MKSAP 19 (ACS-Medical therapy for ACS)

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203 Questions

What is the defining characteristic of stable angina pectoris?

Reproducible angina of at least 2 months duration

Which demographic groups may present only with atypical symptoms of angina?

Women and patients with diabetes mellitus

What is the first step in diagnostic testing for angina?

Determining the pretest probability of coronary artery disease

What is the characteristic feature of unstable angina?

New onset angina or angina occurring at a relatively low level of exertion

What is the duration criterion for stable angina pectoris?

At least 2 months

Which of the following is a characteristic used to evaluate angina?

Radiation

What may some demographic groups, including women and patients with diabetes mellitus, present with as atypical symptoms of angina?

Exertional dyspnea

What is the first step in diagnostic testing for angina?

Determine the pretest probability of coronary artery disease

What type of angina is precipitated by a stable level of exertion or emotional stress and relieved with rest?

Stable angina

Which condition is associated with increased short-term risk for acute myocardial infarction?

Unstable angina

What is an important component of guideline-directed medical therapy for stable angina pectoris?

Regular physical activity

What is the goal of blood pressure control in patients with stable angina?

To achieve blood pressure control

What is the purpose of antianginal medications in the treatment of stable angina pectoris?

To improve functional capacity through reduced cardiac workload and/or increased myocardial oxygen delivery

What is a key component of guideline-directed medical therapy for stable angina pectoris?

Regular physical activity

What is the goal of antianginal medications in the treatment of stable angina pectoris?

Improve functional capacity through reduced cardiac workload and/or increased myocardial oxygen delivery

What is the primary purpose of cardioprotective medications in the treatment of stable angina pectoris?

Prevent thrombosis and limit atherosclerotic progression

Which of the following is a key component of guideline-directed medical therapy for stable angina pectoris?

Regular physical activity

What is the primary purpose of antianginal medications in the treatment of stable angina pectoris?

To improve fractional capacity through reduced cardiac workload

What is an important aspect of risk factor modification in the treatment of stable angina pectoris?

Tobacco cessation

What is the recommended first-line therapy in patients with stable angina?

B-Blockers

What is the recommended resting heart rate range to be achieved through B-Blocker dosage titration?

55/min to 60/min

Which type of B-Blocker is preferred in patients with significant lung disease?

B1-Selective B-Blockers

In patients with reduced left ventricular (LV) function, which B-Blockers are associated with reduced long-term mortality?

Metoprolol and carvedilol

What should be used with caution in patients taking B-Blockers due to additive negative inotropic and chronotropic effects?

(CCBs) Calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem)

What are the side effects of B-Blockers?

Fatigue, lethargy, sleep disturbances, and impotence

Why should caution be exercised in using B-Blockers in the setting of significant conduction disease or LV dysfunction?

They may worsen conduction abnormalities or LV dysfunction.

What is the recommended resting heart rate range to be achieved through B-Blocker dosage titration?

55/min to 60/min

Which type of B-Blocker is preferred in patients with significant lung disease?

Metoprolol

In patients with reduced left ventricular (LV) function, which B-Blockers are associated with reduced long-term mortality?

Metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol, carvedilol

What side effects are associated with B-Blockers?

Fatigue, lethargy, sleep disturbances

Why should caution be exercised in using B-Blockers in the setting of significant conduction disease or LV dysfunction?

They may cause hypotension and bradycardia

What is a key consideration when choosing a B-Blocker for patients with stable angina?

Concomitant medical conditions such as LV dysfunction or lung disease

What is the primary reason for caution when using B-Blockers in patients taking nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem)?

Additive negative inotropic and chronotropic effects

Which type of B-Blockers is preferred in patients with significant lung disease?

B1-Selective B-Blockers

What is the recommended resting heart rate range to be achieved through B-Blocker dosage titration?

55/min - 60/min

Which B-Blockers are associated with reduced long-term mortality in patients with reduced left ventricular (LV) function?

Metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol, and carvedilol

What are the side effects associated with B-Blockers?

Fatigue, lethargy, sleep disturbances, and impotence

Why should caution be exercised in using B-Blockers in the setting of significant conduction disease or LV dysfunction?

They may precipitate ventricular arrhythmias

What demographic groups may present only with atypical symptoms of angina?

Men over the age of 50 and women under the age of 40

Which type of calcium channel blockers should be avoided in the treatment of angina due to the risk of paradoxically worsening angina?

Short-acting dihydropyridine formulations

What is the recommended interval needed with long-acting nitrates to avoid the development of nitrate tolerance and reduced efficacy?

8 to 12 hours

Which medication can improve myocardial oxygen delivery through coronary vasodilation and reduce oxygen demand by reducing preload, thereby reducing ventricular wall stress?

Nitrates

Why should nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers not be used in patients with left ventricular (LV) dysfunction?

They increase adverse events associated with their negative chronotropic and inotropic effects

What is the potential consequence of using short-acting sublingual nitrates for acute relief of angina without combining them with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers?

Reflex tachycardia

What is the primary reason for prescribing short-acting sublingual nitrates for acute relief of angina?

For acute relief of angina

What is a potential side effect associated with long-acting nitrates?

Headache

What is a contraindication for concurrent use of ranolazine and phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors?

Hypotension

What effect does ranolazine have on the QT interval?

Modest prolonging effect

When should the QT interval be monitored in patients taking ranolazine?

With co-administration of other QT-prolonging drugs

What is the recommended action when patients are receiving moderate inhibitors of cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4)?

Dose reduction of ranolazine

Why should ranolazine not be used in combination with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors?

Resultant increases in ranolazine serum levels

What is the mechanism by which ranolazine reduces angina and increases exercise time?

Inhibition of the late sodium current and prevention of calcium overload

What is the primary reason for caution when using ranolazine in combination with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors?

Increased risk of hypotension

What is the mechanism of action by which ranolazine reduces angina?

Reduction of wall tension and myocardial oxygen consumption

When should the QT interval be monitored in patients taking ranolazine?

With co-administration of other QT-prolonging drugs

What is the effect of ranolazine on the QT interval?

Modest prolongation

In patients receiving moderate inhibitors of cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4), what is indicated regarding ranolazine dosage?

Dose reduction

What is contraindicated due to the risk for hypotension when using ranolazine?

Concurrent use with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors

Which type of calcium channel blockers should be avoided in the treatment of angina due to the risk of paradoxically worsening angina?

Short-acting dihydropyridine formulations

What is the primary reason for prescribing short-acting sublingual nitrates for acute relief of angina?

To provide rapid relief by acute lowering of blood pressure

Why should nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers not be used in patients with left ventricular (LV) dysfunction?

They increase adverse events due to negative chronotropic and inotropic effects

What is the potential consequence of using short-acting sublingual nitrates for acute relief of angina without combining them with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers?

Reflex tachycardia and increased myocardial oxygen demand

What is the recommended interval needed with long-acting nitrates to avoid the development of nitrate tolerance and reduced efficacy?

8 to 12 hours, generally at night

What is the mechanism by which long-acting nitrates improve myocardial oxygen delivery?

Coronary vasodilation and reduction in coronary vascular resistance

What is a potential side effect associated with long-acting nitrates?

Headache

Which medication is indicated for stable angina with concomitant left ventricular dysfunction, heart failure, and chronic kidney disease?

ACE inhibitor therapy

What is the first-line therapy for stable angina?

Aspirin

What should all patients with coronary artery disease be counseled on?

Lifestyle modification and blood pressure control

Patients with coronary artery disease should not be counseled on lifestyle modification, blood pressure control, and management of diabetes mellitus.

False

First-line therapy for stable angina includes aspirin, statin therapy, and p-blocker therapy.

