the dermis, typically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is associated with edema, marked erythema, pain, fever, and lymphadenopathy, often involving the lower extremities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Types of wounds

Wounds are subject to infection and can be classified as surgical, traumatic, or physiologic.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sources of wound infection

Wound infections can originate from the patient's normal flora, material from infected individuals or carriers, or pathogens from the environment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wound infection factors

Factors contributing to wound infections include the contaminating dose of microorganisms, virulence of contaminating microorganisms, condition of the wound, and general health.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clean wounds

Classified as surgical wounds made under aseptic conditions, that don't traverse infected tissues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clean contaminated wounds

Surgical wounds that extend into sites with normal flora (except the colon) without known contamination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Contaminated wounds

Fresh surgical and traumatic wounds with a major risk of contamination, such as incisions entering nonpurulent infected tissues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dirty and infected wounds

Old, traumatic wounds; substantially contaminated with foreign material; and contaminated with perforated viscera.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clostridium perfringens

Gas gangrene is most commonly caused by Clostridium perfringens, which produces tissue damage and muscle death via its α-toxin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Necrotizing fasciitis

A deep infection of the skin involving destruction of muscle and fat layers, caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cellulitis

An acute inflammation of subcutaneous connective tissue, often with swelling, pain, fever, and lymphadenopathy. Caused by many pathogenic bacteria; S. aureus and S. pyogenes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Catalase test

Gram-positive cocci such as Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be differentiated using a simple catalase test.

Signup and view all the flashcards

S. aureus identification

Simple biochemical tests used to identify S. aureus include coagulase tests (positive) and mannitol fermentation tests (positive).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical site infection

2nd or 3rd most common nosocomial infection (18-20%) and the most common nosocomial infection among surgery patients.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Infection

Bacteria present in a wound with symptoms, bacterial counts ≥ 105 cfu/mL, plus systemic and local signs of inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical site infection

Systemic and local signs of inflammation, bacterial counts ≥ 105 cfu/mL, and surgical wound infection = SSI (Surgical Site Infection)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical site infection period

Early infection presents within 30 days of procedure and Intermediate infection occurs between 1-3 months after surgery, as is the case of Late infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Late infection

Surgical site infection that presents more than 3 months after surgery.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prophylactic antibiotics rule

Once the incision is made, antibiotic delivery to the wound is impaired leading to needing antibiotics before incision.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sampling tip

Sterile saline solution should be used to swab surgical site infection sample, while antiseptic solutions should not be used to cleanse the wound prior to sampling.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

  • Surgical site infections (SSI) and skin and soft tissue infections are the focus.

Human Normal Microflora (Microbiome)

  • The microbial population that colonizes the human body is both numerous and diverse.
  • Colonization can be permanent or transient, lasting hours or days.
  • Organisms typically don't cause disease in their normal setting, but can if introduced to unprotected, sterile sites like blood or tissues.

Skin Microflora

  • Gram-Positive Bacteria:
  • Coagulase-negative staphylococci, such as S. epidermidis and S. hominis.
  • Corynebacterium spp.
  • Propionibacterium spp.
  • Micrococcus spp.
  • Staphylococcus aureus (carrier state).
  • Streptococcus pyogenes (carrier state).
  • Gram-Negative Bacteria:
  • Acinetobacter spp.
  • Escherichia coli
  • Gram-negative bacteria do not permanently colonize the skin because the skin environment is too dry.
  • They do not multiply on the skin surface.
  • Easily removed.
  • Fungi:
  • Candida spp.
  • Malassezia spp.

Risk Factors for Skin Infections

  • Changes in skin microbiota
  • Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes carrier state
  • Traumas like burns, fractures, bites, and stings
  • Surgical wounds
  • Diabetes
  • AIDS

Folliculitis

  • A minor pyogenic infection of the hair follicles.
  • Presents as a raised and reddened base of the follicle.
  • Small collection of pus beneath the epidermal surface
  • Is generally caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
  • Often associated with areas of friction and sweat gland activity, frequently on the neck, face, axillae, and buttocks.
  • Can manifest as a stye at the base of the eyelid.
  • Can also be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
  • Candida albicans can occasionally cause it, particularly in immunocompromised hosts.
  • Treatment involves drainage of lesions and antimicrobial treatments like topical aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, macrolides, lincosamides, and mupirocin.

