Midterm - 2016

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Questions and Answers

A patient develops pneumonia 72 hours after being admitted to the hospital for an unrelated condition. Based on the provided information, which type of pneumonia is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  • Ventilator Associated Pneumonia (VAP)
  • Aspiration Pneumonia
  • Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)
  • Hospital Acquired Pneumonia (HAP) (correct)

A patient with a history of COPD is admitted to the hospital with suspected pneumonia. Which of the following organisms is LEAST likely to be the causative agent of their pneumonia?

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa (correct)
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which statement BEST explains why fungal pneumonia does not require isolation precautions, unlike some bacterial pneumonias?

  • Fungal pneumonia is caused by organisms that do not typically spread from person to person. (correct)
  • Fungal pneumonia is effectively treated with common antibiotics, limiting its spread.
  • Fungal pneumonia primarily affects immunocompromised individuals who are already in isolation.
  • Fungal pneumonia is less contagious than bacterial pneumonia.

A patient with impaired consciousness is at increased risk for which type of pneumonia?

<p>Aspiration Pneumonia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention would be MOST effective in preventing Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP) in an intubated patient?

<p>Using sterile technique during suctioning (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient in long-term care is suspected of having aspiration pneumonia. Which of the following factors would be least likely to contribute to this condition?

<p>Recent administration of immunosuppressants. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of radiation therapy and prolonged corticosteroid use presents with a gradual onset of fever, tachypnea, and a non-productive cough. Which type of pneumonia is most likely?

<p>Opportunistic Pneumonia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with typical pneumonia. Which set of clinical manifestations is most closely associated with this condition?

<p>Sudden onset, fever, productive cough with purulent sputum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with pneumonia, and lab results reveal a PaO2 of 75 mmHg and a BUN of 10 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of these results?

<p>Low oxygen level and impaired kidney function. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician is using the CURB-65 criteria to assess a patient's pneumonia severity. If the patient is confused, has a respiratory rate of 32, a blood pressure of 88/55, is 70 years old, and has a BUN of 9 mmol/L, what is their CURB-65 score?

<p>4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An organization identifies a recurring issue through incident report analysis. Which action demonstrates using this information to improve patient safety?

<p>Implementing a new in-service training program focused on the identified issue. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a 'Chain of Prevention' model aimed at reducing preventable cardiac arrests, what does a weakness in one or more components ('rings') of the chain most likely lead to?

<p>Patient deterioration and potential cardiac arrest. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's respiratory rate suddenly decreases from 18 to 10 breaths per minute. According to the provided information, which of the following actions should be prioritized?

<p>Further assessing the patient's respiratory status and level of consciousness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgical client regularly takes ginkgo. Why is it important for the nurse to notify the anesthesia care provider?

<p>Ginkgo can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client reports a possible latex allergy in the preoperative setting. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing action?

<p>Inquiring about specific reactions experienced with latex exposure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client ate a meal a few hours before a surgery requiring general anesthesia. What action should the nurse take first?

<p>Notify the anesthesia care provider about the client's recent food intake. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary nursing responsibility related to informed consent for a surgical procedure?

<p>Ensuring the client understands the procedure, risks, and alternatives as explained by the surgeon. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following attire combinations is MOST appropriate for the semi-restricted area of the surgery department?

<p>Surgical attire, hair covering, and shoe covers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an abdominal hysterectomy, a client with anxiety-induced hyperventilation is best managed with which type of anesthesia?

<p>General anesthesia, ensuring complete unconsciousness and control of the client's respiratory function. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient returning from PACU exhibits a weak, rapid, thready pulse, along with cool, clammy skin and decreased urine output. What is the most likely immediate concern?

<p>Hemorrhage or shock (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the SBAR-R communication framework used postoperatively, what does the second 'R' stand for?

<p>Repeat back (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgical wound is left open to heal and allowed to drain fluid. What type of intention is related to this occurrence?

<p>Secondary intention (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most likely indication of a surgical site infection (SSI)?

<p>Fever, pain, and purulent drainage 4 days after surgery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action by the scrub nurse ensures accurate accounting in the operating room?

<p>Maintaining counts of sponges, needles, and instruments during the procedure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During initial postoperative assessment, what patient positioning is most appropriate for a drowsy and immobile patient?

<p>Side-lying (lateral) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying genetic characteristic of Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)?

<p>Multifactorial genetically inherited autosomal dominant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for surgery but expresses uncertainty about the procedure despite signing the consent form. What is the MOST appropriate initial action for the registered nurse (RN)?

