Staphylococci and Pathogenesis Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary role of coagulase in Staphylococcus aureus?

  • Stimulating T-cells
  • Binding with prothrombin (correct)
  • Activating plasminogen
  • Hydrolyzing hyaluronic acid

Which toxin is primarily responsible for scalded skin syndrome in neonates?

  • Epidermolytic toxin (ET) (correct)
  • Staphylokinase
  • Coagulase
  • Enterotoxin

What is the most common cause of wound infections in horses?

  • S. zooepidemicus (correct)
  • S. uberis
  • S. equisimilis
  • S. dysagalactiae

What is the function of staphylokinase?

<p>Activating plasminogen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which strain of Streptococcus is often associated with mastitis in cows?

<p>S. uberis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which strain does not react in the Lancefield grouping system?

<p>S. uberis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of activity does the epidermolytic toxin display?

<p>Protease activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common disease associated with S. equisimilis in pigs?

<p>Suppurative arthritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are forms of epidermolytic toxin?

<p>ETA and ETB (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of superantigens in the context of toxic shock syndrome?

<p>Stimulating T-cells without normal antigenic recognition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most likely to occur due to S. dysagalactiae?

<p>Acute, severe mastitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does hyaluronidase hydrolyze, and what is its significance?

<p>Hyaluronic acid; acts as a spreading factor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristics of S. zooepidemicus?

<p>Normal commensal of the skin and upper respiratory tract (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with S. dysagalactiae in foals and young horses?

<p>Secondary invader of upper respiratory infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which extracellular protein is known to provide nutrients for bacteria?

<p>FAME (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of protective measure has been shown to be effective against certain Streptococcus infections?

<p>Vaccine administration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following toxins specifically acts on polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

<p>Leukocidin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major virulence factor associated with the membrane-damaging effects in Staphylococcus aureus infections?

<p>Alpha toxin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which superantigen is known to cause severe symptoms such as diarrhea and vomiting?

<p>Staphylococcal enterotoxin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does A-toxin (alpha toxin) achieve its toxic effect on susceptible cells?

<p>By forming hexameric rings that create pores (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines beta toxin's mechanism of action?

<p>Membrane damage due to sphingomyelinase C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common effect caused by the action of superantigens?

<p>Release of inflammatory mediators (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which toxin is produced separately and acts together with leukocidin to damage cellular membranes?

<p>Gamma-toxin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is true regarding Panton-Valentine (PV) leukocidin?

<p>It is non-hemolytic but has potent leukotoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus during infections?

<p>Destruction of host cell membranes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enterotoxin serotype is NOT commonly associated with food poisoning?

<p>Serotype F (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the cultural features of Rhodococcus equi as noted in laboratory observations?

<p>Colonies are raised, moist, and translucent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the biochemistry of Rhodococcus equi?

<p>It is catalase and urease positive with cytochrome c negative (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of media supports the growth of Rhodococcus equi?

<p>All ordinary media, not fastidious (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following species has been reported to cause lesions in animals?

<p>Rhodococcus equi (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic separates Rhodococcus equi from most other coryneform organisms?

<p>It produces phospholipase and cholesterol oxidase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the red pigment produced by the Actinomycetales order of species?

<p>It is an indicator of pathogenicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process does Rhodococcus equi NOT perform?

<p>Forms indole (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pneumonia is associated with Rhodococcus equi infections?

<p>Purulent pneumonia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of polyvalent antitoxin in relation to toxin binding?

<p>It prevents the binding of toxins to nerve membranes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disease is associated with Clostridium perfringens in sheep?

<p>Lamb dysentery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of group is Clostridium septicum classified under?

<p>Tissue-invading group (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diseases is caused by Clostridium difficile?

<p>Enterotoxemia in hamsters (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of testing for toxins in serum and intestinal contents?

<p>To confirm toxin-related diseases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Clostridium species is associated with subcutaneous abscesses in cats?

<p>Clostridium villosum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Polyvalent toxoid is known to protect against which of the following diseases?

<p>Blackquarter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition does Clostridium spiroforme cause primarily in rabbits?

<p>Enterotoxemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Corynebacterium renale in culture?

<p>Rapidly digested, soft curd in litmus milk (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key difference between Corynebacterium renale and the other two species of Corynebacterium that cause bovine urinary tract infections?

<p>Antigenic pilus protein structure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the Corynebacterium renale infection being more prevalent in female animals?

<p>Female animals have different urinary tract anatomy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the presence of Corynebacterium renale usually diagnosed?

<p>Microscopic examination of urine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics is considered the antibiotic of choice for treating Corynebacterium renale infections?

<p>Penicillin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the primary means of transmission of Corynebacterium renale?

<p>Contaminated urine droplets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common outcome in untreated cases of Corynebacterium renale infection?

<p>Chronic kidney disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Corynebacterium renale being able to produce caseinase?

<p>It contributes to the formation of soft curd in litmus milk. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Classical Test

The lysis of sheep RBCs by IgG at low temperatures.

Leukocidin

A toxin that acts specifically on polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

Alpha Toxin

A potent membrane-damaging toxin and major virulence factor from S. aureus.

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

Distinct leukocidin that is potent in causing skin lesions.

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Beta Toxin

A sphingomyelinase C that damages membranes rich in sphingomyelin.

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Superantigens

Toxins that can cause strong immune responses, such as enterotoxins.

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Enterotoxins

Serotypes A, B, C, D, E, and G that cause diarrhea and vomiting.

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Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST1)

A superantigen causing toxic shock syndrome, associated with severe illness.

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Eicosanoids and Cytokines

Mediators released due to toxins, causing inflammatory responses.

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Gamma Toxin

A two-component toxin that damages cell membranes.

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Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)

A severe condition often related to tampon use and superantigen activity, causing high cytokine release.

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Coagulase

An extracellular protein that binds prothrombin to form staphylothrombin, important in blood clotting.

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Staphylokinase

A plasminogen activator that dissolves fibrin clots, aiding bacterial spread.

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Epidermolytic Toxin (ET)

A toxin causing scalded skin syndrome, leading to blistering and skin loss in neonates.

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Hyaluronidase

An enzyme that hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid, acting as a spreading factor for bacteria.

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Exfoliative Toxin (ET)

Includes ETA and ETB, causes epidermis integrity loss through specific protein targeting.

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Bound Coagulase

Clumping factor on the S. aureus cell surface that binds fibrinogen.

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Homologous antitoxin

A protective agent derived from the same species that produces the toxin.

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Polyvalent toxoid

A type of vaccine containing multiple antigens to protect against various toxoid diseases.

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Clostridium chauvoei

A bacterium causing diseases like blackleg, affecting livestock.

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Clostridium septicum

Bacterium known for conditions like malignant edema and Braxy.

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Clostridium perfringens

Bacterium causing various diseases like yellow lamb disease and enterotoxemia.

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Necrotic enteritis

An infection leading to death of tissue in the intestines, often in livestock.

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Enterotoxemia

A condition resulting from toxins in the intestines, common in overfed animals.

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Clostridium difficile

Bacterium causing enterotoxemia, particularly in hamsters and human diseases.

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S. dysagalactiae

A pathogen often involved in wound infections and mastitis in cows.

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Acute severe mastitis

A serious inflammation of the mammary gland, often linked to S. dysagalactiae.

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Lancefield group C

A classification system for certain streptococci, including S. dysagalactiae.

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S. uberis

A pathogen causing bovine mastitis that does not react to Lancefield grouping.

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S. equisimilis

A bacterium closely related to S. zooepidemicus, linked to suppurative arthritis in pigs.

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S. zooepidemicus

A normal bacteria found on horse skin, related to upper respiratory infections.

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Vaccine for S. zooepidemicus

A vaccine that helps develop immunity against this pathogen.

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Coryneform organisms

Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria found in soil.

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Rhodococcus equi

A fast-growing bacterium causing pneumonia in horses.

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Growth media

Medium where bacteria grow; BAP and CNA are examples.

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Cultural features

Characteristics like colony size, shape, and color on media.

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Antimicrobial susceptibility

Bacteria's sensitivity to specific antimicrobial agents.

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Catalase test

Tests if an organism can break down hydrogen peroxide.

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Phospholipase production

Enzymes that hydrolyze phospholipids; notable in R. equi.

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Lesions in animals

Injuries or abnormal tissue caused by infections.

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Cystitis characteristics

White, circular, semitranslucent and pinpoint colonies.

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Cystitis common hosts

Most frequently found in female animals with mastitis, ureteritis, and pyelonephritis.

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C. renale in litmus milk

Produces soft curd and reduces medium alkalinity, separating into dark red fluid and sediment.

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C. renale enzyme

Only C. renale produces caseinase, breaking down casein in milk.

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Immunity in cows

Antibody response in cows with pyelonephritis, ineffective in cystitis alone.

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Corynebacterium transmission

Via contaminated urine droplets and adherence to aging epithelial cells.

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C. renale isolation

Most frequently isolated from pyelonephritis cases.

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Study Notes

Staphylococci

  • Perfectly spherical Gram-positive cocci, approximately 0.5 to 1µm in diameter
  • Grow in clusters like grapes (staphylo)
  • Two pigmented colony types: golden yellow (S. aureus) and white (S. albus/S. epidermidis)

Pathogenesis

  • Adherence of S. aureus to biomaterials implanted in the body
  • Host proteins, like fibrinogen, initially promote attachment; gradually, other ligands emerge
  • Surface proteins: promote colonization and attachment to host tissues (laminin and fibronectin)
  • Fibrinogen/fibrin binding (clumping factor) promotes attachment
  • Factors that inhibit phagocytosis: capsule

Virulence Factors

  • Surface proteins
    • promote colonization of host tissues
    • promote attachment to host tissues
  • Factors that inhibit phagocytosis (capsule, immunoglobulin-binding protein A)

Other Extracellular Proteins

  • Coagulase: binds with prothrombin to form staphylothrombin, activates thrombin
  • Staphylokinase: activates plasminogen to plasmin, digests fibrin clots
  • Hyaluronidase: hydrolyses hyaluronic acid (cementing substance)

Epidermolytic Toxin (ET)

  • Causes scalded skin syndrome in neonates
  • Two forms: ETA and ETB

Protein Toxins

  • Membrane-damaging toxins (Alpha toxin)
  • Best characterized and most potent membrane-damaging toxin
  • Binds to membrane, oligomerizes, and forms hexameric rings = central pore thru which cellular contents leak

Other bacterial species

  • S. intermedius: Most prevalent in dogs and carnivores
  • S. hyicus subsp. hyicus: Exudative epidermitis in swine

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