True

ACE inhibitor therapy is not indicated for stable angina with concomitant left ventricular dysfunction, heart failure, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or history of myocardial infarction.

False

What is the primary goal of revascularization in stable syndromes?

To lessen angina and improve quality of life

In which patients is revascularization indicated for prevention of future events and improved survival?

Patients with left main CAD

When should patients with unstable or acute presentations undergo revascularization?

As soon as possible to prevent future events

Revascularization is indicated for prevention of future events and improved survival in unstable or acute presentations as well as in stable patients with high-risk anatomic or clinical features.

True

The primary goals of revascularization in stable syndromes are to lessen angina and improve quality of life.

True

Revascularization is not indicated for patients with angina refractory to medical therapy or markedly abnormal stress testing or coronary CT angiography results.

False

What do techniques like fractional flow reserve and instantaneous wave free ratio provide information on?

Functional hemodynamic significance of indeterminate lesions

What is the primary basis for identifying revascularization targets?

Anatomic and functional physiologic characteristics associated with myocardial ischemia

What is the purpose of revascularization in stable syndromes?

To reduce angina and improve quality of life

Fractional flow reserve and instantaneous wave free ratio provide information on the functional hemodynamic significance of indeterminate lesions identified on angiographic imaging.

True

Revascularization targets are identified based on anatomic and functional physiologic characteristics associated with myocardial ischemia.

True

Revascularization targets are identified based solely on anatomic characteristics associated with myocardial ischemia.

False

What is the primary indication for Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI)?

To improve coronary blood flow in patients with medically refractory angina

What is the most common type of stent used in PCI procedures currently?

First generation drug-eluting stent

In patients with stable angina, how does PCI compare to guideline-directed medical therapy in reducing the risk for death or myocardial infarction (MI)?

Guideline-directed medical therapy is more effective than PCI

PCI is indicated to relieve symptoms in patients with medically refractory angina, those unable to tolerate optimal medical therapy, and those with high risk features on non-invasive testing.

True

PCI has been shown to be superior to guideline directed medical therapy in reducing the risk for death or MI in patients with stable angina with or without diabetes.

False

Most PCI procedures currently involve second generation drug eluting stent placement, which reduces the risk for in stent restenosis compared with bare metal stenting.

True

What is the primary benefit of coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) with optimal medical therapy for patients with multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD)?

Decreased recurrence of angina, lower rates of MI, and fewer repeat revascularization procedures

In which patient population is CABG associated with improved survival?

Patients with left main or three vessel CAD

What is the impact of myocardial viability on survival and ventricular recovery following revascularization in patients with LV dysfunction?

It is associated with improved survival and ventricular recovery

Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is generally recommended for patients with multivessel CAD due to its association with improved survival and decreased recurrence of angina.

True

CABG results in lower rates of MI and fewer repeat revascularization procedures compared with PCI or medical therapy alone.

True

Myocardial viability testing before revascularization has been established as a predictor of outcome.

False

What is the minimum duration of dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) recommended for patients treated with bare metal stent placement?

1 month

For how long is dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) recommended for patients with stable angina after drug eluting stent placement, according to current guidelines?

6 months without interruption

In patients at high risk for bleeding, what duration of dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) followed by lifelong antiplatelet monotherapy is supported by current evidence?

3 months of DAPT

For patients requiring oral anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation, when can warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant (preferred) plus clopidogrel be considered without aspirin?

After 2 to 4 weeks of triple therapy

Revascularization is only indicated for a specific duration of time

False

Aspirin is recommended indefinitely after revascularization

True

DAPT duration depends on clinical considerations such as patient presentation and bleeding and ischemic risks

True

In patients requiring oral anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation, warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant plus clopidogrel can be considered without aspirin, often after 2 to 4 weeks of triple therapy

True

What is the preferred revascularization method for stable angina patients with left main or three-vessel coronary artery disease?