Furuncle

  • An extension of folliculitis.
  • Is a large, painful, raised nodule containing underlying necrotic tissue.
  • Can drain spontaneously or after a surgical incision.
  • Is usually caused by S. aureus.
  • May be solitary or multiple (furunculosis).
  • Can be a recurrent issue.
  • Can involve spread of infection to the dermis and subcutaneous tissues, leading to a more extensive, multiloculated abscess called a carbuncle.
  • Treatment includes drainage of nodules, topical mupirocin for solitary furuncles, and systemic antibiotics like cloxacillin, clindamycin, cefadroxil, or a macrolide for furunculosis.

Carbuncle

  • Occurs when furuncles merge and extend into deeper subcutaneous tissue.
  • Patients may exhibit chills and fevers, indicating systemic spread of staphylococci via bacteremia to other tissues.

Acne Vulgaris

  • Inflammation of hair follicles and associated sebaceous glands.
  • Caused by Propionibacterium acnes, Corynebacterium spp., and Brevibacterium spp.
  • Primarily caused by hormonal influences on sebum secretion during puberty.
  • Typically resolves in early adulthood.
  • Treatment: may involve drainage of lesions; severe cases may require macrolides, tetracycline, or clindamycin.

Infection of Keratinized Layers

  • Only dermatophyte fungi can use keratin.
  • Dermatophytoses are fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.

Impetigo (Pyoderma)

  • Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci).
  • The initial lesion is a small vesicle that develops and ruptures, leading to a superficial spread characterized by skin erosion and a serous exudate that dries into a honey-colored crust.
  • Exudate and crust are highly communicable due to numerous infecting streptococci.
  • S. aureus may contaminate the lesions.
  • Epidemic impetigo: common in childhood, linked to heat, humidity, poor hygiene, and overcrowding.
  • Infection spreads via fomites like shared clothing and towels.
  • Nephritogenic strains of S. pyogenes can cause it, potentially leading to acute glomerulonephritis.
  • Treatment: Penicillins or cephalosporins.

Bullous Impetigo

  • A distinct disease caused by S. aureus strains that produce exfoliative toxin.
  • More common in small children, but can occur at any age.
  • Characterized by large serum-filled bullae (blisters) within the skin layers.
  • Culture positive, indicating high communicability.
  • Epidemic spread can occur under conditions similar to streptococcal impetigo.
  • Minor infections are treated topically with aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, macrolides, lincosamides, or mupirocin.
  • Serious disease in infants requires systemic antimicrobial treatment.

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

  • Also known as Ritter disease.
  • Caused by S. aureus strains producing exfoliative toxin.
  • Has abrupt onset of localized perioral erythema that spreads over the entire body within 2 days.
  • Cutaneous blisters form, followed by desquamation of the epithelium.
  • Blisters contain clear fluid without organisms, because the disease is caused by a bacterial toxin.
  • Slight pressure displaces the skin (positive Nikolsky sign).
  • The epithelium becomes intact again within 7-10 days as antibodies against the toxin appear.
  • Primarily affects neonates and young children, with a mortality rate less than 5%.
  • In adults with immunocompromised hosts, the mortality may be as high as 60%.

Erysipelas

  • A serious, rapidly spreading infection of the deeper layers of the dermis.
  • It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
  • Associated with edema of the skin, marked erythema, pain, systemic manifestations of fever, and lymphadenopathy.
  • Lower extremities are commonly involved.
  • As the infection is intradermal, streptococci cannot be isolated from the skin surfaces.
  • Can progress to bacteremia or local necrosis of skin.
  • Treatment involves penicillins or cephalosporins.

Wounds Infections

  • Wounds subject to infection can be surgical, traumatic (deep cuts, compound fractures, frostbite necrosis, thermal burns) or physiologic (endometrial surface after separation of the placenta, and the umbilical stump).
  • Sources of wound infection:
  • The patient’s normal flora, material from infected individuals or carriers, pathogens from the environment.

Factors Contributing to Wound Infections Include

  • Contaminating dose and virulence of microorganisms, condition of the wound, and general health of the patient.
  • The condition of the wound, areas of necrosis, vascular strangulation from excessively tight sutures, excessive edema, poor blood supply and oxygenation.
  • The general health, nutritional status, and ability of patients to mount an inflammatory response.
  • Prevention of wound infections: the first 3 hours after contamination is the critical period to avoid contamination.
  • Restrict prophylactic chemotherapy to operative and immediate perioperation

Classification of Wounds

  • Clean: Surgical wounds made under aseptic conditions that do not traverse infected tissues or extend into sites with normal flora.
  • Clean Contaminated: Operative wounds that extend into sites with normal flora (except the colon) without known contamination.
  • Contaminated: Fresh surgical and traumatic wounds with a major risk of contamination; incisions entering nonpurulent infected tissues.
  • Dirty and Infected: Old, infected traumatic wounds, wounds substantially contaminated with foreign material, and wounds contaminated with spillage from perforated viscera.

