116 Questions
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
Disruption of DNA replication and cell division
Why are fluoroquinolones considered broad-spectrum agents?
Their action on DNA replication affects a wide range of bacteria
Which enzyme do fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin inhibit in bacteria?
DNA gyrase
What happens when bacteria develop resistance to fluoroquinolones?
They lose sensitivity to the antibiotics over time
Which of the following bacteria are sensitive to ciprofloxacin according to the text?
Both aerobic gram-negative and some gram-positive bacteria
Why is ciprofloxacin considered a prototype for the fluoroquinolone group?
It was one of the first fluoroquinolones developed
Ciprofloxacin is NOT effective against which type of infections?
Anaerobic infections
Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of ciprofloxacin?
Allergic reactions
What type of infection is Delafloxacin specifically used for?
Skin and skin structure infections
Ofloxacin is primarily used for the treatment of which condition?
Gastrointestinal tract infections
What is the main mechanism of action of metronidazole?
Inhibiting DNA synthesis
'QT prolongation' is a potential side effect associated with which fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
Moxifloxacin and Gemifloxacin
'Tendon rupture' is a serious adverse effect associated with ciprofloxacin use in which age group?
Persons aged 60 and older
'Phototoxicity' is a potential side effect linked to the use of which antibiotic?
Ciprofloxacin
Which bacteria are insensitive to metronidazole due to their inability to activate it?
Aerobic bacteria
Which of these drugs can reduce the absorption of ciprofloxacin if taken together?
Iron salts
What is the degree to which those who have a disease screen or test positive?
Sensitivity
Which viral infection is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States?
Human papilloma virus
Which strains of human papilloma virus have the highest oncogenic potential to produce anogenital carcinoma?
Types 16, 18, 31
What is the preferred treatment for uncomplicated infections in infants with pneumonia?
Erythromycin for 14 days
What method can be used to make subclinical lesions visible in diagnosing HPV?
Acetowhitening
What is the most common cause of oropharyngeal cancer?
Oral human papilloma virus infection
What is the main preventive measure against genital warts?
HPV vaccination
What is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease in the United States?
Chlamydia
Which antibiotic is NOT recommended for the treatment of chancroid?
Vancomycin
What is one of the BBW associated with Metronidazole?
Carcinogenic risk in mice and rats
What is the main diagnostic test for chlamydia?
Nucleic acid amplification test
Which infection does Metronidazole NOT typically treat?
Pneumonia
What is a characteristic symptom of chancroid in men?
Thick cloudy penile discharge
What is the primary organism that causes chancroid?
Hemophilus ducreyi
What is the recommendation for treatment of uncomplicated cervix, urethra, rectum infection according to the CDC guidelines?
Ceftriaxone
Which medication can be applied twice daily for three days, off four days, and may be repeated every week for one to four weeks in the treatment of genital warts?
Podofilox gel
Which method of diagnosis is considered the gold standard for diagnosing gonorrhea?
Nucleic acid amplification test
What symptoms may women present with in cases of gonorrhea involving pelvic inflammatory disease?
Abdominal pain
What is a significant risk factor for gonorrhea infection according to the text?
Having more than one sex partner
What is the organism responsible for causing gonorrhea?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
How long should imiquimod cream be left on before washing it off in home treatments for genital warts?
6-10 hours
What is the primary mode of transmission of gonorrhea from an infected mother to her newborn during delivery?
Vertical transmission
Which medication is not recommended for treating vaginal warts due to the risk of fistula formation?
Cryotherapy
What is a common asymptomatic presentation of early gonorrhea infection, particularly among women?
Thin, purulent and mildly odorous discharge from the vagina
What is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated gonococcal infection of the throat in individuals weighing over 150 kg?
Ceftriaxone 1 g IM
What allergic reaction warrants consultation with an infectious disease specialist when considering treatment?
IgE-mediated reactions
What is the recommended initial treatment for infants with gonococcal conjunctivitis?
Ceftriaxone 25-50 mg/kg IV or IM
What is the usual incubation period for genital herpes?