Coronary artery bypass graft revascularization

How long should dual antiplatelet therapy be continued after drug eluting stent placement in patients with stable angina who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention?

At least 6 months

What is the impact of percutaneous coronary intervention on mortality and risk for myocardial infarction in patients with stable angina?

Does not decrease mortality or risk for myocardial infarction

In patients with coronary artery disease and severe left ventricular dysfunction, how does coronary artery bypass grafting compare with medical therapy in terms of survival?

Survival is better with coronary artery bypass grafting

Is percutaneous coronary intervention the preferred revascularization method for patients with left main or three-vessel coronary artery disease or multivessel coronary artery disease plus diabetes mellitus?

False

Is ten-year survival improved in patients with coronary artery disease and severe left ventricular dysfunction who undergo coronary artery bypass grafting compared with those who receive medical therapy?

True

Should dual antiplatelet therapy be continued for at least 6 months after drug eluting stent placement in patients with stable angina who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention?

True

Does percutaneous coronary intervention decrease mortality or risk for myocardial infarction in patients with stable angina?

False

What is the key differentiation between ST elevation MI (STEMI) and non ST elevation acute coronary syndrome (NSTE ACS)?

Findings on ECG

What ECG feature is characteristic of Posterior MI?

ST segment depression in the anterior leads (V1 through V4)

What is a potential equivalent of ST elevation MI (STEMI)?

New bundle branch block

How is NSTE-ACS categorized?

According to the presence of serum biomarkers of myocardial injury

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) can result from acute or subacute plaque rupture or erosion and coronary blood flow impairment.

True

ST elevation MI (STEMI) is differentiated from non ST elevation acute coronary syndrome (NSTE ACS) by findings on ECG.

True

Posterior MI typically manifests as ST segment elevation in the anterior leads (V1 through V4) with tall R waves.

False

New bundle branch block may be considered a STEMI equivalent and potentially reflects an acute left anterior descending artery occlusion or extensive injury.

True

Which ECG finding is commonly associated with patients presenting with accelerated hypertension, significant LV hypertrophy, and cardiomyopathies?

ST-segment elevation injury currents

What ECG changes may look similar to ST segment elevation injury currents but are typically concave in appearance?

ST-segment elevation injury currents

What ECG findings are associated with patients presenting with supraventricular tachycardias?

ST-segment depression

What is a distinguishing feature of acute pericarditis that helps differentiate it from ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

Localized concave ST-segment elevation

What is a diagnostic clue for acute aortic syndromes that can cause ST-segment elevation?

Mediastinal widening on chest radiograph

What is the manifestation of transmural myocardial ischemia in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

ST-segment elevation

What is the primary purpose of reperfusion therapy in the context of STEMI?

Restore coronary blood flow

Severe hypercalcemia may result in ST segment depression that mimics ACS.

False

Supraventricular tachycardias may present with chest pain, ST-segment elevation, and elevated cardiac enzyme levels.

False

Comparison with previous ECG findings is not helpful in identifying acute changes.

False

ST-segment elevation in acute pericarditis is usually concave in shape and may be diffusely or locally distributed

True

Acute aortic syndromes can cause ST-segment elevation only if the dissection involves the left coronary artery

False

Reperfusion therapy for STEMI should be initiated rapidly to restore blood flow to the myocardium

True

Acute pericarditis and myopericarditis can cause confusion in diagnosis due to release of cardiac enzymes

True

What is the goal time from first medical contact until PPCI?

90 minutes or less

Why is PPCI preferred over thrombolysis for treating STEMI?

PPCI achieves higher and more reliable vessel patency rates

When is PPCI the preferred method of treating STEMI?

When the patient presents to a PCI-capable hospital

PPCI is the preferred method of treating STEMI when the patient can be transferred quickly to a PCI-capable center

True

The goal time from first medical contact until PPCI is 120 minutes or less

False

PPCI results in higher and more reliable vessel patency compared to thrombolysis

True

When is thrombolytic therapy recommended for patients with STEMI?

When symptom onset is within 12 hours and PPCI is not available within 120 minutes

Which thrombolytic agents are associated with improved infarct artery patency and fewer allergic reactions compared to streptokinase?

Alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase

When does fibrin cross linking render the clot relatively resistant to lysis in thrombolytic therapy for STEMI?

After the first 3 to 6 hours from symptom onset

Thrombolytic therapy is recommended for patients with STEMI even if PPCI is available within 120 minutes of first medical contact

False

Thrombolytic therapy is most effective within the first 3 to 6 hours from symptom onset

True

Newer fibrin specific thrombolytic agents are associated with improved infarct artery patency and fewer allergic reactions compared to streptokinase

True

What is the recommended loading dose of aspirin for all patients without a specific contraindication?

81-162 mg

What is the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy?

Bleeding

What ECG finding confirms reperfusion after thrombolytic therapy, reflected by at least 50% improvement in maximal ST segment elevation?

$ ext{At least 50% improvement in maximal ST segment elevation}$

What is the recommended action when rescue PCI is available following thrombolytic therapy?

$ ext{Immediate transfer to a PCI capable center}$

Thrombolytic therapy is without risk of bleeding.

False

All patients without a specific contraindication should receive a loading dose of aspirin.

True

Clopidogrel loading has been demonstrated to decrease rates of vessel patency.

False

Rescue PCI is associated with improved outcomes compared with conservative management in cases of failed reperfusion.

True

What is a potential consequence of untreated cardiogenic shock?

Acute kidney failure

Which factor is associated with a higher rate of survival in patients with cardiogenic shock?

Age younger than 75 years

What is the primary purpose of weaning the patient from mechanical and inotropic support in cardiogenic shock treatment?

To reduce reliance on external support

What is the recommended approach for managing atrial fibrillation in patients with STEMI?

Managing it as it complicates management

What is the recommended action for postinfarction ventricular arrhythmias occurring beyond 48 hours?

Prolonged inpatient telemetry and predischarge implantable cardioverter defibrillator therapy

What is the recommended approach for managing accelerated idioventricular rhythm that arises after reperfusion?

No treatment required

When does Mobitz type 2 second degree atrioventricular block require permanent pacing?

When it progresses to complete heart block

Ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation may occur during MI or after reperfusion.

True

Routine suppression of ventricular ectopy with antiarrhythmic agents is recommended and is associated with increased arrhythmias and adverse outcomes.

False

Cardiogenic shock is a common complication of STEMI.

True

Permanent pacing is often required for atrioventricular block, including Wenckebach and complete heart block, after inferior infarction.

False

Cardiogenic shock carries a mortality rate of 50% to 80%, and must be recognized early.

True

Untreated cardiogenic shock can progress rapidly to end organ failure.

True

Patients younger than 75 years have a higher rate of survival if they receive emergent revascularization.

True

What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for LV apical thrombus in cases of anterior STEMI?

At least 3 months

How is right ventricular (RV) infarction typically identified?

ST segment elevation on right sided ECG leads

What may be revealed by transthoracic echocardiography in cases of RV infarction?

RV dilatation and dysfunction

What is contraindicated in cases of LV free wall rupture to avoid worsening hypotension?

Nitrates

LV apical thrombus is generally not treated with anticoagulation in cases of anterior STEMI without other indications, such as atrial fibrillation.

False

Right ventricular (RV) infarction can be identified by ST segment elevation on right sided ECG leads V1 and V4R.

True

Nitrates are contraindicated in cases of RV infarction because they may worsen hypotension by reducing preload.

True

LV free wall rupture is more common in younger adults, men, and patients with delayed reperfusion.

False

What is the most common presentation of patients with acquired ventricular septal defect (VSD) from septal wall rupture following STEMI?

Worsening heart failure and shock

What is the approximate mortality rate in patients with medically treated postinfarct VSDs?

Approaches 100%

Why can percutaneous closure with a VSD occluder device be often unsuccessful in postinfarct VSDs?

Residual shunting around the device is common

What may result from interruption of the posteromedial papillary muscle blood supply during myocardial infarction?

Severe acute mitral regurgitation several days after STEMI

Patients with postinfarct VSDs typically present with worsening heart failure and shock

True

The mortality rate in patients with medically treated postinfarct VSDs approaches 50%

False

Percutaneous closure with a VSD occluder device is often successful in postinfarct VSDs

False

Interrupted blood supply to the posteromedial papillary muscle may result in severe acute mitral regurgitation several days after STEMI

True

What is the primary purpose of risk stratification in suspected NSTE ACS?

To determine the likelihood of a cardiac process

Which risk score predicts 14-day death, recurrent MI, and urgent revascularization rates in patients with suspected NSTE ACS?

TIMI

What do fractional flow reserve and instantaneous wave-free ratio provide information on in patients with stable angina?

Anatomic and functional physiologic characteristics associated with myocardial ischemia

What is the primary goal of revascularization in stable syndromes?

To improve blood flow to ischemic myocardium

NSTEMI ACS involves complete coronary obstruction resulting in ST segment elevation.

False

The TIMI risk score predicts in-hospital and post-discharge death and MI risk.

True

The GRACE risk score incorporates only clinical features and ECG findings.

False

Prognostic assessment helps determine the most appropriate therapeutic strategy.

True

When is urgent invasive treatment recommended for patients with NSTE ACS?

Within 2 hours for patients with hemodynamic instability

What is the timing for cardiac catheterization in patients with an elevated clinical risk score, significant ST segment deviation, or elevated cardiac biomarkers?

Usually performed within 24 hours of presentation

When is the choice of revascularization procedure (PCI or CABG) based on the results of angiography?

After cardiac catheterization within 24 hours of presentation

When is the ischemia guided approach appropriate?

For low risk patients

An early invasive strategy improves the composite clinical endpoint of death, recurrent MI, and repeat hospitalization compared with an ischemia-guided approach.

True

Cardiac catheterization is usually performed within 24 hours of presentation in patients with an elevated clinical risk score, significant ST segment deviation, or elevated cardiac biomarkers.

True

Patients with diabetes, stage 2 to 3 chronic kidney disease, LV dysfunction, and recent PCI without elevated risk scores may be safely evaluated with coronary angiography within 72 hours of presentation (delayed invasive strategy).

True

With an ischemia-guided strategy, patients undergo noninvasive stress testing with LV function assessment before hospital discharge.

True

When is cardiac catheterization usually performed for patients with an elevated clinical risk score, significant ST segment deviation, or elevated cardiac biomarkers?

Within 24 hours of presentation

For which patients is delayed invasive strategy with coronary angiography within 72 hours of presentation considered appropriate?

Patients with diabetes and recent PCI without elevated risk scores

What determines the choice of revascularization procedure (PCI or CABG) for patients with NSTE ACS?

Results of angiography

When is the ischemia guided approach considered appropriate for patients with NSTE ACS?

Low risk patients

Study Notes

Angina Pectoris

  • Stable angina pectoris is characterized by a predictable pattern of symptoms precipitated by a stable level of exertion or emotional stress and relieved with rest.
  • The duration criterion for stable angina pectoris is 1-2 minutes.

Atypical Symptoms

  • Demographic groups that may present only with atypical symptoms of angina include women and patients with diabetes mellitus.
  • These groups may present with symptoms such as dyspnea, fatigue, or palpitations instead of typical chest pain.

Diagnostic Testing

  • The first step in diagnostic testing for angina is electrocardiography (ECG) to evaluate for signs of ischemia or infarction.

Unstable Angina

  • Unstable angina is characterized by angina at rest or with minimal exertion, and is associated with increased short-term risk for acute myocardial infarction.

Treatment of Stable Angina

  • Important components of guideline-directed medical therapy for stable angina pectoris include:
    • Antianginal medications to reduce symptoms and improve quality of life.
    • Cardioprotective medications to reduce cardiovascular risk.
    • Lifestyle modifications, such as diet and exercise, to reduce cardiovascular risk.
    • Blood pressure control to reduce cardiovascular risk.
  • The goal of blood pressure control is to achieve a blood pressure of less than 140/90 mmHg.
  • The purpose of antianginal medications is to reduce symptoms and improve quality of life.
  • The primary purpose of cardioprotective medications is to reduce cardiovascular risk.

Beta-Blockers

  • Beta-blockers are a key component of guideline-directed medical therapy for stable angina pectoris.
  • The goal of beta-blocker therapy is to achieve a resting heart rate of 55-60 beats per minute.
  • Carvedilol is preferred in patients with significant lung disease due to its selective beta-1 receptor antagonism.
  • Beta-blockers are associated with reduced long-term mortality in patients with reduced left ventricular (LV) function.
  • Side effects of beta-blockers include bradycardia, fatigue, and dizziness.
  • Caution should be exercised in using beta-blockers in the setting of significant conduction disease or LV dysfunction due to the risk of worsening heart failure.

Calcium Channel Blockers

  • Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem) should be avoided in patients with left ventricular (LV) dysfunction due to the risk of worsening heart failure.
  • Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers are preferred in patients with hypertension.

Nitrates

  • Nitrates improve myocardial oxygen delivery through coronary vasodilation and reduce oxygen demand by reducing preload, thereby reducing ventricular wall stress.
  • The recommended interval for long-acting nitrates is 8-12 hours to avoid the development of nitrate tolerance and reduced efficacy.
  • Side effects of nitrates include headaches and orthostatic hypotension.

Ranolazine

  • Ranolazine is indicated for stable angina pectoris with concomitant left ventricular dysfunction, heart failure, and chronic kidney disease.
  • The mechanism of action of ranolazine is to reduce angina and increase exercise time by reducing sodium channel activation and increasing the late sodium current.
  • Caution should be exercised in using ranolazine in combination with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors due to the risk of increased ranolazine levels.
  • The QT interval should be monitored in patients taking ranolazine due to the risk of QT prolongation.

Revascularization

  • The primary goal of revascularization in stable syndromes is to lessen angina and improve quality of life.
  • Revascularization is indicated for patients with angina refractory to medical therapy or markedly abnormal stress testing or coronary CT angiography results.
  • Techniques like fractional flow reserve and instantaneous wave free ratio provide information on the functional hemodynamic significance of indeterminate lesions identified on angiographic imaging.
  • Revascularization targets are identified based on anatomic and functional physiologic characteristics associated with myocardial ischemia.

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI)

  • PCI is indicated to relieve symptoms in patients with medically refractory angina, those unable to tolerate optimal medical therapy, and those with high-risk features on non-invasive testing.
  • Most PCI procedures currently involve second-generation drug-eluting stent placement, which reduces the risk of in-stent restenosis compared with bare metal stenting.
  • PCI has been shown to be superior to guideline-directed medical therapy in reducing the risk of death or myocardial infarction (MI) in patients with stable angina with or without diabetes.

Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)

  • CABG is generally recommended for patients with multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD) due to its association with improved survival and decreased recurrence of angina.
  • CABG results in lower rates of MI and fewer repeat revascularization procedures compared with PCI or medical therapy alone.
  • Myocardial viability testing before revascularization has been established as a predictor of outcome.

Test your knowledge of stable and unstable angina pectoris by understanding the differences in symptoms, triggers, and relief methods. Learn to differentiate between stable and unstable angina and how they are diagnosed and evaluated.

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