Etiologic Agents

  • Traumatic wounds may involve Clostridium spp., Enterobacteriaceae, or Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
  • Surgical (Clean) wounds: Staphylococcus aureus, Enterobacteriaceae, Streptococcus pyogenes.
  • Surgical (Dirty) wounds: Staphylococcus aureus, Enterobacteriaceae, Anaerobes (Bacteroides fragilis, Fusobacterium spp., Peptostreptococcus spp.).
  • Burns: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, Enterobacteriaceae, Acinetobacter spp., Candida albicans, Anaerobes (often mixed etiology).
  • Animal Bites: Pasteurella multocida.
  • Human Bites: Anaerobes.
  • Postpartum uterine infections: Can range from self-limiting infections to severe infections leading to bacteremia, mostly caused by gram-positive and gram-negative anaerobes.
  • Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS – group B streptococci): all pregnant women should be screened for colonization (vaginal and rectal) with GBS at 35 to 37 weeks of gestation; perinatal chemoprophylaxis is recommended for pregnant women with positive vaginal or rectal culture for GBS at 35 to 37 weeks of gestation.
  • Postpartum Uterine Infections: Normal delivery without retained fragment rarely results in infection. A prolonged delivery after membrane rupture with retained placental fragments, results in a increased risk of infection

Gas Gangrene (Clostridial Myositis)

  • Develops within hours of traumatic injury, leading to death.
  • Compound fractures, gunshot wounds, and injuries allow entry of clostridial spores.
  • Associated with muscle trauma and necrosis needed for anaerobic multiplication.
  • Clostridium perfringens is the most common cause; its α-toxin causes spreading tissue damage and muscle death.
  • Other aerobic and anaerobic bacteria may have a major etiologic role also.
  • Prevention requires surgically debriding necrotic tissue and administering high-dose penicillin.

Streptococcus Pyogenes Infections

  • Necrotizing fasciitis (streptococcal gangrene): A deep skin infection with muscle and fat layer destruction.

Cellulitis

  • Not a skin infection but can develop with expansion from skin or wound infection
  • It is an acute inflammation of subcutaneous connective tissue with swelling, pain, fever, and lymphadenopathy
  • Caused by various bacterial pathogens, S. aureus and S. pyogenes are the most common
  • H. influenzae type b: Common in infants and children.
  • Enteric Gram-negative rods, clostridia, and other: May cause cellulitis particularly in immunocompromised and diabetics.
  • Treatment: Systemic, penicillins.

Laboratory Diagnosis

  • Involves microscopic examination and culture.
  • Staphylococci culture grow rapidly on nonselective media, aerobically or anaerobically.
  • They form large, smooth colonies within 24 hours.
  • S. aureus colonies turn yellow.
  • Most isolates of S. aureus and some CNS strains produce: hemolysis on sheep blood agar, strep is similar and is catalase negative whereas staph is positive
  • Gram-positive cocci are identified using a catalase test.
  • Staphylococcus gives a positive result
  • Streptococcus spp and Enterococcus spp give a negative result.
  • Simple biochemical tests are used to distinguish between different S. aureus species that is catalase positive.
  • Coagulase tests are positive
  • Mannitol fermentation is positive.

Surgical Site Infections (SSI)

  • Ranked as the 2nd or 3rd most common nosocomial infection (18-20%).
  • The most frequent nosocomial infection among surgery patients.
  • 2/3 are incisional SSI, 1/3 are organ SSI.
  • Definitions include colonization (bacteria present in wound without signs), contamination (transient exposure of a wound to bacteria/prophylaxis is the best strategy), and infection (systemic and local signs of inflammation with bacterial counts ≥ 105 cfu/mL).
  • Surgical wound infection defined as SSI.
  • Primary SSIs occur at the primary site of infection, while secondary occur as a complication elsewhere.
  • Early infections present within 30 days of procedure, intermediate infections occur between 1-3 months, and late infections present after 3 months of surgery.
  • Antibiotics must be given before first incision, delivery of antibiotics gets impaired once the incision is made

Wound Culture

  • Involves swab, biopsy, and aspiration.
  • Sterile saline solution should be used to clean wound prior to swabbing, antiseptic should not be used prior to sampling.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser