Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson
Download our mobile app to listen on the go
Get App

Questions and Answers

A patient presents with a painless ulcer and regional lymphadenopathy. Which stage of syphilis is MOST consistent with these findings?

  • Tertiary syphilis
  • Secondary syphilis
  • Late latent syphilis
  • Primary syphilis (correct)

A patient is diagnosed with early latent syphilis. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this stage of infection?

  • The patient is asymptomatic and serology is positive. (correct)
  • The patient has a high risk of transmitting the infection to others.
  • The patient requires IV antibiotics for treatment.
  • The patient will present with neurological deficits.

Which diagnostic method is MOST appropriate for identifying Treponema pallidum in a chancre in the primary stage of syphilis?

  • Treponema pallidum particle agglutination test(TPPA)
  • Dark field microscopy (correct)
  • Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption(FTA-abs)
  • Rapid Plasma Reagin(RPR)

A pregnant woman with a penicillin allergy is diagnosed with primary syphilis. Which treatment is the MOST appropriate?

<p>Desensitize the patient to penicillin and administer penicillin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among the following, which group is MOST affected by Gonorrhoea, an STI in first world countries?

<p>Adolescent and Adults (15-24) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 22-year-old male presents with dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. Gram stain of the discharge reveals Gram-negative diplococci. Which step should be taken to definitively diagnose the causative agent?

<p>Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) of a urethral swab (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with gonococcal pharyngitis. What is the MOST appropriate first-line treatment?

<p>Intramuscular ceftriaxone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST crucial factor contributing to the increasing challenge in managing gonorrhea infections globally?

<p>Antimicrobial resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old female patient tests positive for Chlamydia trachomatis but denies any symptoms. She has had multiple sexual partners in the past year. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?

<p>Prescribe antibiotics and counsel on safe sexual practices and partner notification. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a resource-limited setting where NAAT is unavailable, which is the MOST appropriate method to diagnose symptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis?

<p>Culture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old male is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis. He reports being sexually active with multiple partners. Which action is MOST important?

<p>Treat the patient and offer to contact his partners confidentially. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV). What specific clinical manifestation distinguishes LGV from other chlamydial infections?

<p>Proctitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these STIs affects the squamous epithelium in the GUT?

<p>Trichomonas Vaginalis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old female presents with vaginal discharge, vulval itching and dysuria. Microscopy reveals motile trichomonads. What treatment is MOST appropriate for her and her partner?

<p>Oral metronidazole (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trichomonas vaginalis is diagnosed via NAAT in a female patient. Which measure should be prioritized?

<p>Treating the patient and her sexual partner(s) simultaneously (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate diagnostic test for Mycoplasma genitalium?

<p>Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Chancroid. What is a key clinical feature that helps differentiate chancroid from syphilis or herpes?

<p>Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician suspects chancroid in a patient presenting with a genital ulcer. Which of these results in diagnosis?

<p>NAAT (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient presenting with painful genital ulcers, which diagnostic approach is BEST for differentiating between genital herpes and syphilis?

<p>Swab the base of the ulcer for viral culture or PCR and perform syphilis serology. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman has a history of recurrent genital herpes. Which approach is MOST effective in preventing neonatal herpes?

<p>Administer prophylactic acyclovir during the late third trimester. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding laboratory diagnosis of HSV is the MOST accurate?

<p>PCR is the preferred method for detecting HSV in vesicular fluid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind using suppressive antiviral therapy for patients with recurrent genital herpes?

<p>To reduce the frequency and severity of outbreaks and reduce viral shedding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding mpox, how can direct and indirect transmissions occur?

<p>Lesions(Skin/Genital/Mucous membranes) and Formites (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical presentation would warrant suspicion for a MPOX diagnosis?

<p>Macules papules vesicles pseudopustules (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having MPOX(clade II). Which complication is MOST closely associated with clade II MPOX infections?

<p>Encephalitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which preventive measure has had the GREATEST impact on reducing the incidence of genital warts?

<p>HPV vaccination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage caused by HPV6, HPV11 in genital warts?

<p>80% caused by HPV6, 15% by HPV11 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with new genital warts. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in management?

<p>Visually recognize warty lesions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Globally, what is now the MOST common mode of HIV transmission?

<p>Unprotected heterosexual intercourse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which strategy is LEAST effective in preventing HIV transmission?

<p>Condom usage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following has greatly lowered the number of AIDS-related deaths?

<p>Accessing ART (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first step in managing a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of an STI?

<p>Taking a detailed sexual history (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When taking a sexual history, which detail is MOST critical for determining the risk of STI exposure?

<p>Hx of risk factors in partner (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical aspect of managing STIs that goes beyond just treating the individual patient?

<p>Considering local/national antimicrobial resistance (AMR) patterns (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of managing STIs, what is the MOST significant implication of antimicrobial resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

<p>Challenges in treatment leading to prolonged infectious periods and increased transmission. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY rationale for inquiring about a patient's sexual history, including details about their partners' risk factors (e.g., IV drug use)?

<p>To determine the likelihood of exposure to specific STIs and guide diagnostic testing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the correlation between early diagnosis of congenital syphilis and long-term neurological outcomes. Which of the following study designs would be MOST effective in establishing this relationship?

<p>Retrospective cohort study analyzing medical records of children diagnosed with congenital syphilis at different ages and their subsequent neurological development. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a population with high rates of both gonorrhea and chlamydia, what strategy would be MOST effective in reducing the overall incidence of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

<p>Providing expedited partner therapy (EPT) to all patients diagnosed with gonorrhea or chlamydia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician is evaluating a patient with a suspected STI-related skin lesion. What factor would MOST strongly suggest a diagnosis other than genital herpes?

<p>Painful, ulcerated lesions that have been present for more than 3 weeks. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the potential for long-term sequelae in individuals treated for early-stage syphilis. Which outcome would be LEAST likely in this population?

<p>Higher incidence of opportunistic infections due to immune system compromise. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical consideration when choosing between doxycycline and azithromycin for the treatment of chlamydia in a sexually active young adult?

<p>Local antimicrobial resistance patterns and rates of treatment failure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the anatomical tropism of Trichomonas vaginalis contribute to its pathogenesis and clinical presentation?

<p>Its preference for colonizing squamous epithelium results in vaginitis and urethritis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important consideration when managing a patient diagnosed with Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?

<p>Prolonged antibiotic therapy to prevent the development of chronic complications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST pressing challenge in controlling the spread of Mycoplasma genitalium?

<p>Limited availability of treatment options due to widespread antimicrobial resistance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the overlapping clinical features of genital ulcer diseases, which factor is MOST critical in differentiating between chancroid and other causes of genital ulcers, such as syphilis or herpes simplex virus (HSV)?

<p>Exclusion of syphilis and HSV through laboratory testing and clinical findings. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST effective strategy for preventing neonatal herpes infection in pregnant women with a known history of recurrent genital herpes?

<p>Administration of antiviral prophylaxis near term, regardless of lesion presence. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the clinical presentation of mpox typically differ between infections caused by clade I versus clade II?

<p>Clade I infections are more likely to present with severe systemic symptoms and respiratory complications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the latent period of HPV contribute to the challenge of controlling the spread of genital warts?

<p>It increases the likelihood of transmission even in the absence of visible warts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a region where heterosexual transmission is now the MOST common mode of HIV transmission, which intervention would be MOST effective in reducing new infections?

<p>Expanded access to antiretroviral therapy (ART) for people living with HIV. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST significant factor contributing to the increased risk of HIV transmission in individuals with other STIs?

<p>Increased viral load and shedding of HIV due to immune activation and disruption of mucosal barriers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST significant implication of the rise in early infectious syphilis rates among women?

<p>Greater risk of congenital syphilis and adverse pregnancy outcomes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When taking a sexual history to determine risk of STI exposure, which of the following details is MOST critical?

<p>Specific sexual practices and barrier use of each encounter. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What approach is MOST effective in addressing the broader public health implications of STIs beyond individual patient treatment?

<p>Providing comprehensive sexual health education to promote safer behaviors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of resource allocation for STI prevention, which strategy would yield the GREATEST long-term public health benefit?

<p>Implementing comprehensive sexual health education programs in schools and communities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor poses the GREATEST challenge for reducing the global impact of STIs?

<p>Antimicrobial resistance, especially in <em>Neisseria gonorrhoeae</em>. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a sexual history assessment, which line of questioning is MOST important for gauging STI risk?

<p>Ascertaining the number of sexual partners within the past year, including casual and regular partners. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely course of action after diagnosing a patient with an STI?

<p>Counseling about safe sex practices and partner notification. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having early infectious syphilis but tests negative via non-treponemal serology (RPR). What is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Obtain treponemal-specific serology (e.g., FTA-ABS) to confirm the diagnosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical manifestation is MOST indicative of secondary syphilis?

<p>Generalized maculopapular rash, including palms and soles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with latent syphilis. How is the distinction made between early and late latent syphilis?

<p>Based on whether the infection occurred less than or more than 2 years prior to diagnosis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind recommending CSF analysis via lumbar puncture in suspected cases of neurosyphilis?

<p>To measure CSF protein and cell count as indicators of central nervous system involvement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST important implication of antimicrobial resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae for public health?

<p>Potential for untreatable gonorrhea infections and increased spread. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis. Gram stain reveals Gram-negative diplococci. Culture confirms Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Prior to treatment, what information is MOST important to gather?

<p>Allergies, particularly to cephalosporins.. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing Chlamydia trachomatis infections, why is partner notification and treatment emphasized?

<p>To prevent reinfection of the index case and further transmission. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best explains why Nucleic Acid Amplification Testing (NAAT) is the preferred method for diagnosing Chlamydia trachomatis?

<p>NAAT offers higher sensitivity and specificity compared to other diagnostic methods. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical finding would suggest a diagnosis of Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) over other forms of chlamydia?

<p>Painful regional lymphadenopathy (buboes). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is testing and treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis recommended for both the infected individual and their partner?

<p>To prevent recurrent infection due to the 'ping-pong' effect. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic method is MOST appropriate to diagnose Mycoplasma genitalium?

<p>Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST distinguishing characteristic of a chancroid ulcer compared to ulcers caused by syphilis or herpes simplex virus?

<p>Painful ulcer with ragged, undermined edges and suppurative base. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a pregnant woman with a history of recurrent genital herpes, what is the primary goal of antiviral suppressive therapy near term?

<p>To prevent maternal outbreaks and reduce shedding at the time of delivery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is laboratory diagnosis of HSV infection MOST critical?

<p>In all patients with suspected genital ulcers to differentiate from other causes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to clade II, what is a distinguishing characteristic of mpox caused by clade I?

<p>More severe disease and higher mortality rates. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the natural history of genital warts?

<p>The latent period can make it challenging to control the spread. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Globally, heterosexual contact is now the MOST common mode of HIV transmission. Which intervention would be MOST effective in response to this?

<p>Increase awareness and accessibility to PrEP. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is an STI?

Infection transmitted through sexual contact.

What is pathogenesis?

Describes the development of a disease.

What is aetiology?

Cause or origin of a disease or condition.

What is Treponema pallidum?

A gram-negative bacterium that causes syphilis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a chancre?

An initial painless ulcer characteristic of primary syphilis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is secondary syphilis?

Systemic illness after untreated primary syphilis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is latent syphilis?

The stage of syphilis when it's asymptomatic but detectable.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is tertiary syphilis?

Late-stage syphilis affecting the cardiovascular or nervous system.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is congenital syphilis?

Syphilis acquired during pregnancy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A gram-negative bacterium causing gonorrhoea.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is urethritis?

Inflammation of the urethra.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is epididymitis?

Inflammation of the epididymis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is cervicitis?

Inflammation of the cervix.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Bacterial infection: cervix, uterus, ovaries, fallopian tubes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is ophthalmia neonatorum?

Conjunctivitis in newborns due to infection during birth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is NAAT?

Nucleic acid amplification testing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is chlamydia?

Most common bacterial STI; caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Chlamydia D-K?

A strain of chlamydia that causes genital infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What does PID cause?

Complication of chlamydia

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?

STI spread lymphatically, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Trichomonas vaginalis?

A STI caused by a flagellated protozoan parasite.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Mycoplasma genitalium?

STI: discharge, dysuria, and pelvic pain. Diagnosed with PCR.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is chancroid?

STI causing genital ulcers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is genital herpes?

A viral STI that has HSV-1 or HSV-2.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is mpox?

A viral infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are genital warts?

Viral STI, genital warts. Caused by HPV.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What does HIV stand for?

Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are AMR patterns?

Local and national trends in antibiotic resistance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sexual history questions

Who, when, where, how, and protection used.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Multiple STI presence

Co-infection (more than one infection).

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a chancre ulcer?

Painless ulcer that occurs during primary syphilis infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Specific serology

A serological test for syphilis that yields results only positive for life.

Signup and view all the flashcards

STI notification

To report a case of STI to public health authorities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chlamydia diagnosis

First void urine is collected for NAAT.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chancroid diagnosis

Collection of swab from ulcer and growing Haemophilus ducreyi bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Genital herpes management

Antiviral medications to reduce viral shedding.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How to protect from mpox?

Avoiding infectious contact or vaccination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Genital warts prevention

Vaccination against HPV.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HIV prevention

Education, condom use, screening, and PrEP.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HIV blood donor screening

Testing blood in Ireland to reduce infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) Overview

  • Over 1 million STIs are acquired daily
  • Over 500 million people are likely infected with genital herpes
  • Over 290 million women are infected with HPV
  • Most STIs display no symptoms or minimal ones
  • Drug resistance, particularly in gonorrhoea, is a major obstacle in reducing STIs worldwide
  • More than 30 pathogens can spread through sexual contact
  • Of the 8 predominant STI infections, 4 are curable, and 4 are incurable

Epidemiological Data for Ireland (2022-2023)

  • There were no notifications of chancroid or granuloma inguinale for 2023
  • The total number of STIs is underestimated since data on ano-genital warts (AGW) and non-Specific Urethritis (NSU) were unavailable for 2023
  • Chlamydia cases rose from 10,934 in 2022 to 13,711 in 2023, a 25.4% increase
  • Gonorrhoea cases showed a significant increase, from 4,060 in 2022 to 6,824 in 2023, a 68.1% increase
  • Herpes simplex (genital) cases slightly increased from 1,614 in 2022 to 1,687 in 2023, a 4.5% increase
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) cases grew from 28 in 2022 to 37 in 2023, a 32.1% increase
  • Mpox cases sharply dropped from 227 in 2022 to 13 in 2023, a -94.3% change
  • Syphilis (early infectious) cases increased from 870 in 2022 to 930 in 2023, a 6.9% increase
  • Trichomoniasis cases remained stable at 70 for both 2022 and 2023
  • The total number of STI cases increased from 17,803 in 2022 to 23,272 in 2023, a 30.7% increase
  • Highest age-specific rate applies to 20-24 year olds in most cases

STI Pathogens

  • Syphilis
  • Gonorrhoea
  • Chlamydia
  • Trichomoniasis
  • Chancroid
  • Herpes
  • HPV
  • Hepatitis B
  • Mpox
  • HIV

Taking a Sexual History

  • Reason for the consultation
  • Symptom review
  • Sexual History elements include:
    • Who: Regular or Casual partners
    • When: Most recent, Past Year, or Total partners
    • Where: Ireland or Abroad
    • How: Types of sexual contact (A/V/O)
    • Protection: Condoms or HIV prophylaxis usage, recent or general use
    • History of risk factors in partners, IVDU
    • History of STIs
  • Other components to consider:
    • Drug/alcohol/smoking
    • Drug allergies
    • Past Med/Surg Hx
    • Pregnancy risk
    • Vaccination history

Key Considerations for STIs

  • More than one infection may be present
  • Think about HIV testing
  • Consider local and national antimicrobial resistance patterns
  • Focus on partner management
  • Consider the psychosocial issues

Syphilis Information

  • Caused by Treponema pallidum
  • Incubation period is 3-90 days
  • Primary stage includes a painless ulcer (chancre) and regional lymphadenopathy

Progression of Untreated Syphilis

  • Infection can develop into early latent syphilis in less than a year if untreated
  • The primary phase can lead to concurrent chancre and rash in 9% of cases
  • Secondary syphilis occurs 1-2 months post-primary syphilis; recurrent secondary syphilis occurs in 24% of cases
  • Lifetime latency can occur with no symptoms
    • Without infection, it can lead to Late Neurosyphilis and Tertiary syphilis 2-50 years after

Secondary Syphilis

  • It's a multi-system illness following untreated primary infection.
  • It occurs 2-12 weeks post primary infection
  • Parenchymal symptoms include lymphadenopathy and skin lesions/rashes
  • Constitutional symptoms include malaise, sore throat, low-grade fevers, itch, myalgia, and weight loss
  • CNS involvement is present in 35% of cases
  • Condyloma lata may be present

Latent & Late Syphilis

  • Asymptomatic state detected through serology
    • Early latent syphilis is less than 2 years since infection
    • