Skeletal System Overview
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Questions and Answers

What is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

  • Protection of internal organs
  • Produces blood cells
  • Supports the body
  • Stores cholesterol (correct)
  • Which type of cartilage is primarily found in the joints and provides smooth movement?

  • Elastic cartilage
  • Calcified cartilage
  • Fibrocartilage
  • Hyaline cartilage (correct)
  • Which part of a long bone is responsible for the storage of fat?

  • Epiphysis
  • Medullary cavity (correct)
  • Periosteum
  • Metaphysis
  • What feature in compact bone that does not exist in spongy bone?

    <p>Highly organized structure of osteons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which region of the long bone serves as a growth plate in children?

    <p>Metaphysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of the osteocytes located in the canaliculi of long bones?

    <p>Facilitate nutrient and waste exchange.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does fibrocartilage differ from other types of cartilage?

    <p>It provides cushioning in areas subjected to pressure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do osteoblasts play in the periosteum during bone formation?

    <p>They initiate the ossification process by forming compact bone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During endochondral ossification, what happens to the cartilage model in the embryo?

    <p>It is replaced by a calcified bone matrix.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes synovial joints from fibrous and cartilaginous joints?

    <p>Synovial joints allow for free movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the role of osteoclasts in bone physiology?

    <p>Osteoclasts break down bone and release calcium into the bloodstream.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does intramembranous ossification differ from endochondral ossification during bone development?

    <p>Intramembranous ossification does not involve cartilage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of muscle tissue is characterized by striations and voluntary control?

    <p>Skeletal Muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is unique to cardiac muscle compared to the other muscle types?

    <p>Intercalated disks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Smooth muscle is primarily found in which of the following locations?

    <p>Walls of hollow internal organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The sliding filament model explains muscle contraction primarily through interactions between which two proteins?

    <p>Actin and Myosin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of bursae in the muscular system?

    <p>They provide cushioning and lubrication between tendons and bones.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During muscle contraction, what does the term 'insertion' refer to?

    <p>The point where the muscle attaches to the more movable bone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relationship between muscle fascicles and muscle fibers?

    <p>Fascicles are larger structures made up of individual muscle fibers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does muscle contraction lead to the release of heat in the body?

    <p>Through the decomposition of ATP during contraction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main limitation of creatine phosphate as an energy source during muscle activity?

    <p>It can only sustain energy for approximately 15 seconds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the outcome of fermentation in muscle cells?

    <p>It generates lactate, leading to muscle fatigue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of myoglobin in muscle cells?

    <p>It delivers oxygen directly to the mitochondria.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs as a result of oxygen debt following strenuous exercise?

    <p>Heavy breathing is necessary to metabolize lactate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    As the duration of exercise increases, which energy source becomes more predominant in muscle contraction?

    <p>Fatty acids acquired from blood.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of meiosis in the human life cycle?

    <p>Formation of gametes for reproduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what stage of life does sexual maturity typically occur in girls?

    <p>Between the ages of 10 and 14</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the uterus?

    <p>It allows the fertilized egg to develop within the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does mitosis differ from meiosis in relation to chromosome number?

    <p>Mitosis produces cells with the same chromosome number as the parent cell.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organs are responsible for producing gametes in males and females, respectively?

    <p>Testes and ovaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of seminal fluid?

    <p>It contains fructose as an energy source for sperm and prostaglandins to aid in movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does spermatogenesis occur:

    <p>In the seminiferous tubules of the testes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding zygote formation is correct?

    <p>A zygote is formed by the fusion of an egg and a sperm, resulting in 46 chromosomes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which reproductive organ in males is primarily responsible for the storage and maturation of sperm?

    <p>Epididymis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hormone is primarily responsible for the development of the corpus luteum during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?

    <p>LH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of decreased estrogen and progesterone levels during the initial phase of the uterine cycle (Days 1 to 5)?

    <p>Disintegration of the endometrium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a role of estrogen and progesterone during the menstrual cycle?

    <p>Development of secondary sex characteristics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hormone produced by the placenta is crucial for maintaining the corpus luteum during early pregnancy?

    <p>Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does progesterone influence the body's hormonal environment during pregnancy?

    <p>It prevents menstruation by maintaining the uterine lining.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the corpus luteum when pregnancy occurs?

    <p>It produces estrogen and progesterone until the placenta takes over.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcomes occur when the placenta begins producing progesterone?

    <p>The corpus luteum becomes unnecessary and regresses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the use of birth control pills inhibit the ovarian cycle?

    <p>They maintain elevated estrogen and progesterone levels, preventing ovulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Proto-oncogenes inhibit the cell cycle during the signaling process.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cell checkpoints are mechanisms that ensure proper progression through the cell cycle, preventing unregulated growth.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Apoptosis is a process that accelerates cell cycle progression and prevents damaged cells from dividing.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The G1 checkpoint determines if damaged DNA can be repaired before continuing with the cell cycle.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The G2 checkpoint ensures that the process of cytokinesis is initiated only after chromosome duplication is confirmed.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Oogenesis results in only one functional ovum from one diploid parent cell, while the other three products are polar bodies.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Meiosis II resembles mitosis because it involves the separation of homologous chromosomes.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Recombination during meiosis is essential for genetic diversity and only occurs during the anaphase stages.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Describe the main process that occurs during prophase I of meiosis that does not happen in mitosis.

    <p>During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair and undergo crossing-over, which does not occur in mitosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between meiosis and mitosis in terms of the chromosome number of the resulting cells?

    <p>Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in haploid cells, while mitosis maintains the same chromosome number, producing diploid cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Explain the terms trisomy and monosomy in the context of chromosomal conditions.

    <p>Trisomy refers to the presence of an extra chromosome, resulting in three copies of a chromosome pair, while monosomy indicates a missing chromosome, resulting in only one copy of a chromosome pair.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do environmental agents play in changes to chromosome structure that may lead to genetic disorders?

    <p>Environmental agents such as radiation or chemicals can cause chromosome breaks, leading to deletions, duplications, or other mutations that may result in genetic disorders.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the test that allows identification of Trisomy in an individual?

    <p>Trisomy can be identified by detecting three copies of a particular chromosome, typically through genetic testing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristics are commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome?

    <p>Common characteristics include short stature, eyelid folds, flat face, and intellectual disability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Explain how alleles are different than genes?

    <p>Alleles are different forms of a gene; they can carry variations that affect traits, such as the presence or absence of freckles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the age of the mother correlate with the risk of Down syndrome in offspring?

    <p>Women over 40 have a higher likelihood of having children with Down syndrome due to increased risk of nondisjunction during ovum formation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way does metaphase help differentiate between mitosis and meiosis?

    <p>A close examination of metaphase can show whether chromosomes align in pairs (meiosis) or singly (mitosis).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical chromosome count in a normal human gamete?

    <p>A normal human gamete contains 23 chromosomes, which is half the diploid number of 46.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Skeletal System Overview

    • The skeletal system is made of two connective tissues: bone and cartilage.
    • Ligaments are fibrous connective tissue that connect bones.
    • The skeletal system supports the body, works with muscles to move the body, protects internal organs (skull, rib cage, vertebrae), produces blood cells, and stores minerals (calcium, phosphate), and fat.

    Learning Outcomes

    • Students will be able to identify the functions of the skeletal system.
    • Students will understand the structure of a long bone.
    • Students will learn about the different types of cartilage and related functions.
    • Students will identify and explain the components of the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.

    Anatomy of a Long Bone

    • Diaphysis: The shaft of the bone, with compact bone walls.
    • Medullary cavity: Inside the diaphysis, lined by endosteum, and filled with yellow bone marrow (stores fat)
    • Epiphysis: The expanded end of a long bone, comprised of spongy bone and red bone marrow. The red marrow makes blood cells.
    • Epiphyseal plate: In the metaphysis region, a cartilage region permitting growth.
    • Articular cartilage: A thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the epiphyses, allowing for movement at joints.
    • Periosteum: A connective tissue covering the entire bone's surface, connecting to ligaments and tendons.

    Bone Tissue

    • Two kinds of bone tissue exist: compact and spongy.
    • Compact bone: The highly organized, tubular osteons. Osteocytes are bone cells residing in the lacunae, arranged concentrically around central canals. Matrix supports the lacunae.
    • Spongy bone: Numerous thin trabeculae (plates) designed for strength, with red bone marrow within the spaces. Contains osteocytes within trabeculae.

    Bone 2

    • Canaliculi: Tiny canals connecting lacunae, enabling nutrient and waste exchange between osteocytes. Gap junctions in canaliculi allow for this exchange.

    Bone 3 (Spongy Bone)

    • Spongy bone consists of thin plates called trabeculae, although lighter than compact bone, it is also strong.
    • Red bone marrow is located within the spaces of spongy bone producing all blood cell types.

    Cartilage Overview

    • Cartilage is less rigid and more flexible than bone. The matrix contains collagen and elastic fibers.
    • Cartilage cells are chondrocytes living within lacunae.
    • Cartilage has no nerves or blood supply, so healing is slow.
    • Three types of cartilage are hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic.

    Cartilage Locations

    • Hyaline: Found on the ends of long bones, nose, ribs, larynx, and trachea
    • Fibrocartilage: Found in intervertebral discs and the knee
    • Elastic: Found in ear flaps

    Fibrous Connective Tissue

    • Fibrous connective tissue forms ligaments and tendons.
    • Ligaments connect bone to bone.
    • Tendons connect muscle to bone (or joint, also known as articulation).
    • This connective tissue is made of rows of fibroblasts separated by collagenous fibers.

    Bones of the Axial Skeleton

    • Skull: Composed of cranium and facial bones, protecting the brain. Contains 8 bones in adults, and in newborns they are joined by membranous fontanels, closing by 16 months.
    • Vertebral column: Consists of 33 vertebrae. It possesses four curvatures; scoliosis, kyphosis, and lordosis.
      • Vertebral canal: Contains spinal cord.
      • Intervertebral foramina: Allow spinal nerves to pass.
      • Intervertebral discs: Provide support, shock absorption, and flexibility to the column formed of fibrocartilage.
    • Rib cage (thorax): Thoracic vertebrae, ribs, associated cartilages, and sternum. It protects the heart and lungs. Ribs move for inhaling/exhaling.

    Other Important Features

    • Types of vertebrae: Cervical (neck), Atlas, Axis, etc.
    • The ribs: True (first seven connecting directly to the sternum), false (eight to ten), floating (eleven and twelve).

    Check Your Progress

    • List the functions of the skeletal system.
    • Summarize structural differences in long bones.
    • Describe cartilage types and locations.
    • List bones in the axial skeleton.
    • Describe types of vertebrae.

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    Description

    This quiz explores the vital functions and structures of the skeletal system. Students will learn about the composition of bones and cartilage, the anatomy of long bones, and the protective roles of the skeletal system. Assess your understanding of these essential concepts in human anatomy.

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