2-12 days
What symptoms may a primary infection of genital herpes present with?
Painful ulcerations, malaise, and headache
What diagnostic test has higher sensitivity than viral tissue culture for detecting HSV?
HSV PCR
When should serologic assays for genital herpes usually become positive after symptom onset?
Within four to six weeks of symptom onset
What can be done if a patient diagnosed with genital herpes has a low positive result in serologic testing?
> Three months wait for retesting
What is the recommended treatment for neurosyphilis?
Aqueous crystalline penicillin G IV every four hours for 10 to 14 days
In late congenital syphilis, what are some of the common clinical manifestations in babies?
Blindness and cataracts
What is the diagnostic test recommended for confirming positive syphilis cases in primary and secondary stages?
Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption
When should desensitization be considered in syphilis treatment?
For penicillin allergic patients who have HIV, are children, or are pregnant
Which statement about partner therapy in syphilis is correct?
'Expedited partner therapy' should be considered if partners cannot be promptly linked to clinical evaluation
What is the recommended treatment regimen for latent syphilis without evidence of neurosyphilis?
Benzathine penicillin G IM weekly for three doses
What are the implications of pregnancy in individuals with a certain sexually transmitted disease?
Possibility of transmitting the infection to the newborn
Which of the following is recommended for comfort in managing the lesions associated with the sexually transmitted disease discussed?
Cool compresses with Burow's solution
What is a key recommendation regarding sexual contact for individuals with the discussed sexually transmitted disease?
Avoid sexual contact during asymptomatic periods
Which medication is mentioned as being preferred due to its dosing frequency for individuals with the discussed sexually transmitted disease?
Valacyclovir
What finding suggests primary syphilis in a patient presenting with this sexually transmitted disease?
Painless chancre at the side of inoculation
Which population group is not listed as a risk factor for syphilis in the text?
Individuals with osteoporosis
What is a characteristic symptom associated with secondary syphilis?
'Bullous or vesicular' rashes on hands and feet
Which organ system is primarily affected in tertiary syphilis?
Cardiovascular system
What manifestation distinguishes congenital syphilis from other forms of the disease?
Failure to thrive and jaundice
How does the risk of syphilis compare to that of gonorrhea according to the text?
Syphilis occurs less frequently than gonorrhea.
What is the primary cause of bacterial vaginosis?
Loss of normal vaginal flora
Which factor is NOT associated with an increased risk of bacterial vaginosis?
Hormonal therapy
What symptom is NOT typically associated with bacterial vaginosis?
Redness and edema
What is the significance of hydrogen peroxide producing lactobacilli in preventing bacterial vaginosis?
They decrease the concentration of anaerobic organisms
How does bacterial vaginosis differ in its occurrence between women of childbearing age and post-menopausal women?
It is less common in post-menopausal women
What is the role of lactobacilli in the context of bacterial vaginosis?
They prevent anaerobic organism overgrowth
What is the most common side effect associated with the topical use of ciclopirox for skin infections?
Dermatitis
Which antifungal drug is more effective than Undecylenic Acid in treating tinea pedis?
Butenafine
Which category of systemic mycoses includes infections primarily seen in debilitated or immunocompromised hosts?
Opportunistic infections
Why is tolnaftate not effective against Candida species?
It is inactive against non-dermatophyte fungi
What is the drug of choice for most systemic mycoses due to its broad-spectrum activity against pathogenic fungi?
Amphotericin B
What distinguishes Butenafine from true allylamines like naftifine and terbinafine?
Its different chemical structure
What is the mechanism by which Amphotericin B reduces fungal viability?
Increasing fungal cell membrane permeability
Which superficial mycosis is Tolnaftate NOT commonly used to treat?
Tinea versicolor
What adverse effect is commonly associated with intravenous infusions of Amphotericin B?
Renal impairment
Why is oral therapy primarily used for onychomycosis rather than topical therapy?
Onychomycosis requires deeper penetration for treatment
Which formulation of Amphotericin B is known for causing less toxicity but is more expensive than the conventional formulation?
Lipid-based formulations
'Fever, chills, nausea, and headache' occurring during Amphotericin B infusion are due to the release of which substances from immune cells?
Proinflammatory cytokines
What intervention can be used to minimize kidney damage associated with Amphotericin B therapy?
Infusing 1L of saline on treatment days
Which class of antifungal drugs inhibits the biosynthesis of β-1,3-d-glucan, an essential component of the fungal cell wall?
Echinocandins
'Normocytic, normochromic anemia' is a side effect associated with Amphotericin B due to its effect on which body system?
Hematologic system
What is the mechanism of action of itraconazole in inhibiting fungal growth?
Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis
Which type of cell membrane component does Amphotericin B bind to in order to exert its antifungal effects?
Ergosterol
Which antifungal drug is taken up by fungal cells and converted to 5-FU, disrupting fungal DNA and RNA synthesis?
Flucytosine
What is a recommended strategy for reducing mild infusion reactions during Amphotericin B therapy?
Pretreatment with diphenhydramine plus acetaminophen
Which antifungal drug has a narrow spectrum limited mainly to Aspergillus and Candida species?
Caspofungin
Which antifungal drug increases membrane permeability and leakage of cellular components by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
Itraconazole
Which test is considered the single most reliable predictor of bacterial vaginosis?
Presence of more than 20% clue cells on wet mount microscopy
Which antifungal drug suppresses hepatic cytochrome P450 drug-metabolizing enzymes and can raise levels of other drugs?
Itraconazole
What is the incubation period range for trichomonas infection?
10-28 days
'Cardiac suppression' leading to a transient decrease in ventricular ejection fraction is a potential adverse effect of which antifungal drug?
Itraconazole
What is the recommended treatment regimen for bacterial vaginosis in pregnant women?
Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
'Hepatotoxicity' and inhibition of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes are associated with which antifungal drug?
Flucytosine
Which antifungal drug acts by disrupting the fungal cell membrane rather than the cell wall?
Amphotericin B
What is a symptom that women infected with trichomonas may not commonly present with?
Post-coital bleeding
Which diagnostic test is NOT recommended for confirming trichomonas infection?
Pap smear
Which antifungal drug is indicated for IV therapy of invasive aspergillosis and systemic Candida infections?
Caspofungin
What is the primary method of visualizing trichomonads on a slide?
Flagellated motile cells slightly smaller than white blood cells
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for trichomonas infection?
'NAAT PCR'
'OSOM BVBlue system' is a diagnostic test based on the presence of which enzyme?
'Sialidase' enzyme
'Trichomonas vaginalis' primarily infects which type of epithelium in the urogenital tract?
'Squamous' epithelium
'Trichomonads' may be visualized as what type of cells on wet mount microscopy?
'Flagellated motile cells'
Which dermatophytic infection is the most difficult to treat according to the text?
Tinea capitis
What is the primary treatment recommendation for tinea cruris that is severely inflamed?
Systemic glucocorticoids
Which antifungal drug is specifically mentioned as working only for Trichophyton rubrum infections?
Ciclopirox
What is the primary mechanism of action of naftifine in treating fungal infections?
Inhibiting squalene epoxidase
Which dermatophyte treatment has the longest duration recommended for toenail infections?
Terbinafine
What is a unique characteristic of the drug terbinafine compared to other antifungal treatments?
Active against dermatophytes but not Candida species
What is the recommended treatment duration for tinea pedis with topical therapy?
> 1 week
Which systemic antifungal agent may be needed for severe cases of tinea corporis?
Griseofulvin
What is the primary cause of vulvovaginal candida infections according to the text?
Systemic antibiotics
What is a key feature of terbinafine's mechanism of action in treating fungal infections?
Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis
Test your knowledge on sexually transmitted diseases, including their transmission, implications during pregnancy, and management strategies such as using condoms and pain relief methods. Learn about counseling discordant couples and comfort measures for lesions.
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