<p>Inform the surgeon of the patient's expressed uncertainty and advocate for further clarification and discussion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following scenarios is it MOST appropriate for a Registered Nurse (RN) to witness a patient's signature on an informed consent form?

<p>The patient has had sufficient opportunity to discuss the procedure, risks, and alternatives with the surgeon and expresses understanding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A medication error occurs when a nurse administers the wrong dose of a medication to a patient, but the error is caught before it affects the patient. According to the Canadian Patient Safety Institute, how should this event be classified?

<p>Near Miss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known allergy to penicillin is inadvertently administered the medication. The patient experiences a mild rash that resolves with antihistamines. According to the Canadian Patient Safety Institute, how should this event be classified?

<p>Harmful Incident. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is MOST likely to contribute to medication errors related to system failures?

<p>A pharmacist misinterpreting a doctor's poorly written order due to illegible handwriting. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse discovers she administered twice the prescribed dose of IV pain medication due to misreading the label. After immediately assessing the patient and notifying the physician, what additional action is REQUIRED?

<p>Complete an incidence or occurrence report detailing the event, patient assessment, and follow-up actions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When documenting an incident in a patient's medical record, what information is MOST important for the nurse to include?

<p>An objective description of the event, observations, and follow-up actions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After administering an incorrect medication dosage, a nurse completes an incidence report. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this report?

<p>To provide a detailed account of the incident for legal purposes and quality improvement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. To promote maximum lung expansion, which position is most appropriate, assuming no contraindications exist?

<p>Lateral position with the 'good lung down'. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is most important for a patient at risk for aspiration pneumonia due to an altered level of consciousness?

<p>Positioning the patient in a side-lying or upright position. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient in a long-term care facility is due for both influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. According to current recommendations, how should these vaccines be administered?

<p>Administer simultaneously but at different injection sites. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention for a patient admitted with pneumonia to promote thinning of secretions?

<p>Encouraging a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day, if not contraindicated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with influenza A. Which antiviral medication is most appropriate to administer, according to the provided information?

<p>Amantadine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pneumonia has the following NEWS (National Early Warning Score) values: RR 22, SpO2 92% on room air, systolic BP 90, HR 110, temp 38.5, and is alert. What is the NEWS score?

<p>3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pneumonia is being discharged home. What instructions related to infection prevention should be emphasized?

<p>Avoid crowded places for at least 2 weeks. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient diagnosed with pneumonia to promote effective airway clearance?

<p>Assisting the patient with deep breathing and coughing exercises. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Legal preparation for surgery

Ensures patient/family are informed about the procedure.

Informed consent

Patient's voluntary agreement to undergo a procedure, based on full disclosure of risks, benefits, and alternatives.

RN's role in informed consent

Verifying consent is informed, advocating for the patient, and witnessing the patient's signature.

Patient safety incident

An event that could have resulted, or did result, in unnecessary harm to a patient.

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Harmful Incident

An incident that resulted in patient harm.

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Near Miss

An incident that did not reach the patient (no harm resulted).

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No-harm Incident

An incident that reached the patient, but no discernable harm resulted.

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Incidence/Occurrence Report

An event inconsistent with routine patient care or standard procedures.

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Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)

Infection of lung parenchyma acquired in the community or within 2 days of hospitalization.

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Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)

Pneumonia occurring 48 hours or longer after hospital admission.

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Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP)

Pneumonia in a patient on mechanical ventilation.

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Aspiration Pneumonia

Pneumonia due to abnormal entry of substances into the lower airway.

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Fungal Pneumonia

Pneumonia caused by fungal organisms; often requires aggressive treatment

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Incident Report Analysis

Identifies trends to justify policy changes or in-service programs.

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Incident Reports in Medical Records

Do NOT mention incidents in the medical record.

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Chain of Prevention

A system where each component is essential to prevent patient deterioration and cardiac arrest.

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6 Physiological Parameters for Monitoring

Respiratory Rate, Oxygen Saturation, Temperature, Systolic BP, Pulse Rate, Level of Consciousness

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Ginkgo Use Before Surgery

Notify anesthesia provider due to potential interaction with anesthesia.

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Latex Allergy Screening

Ask the client additional questions to assess for a possible latex allergy.

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Pre-Op Eating Notification

Notify the anesthesia care provider of when and what the client last ate.

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Nurse's Role in Informed Consent

Asks the client to explain what surgical procedure they are having and ensures that the client clearly understands the operation to be performed is given.

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Pneumonia Forms

Blockage in the lungs from inert substances, enzymes, or bacteria.

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Opportunistic Pneumonia Symptoms

Fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, dyspnea, non-productive cough, and hypoxemia.

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Pneumococcal Pneumonia (PP) Symptoms

Fever, chills, productive cough with purulent sputum, and pleuritic chest pain.

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Typical Pneumonia Symptoms

Sudden fever, chills, purulent sputum, pleuritic chest pain, confusion (in older adults).

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Atypical Pneumonia Symptoms

Gradual onset, dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms (headache, myalgia, fatigue, sore throat, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea) associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

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Scrub Nurse Activities

Nurse role during surgery, involving instrument table prep, OR coordination, & accurate counts of supplies.

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Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)

Rare, inherited reaction to anesthesia causing rapid rise in body temperature and muscle rigidity.

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I SBAR-R

I: identify patient, S: situation, B: background, R: recommendation, R: repeat back- enhances communication.

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Post-op Hemorrhage Sign

Monitor for weak, rapid pulse associated with hemorrhage or shock.

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Primary Intention

Closure where wound edges are brought together, allowing quick healing and minimal scarring.

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Secondary Intention

Wound close that stays open to drain.

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Tertiary Intention

Wound is temporarily open then closed.

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Surgical Site Infection (SSI)

Infection occurring 3-6 days after surgery.

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Partially Compensated

pH is outside normal range despite compensation.

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Fully Compensated

pH has returned to the normal range.

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Pneumonia Treatment

Antibiotics and oxygen therapy.

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Boosting Natural Resistance

Diet, hand hygiene, rest, and exercise.

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Preventing Aspiration

Side-lying position can help prevent aspiration.

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Acute Pneumonia Interventions

HOB elevated, oxygen, incentive spirometry.

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Viral Pneumonia Treatment

Treatments include amantadine, zanamivir, oseltamivir and flu vaccine

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Pneumococcal Vaccine

Given to high-risk groups (lung/heart disease, chronic illness).

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Study Notes

  • The midterm will consist of 70 multiple-choice questions.
  • The time allotted for writing will be 2 hours.
  • The midterm is worth 30% of the final grade.
  • The time for the exam is from 0900 to 1100.
  • The content covered is from weeks 1-6.
  • It is a legal requirement for surgical procedures.
  • The patient/family must be aware and informed of the procedure.
  • All required forms must be present and signed on the chart.
  • Required forms include a consent form, consent to blood transfusion, consent for anesthesia interventions, and advance directives/power of attorney.
  • It is the physician's legal responsibility to obtain consent.
  • Valid consent requires that it is voluntary and the patient has the mental capacity and is properly informed

RN's Role

  • The RN verifies that consent is informed.
  • The RN advocates for the patient if they are unclear about the procedure, options, risks, alternatives, or potential complications.
  • The RN supports the patient's right to withdraw consent at any time, if indicated.
  • The RN witnesses the patient's signature on the consent form, but only if the consent is informed.
  • The RN verifies that the signed informed consent is on the chart in the immediate preoperative period.
  • Surgeons may obtain consent in the OR holding area prior to medications. In that case, the consent will be unsigned and unverified until transport to the OR.

Near Miss/No Harm Incidents

  • A patient safety incident (or adverse event) is an event or circumstance that could have resulted, or did result, in unnecessary harm to a patient.
  • Harmful incident is an incident that resulted in patient harm (previously known as a "preventable adverse event").
  • Near miss is an incident that did not reach the patient (no harm resulted).
  • No-harm incident is an incident that reached the patient, but no discernable harm resulted.

Medication Errors

  • Contributing factors for medication errors include neglecting routine procedures, not checking dose calculations, administering unfamiliar meds, order neglect, failure to comply with the rights, and failure to perform required assessments e.g., BP, CBG.
  • System factors for medication errors include distraction, illegible orders, transcription errors, and inappropriate abbreviations.
  • Design of products, such as labeling, can also contribute to medication errors.

Incidence or Occurrence Report

  • Any event that is inconsistent with the routine, expected care of a patient or the standard procedures in place.
  • When an incident occurs, the nurse documents an objective description of what happened and the follow-up actions taken, including notifying the patient's health care provider in the medical record.
  • It is important to evaluate and document the patient's response to the incident.
  • Analysis of incident reports aids organizations in identifying trends that provide justification for changes in policies and procedures or for in-service programs.
  • Any reference to an incident should not be included in the medical record because it enables a lawyer to argue that the reference makes the incident report part of the medical record and therefore subject to attorney review.

Chain of Prevention

  • Education is the first step.
  • Monitoring (patient assessment and vital signs) follows.
  • Recognition comes third.
  • Call for help is fourth.
  • Response is last.
  • It assists in preventing deterioration, cardiac arrests and deaths, admissions to ICU, and inappropriate resuscitation attempts.
  • Patient assessment and measuring vital signs are the main components of "monitoring".
  • Weakness of one or more of the components (rings) of the chain will inevitably result in failure of the whole system
  • If the components of the chain are present and strong, this should be measurable as a reduction in the number of preventable cardiac arrests.
  • Six physiological parameters to monitor: respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, temperature, systolic BP, pulse rate, level of consciousness.

Pre-op and Peri-op phases

  • Includes preop, intraop, and postop.

Phases of Perioperative Care

  • Preoperative begins with the decision to perform surgery and continues until the client reaches the operating area.
  • Intraoperative includes the entire duration of the surgical procedure, until transfer of the client to the recovery area (PACU).
  • Postoperative begins with admission to the recovery area and continues until the client receives follow-up evaluation at home or is discharged to a rehabilitation unit.

Classification of Surgeries

  • Diagnosis, cure, palliation, prevention, cosmetic, and exploration are the purposes of surgery.
  • Urgency is classified as emergent (immediate), urgent (24-30 hrs), required (within a few weeks or months), or elective (ambulatory, short stay or same-day surgery, or early hospital admission).

Medications with Potential to Affect Surgical Experience

  • Corticosteroids, if discontinued suddenly, may cause cardiovascular collapse and may require IV boluses before/after surgery.
  • Diazepam (Valium) may cause anxiety, tension, and even seizure if withdrawn suddenly.
  • IV insulin (short acting-clear) may be required to keep BG in normal range.
  • Surgeons must decide how long to stop anticoagulants before elective surgery to prevent bleeding; in emergency, Vitamin K may be needed for warfarin, and protamine for heparin.
  • Anticonvulsants may require IV administration to keep the patient seizure-free.
  • Thyroid hormone medication may be given with a sip of water the morning of surgery or via IV to maintain levels.
  • Opioid Use require an acute pain service assessment to prevent withdrawal and to manage perioperative pain effectively.

Effects of Herbs and Supplements During the Preoperative Period

  • Echinacea is an immunosuppressant with long-term use, so discontinue use as far in advance of OR as possible.

  • Ginkgo biloba may increase bleeding, especially if on anticoagulants, so discontinue use at least 36 hrs preop.

  • Ginseng may falsely elevate digoxin levels and potentiate MAOIs, is contraindicated for cardiac disorders, HTN, and hypoglycemia, so discontinue use at least 7 days preop.

  • Saw palmetto may have additive effects with other hormone replacement therapies.

  • St. John's Wort may prolong effects of anaesthetics, potentiate opioids, and cause peripheral neuropathy.

  • Valerian potentiates sedatives-hypnotics and may prolong anaesthetic recovery time, so taper the dose 1-2 weeks preop.

  • Vitamin E may increase bleeding.

  • A client scheduled for a surgical procedure in 2 days and reports use of ginkgo daily, so the priority intervention is to notify the anesthesia care provider.

  • The herb interferes with anesthetics.

  • A client tells the nurse in the preoperative setting that she has noticed she has a reaction when wearing rubber gloves, so ask additional questions to assess for a possible latex allergy. (screening)

  • A client is scheduled for surgery requiring general anesthesia at an ambulatory surgical center & says they ate a light breakfast a couple of hours before, so you notify the anesthesia care provider of when and what the client last ate.

  • The nurse's role when assisting with informed consent is to ask the client to explain what surgical procedure they are having and ensures that the client understands what is going to be performed.

Preoperative Fasting Recommendations

  • After drinking clear liquids (e.g., water, clear tea, black coffee, carbonated beverages, and fruit juice without pulp), the minimum fasting period is 2 hours.
  • After ingesting breast milk, the minimum fasting period is 4 hours.
  • After a light meal (e.g., toast and clear liquids) or after drinking infant formula or nonhuman milk, the minimum fasting period is 6 hours.
  • After a meal including meat, fried or fatty food, the minimum fasting period is 8 hours.

Signs and Symptoms of Opioid Abuse and Opioid Withdrawal

  • Signs of Opioid Abuse include vomiting, pruritis, sweating, twitching, miosis, loss of appetite, drowsiness, respiratory depression, coma, needle marks.
  • Signs of Opioid Withdrawal include dysphoric mood, nausea/vomiting, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, muscle aches, pupillary dilation, piloerection, sweating, diarrhea, yawning, fever, insomnia.
  • The RN is prepared to recognize signs and symptoms of opioid abuse and acute opioid withdrawal.
  • Morphine and heroine withdrawal begins in 6-18 hours, while methadone withdrawal begins in 24-48 hours.

Summary of Preoperative Teaching

  • NPO guidelines help keep the stomach empty, reducing the potential for aspiration during anaesthesia induction.

  • Diet is increased slowly to prevent gastric overfilling and prevent nausea.

  • Early ambulation increases circulation, ventilation, muscle tone, and vital capacity; improves gastrointestinal and urinary function; reduces pain; and supports healing.

  • Antiembolic stockings reduce the incidence of postoperative formation of deep vein thrombosis.

  • To perform deep breathing and coughing exercises, splinting, and use an incentive spirometer.

  • Postoperative patients are at risk for pulmonary complications (e.g., pneumonia) because of increased respiratory secretions, decreased lung expansion, and depression of the respiratory center that occurs during general anaesthesia.

  • Surgical attire and a head cover are appropriate for the semi-restricted area of the surgery department.

  • The activities a scrub nurse might perform during surgery is to prepare the instrument table, coordinate activities occurring in the operating room & maintaining accurate counts of sponges, needles, and instruments.

Interprofessional Responsibilities

  • The circulating nurse remains in an unsterile field and documents all OR personnel involved in pt. care, event times, interventions, positioning, skin prep, monitoring devices, the type(s) anaesthesia, and serial numbers.
  • The circulating nurse also documents identifying information (prosthesis, drains, catheters), specimens taken, estimated blood loss (EBL), and the surgical count, completing it in collaboration with the scrub nurse.
  • They ensure all people entering the OR are wearing surgical attire (scrubs, mask, eyewear, cap or hood, all hair covered, and wearing no jewelry or false nails.
  • Supports anaesthetist, surgical team, monitors aseptic practices, provides ongoing supplies and communication & documenting of care.
  • Scrub Nurse practices surgical hand asepsis, is gowned and gloved in sterile attire, and remains in the sterile field.
  • Scrub nurses set priorities and ensure an efficient aseptic setup for a given procedure.
  • They set up and handle instruments and monitors aseptic technique throughout the procedure
  • They perform surgical counts (sponges, sharps, instruments) and documented it according to ORNAC guidelines and hospital policy.

Hand Hygiene comparison: Medical vs. Surgical Asepsis

  • Medical asepsis: Hand hygiene, 10-15 seconds, hands are most contaminated, keep hands and forearms lower than elbows, dry with paper towel from fingers to wrists to forearms.
  • Surgical asepsis: Surgical scrub, 2-6 min, hands become cleanest, wet hands and arms to ~5 cm above elbows, keep hands above elbows at all times, dry with sterile towel.

Classification of Anesthesia

-General -Regional (epidural, spinal) -Moderate (conscious sedation) -Local

Classification of Anaesthesia: Regional: Epidural vs Spinal

  • Epidural: Local anaesthetic and/or opioids injected into epidural space (lumbar or thoracic); binds to nerve roots as they exit subarachnoid space, providing anaesthesia and pain relief, blocks sensory, motor, and autonomic function.
  • Dose is high (10-20 mL); Onset gradual (25-30 min); multiple or continuous dosing possible. Does not cause significant neuromuscular block; Absence of headache; effective analgesia with lower doses opioids; improved pulmonary function; lower risk ileus; reduced sedation and nausea, supports early mobilization
  • *Potential complications: epidural hematoma, epidural abscess, local anaesthetic toxicity
  • Spinal: Injection usually between L4-L5 through t (intrathecal) space; usually between L4-L5, producing anaesthesia of lower extremities, perineum, lower abdomen, requiring low dose
  • Spinal con if paralysis of respiratory muscles requires mechanical ventilation (i.e. if med migrates too high). -Order of Recovery (2-4 hrs):1) Motor 2) Sensory 3) Autonomic (BP). -spinal Con: Risk of post dural puncture headache; prevention-quiet environment, supine/flat positioning, hydration

Potential Intraoperative Complications

  • Malignant hyperthermia (MH): a rare multifactorial genetically inherited autosomal dominant disorder characterized by life-threatening hyperthermia with rigidity of skeletal muscles death
  • Treatment of MH, stop triggering agent; Maintain O2 access; administer Dantrolene (muscle relaxant) measure cooling, pH, and urine

Nursing considerations in Postoperative phase

  • Obtain report from PACU nurse, Initial assessment of all incision site, Perform dressing changes,Check IV site

Postoperative Complications

  • Cardiovascular: hypotension, hypertension, and dysrhythmias Nervous system: can include delirium-delayed emergence from anesthesia
  • Gastrointestinal: nausea, vomiting, i Includes - urinary: retention +tract infections i Includes -SBAR-R
  • I-identification S-situation Background -recommendation

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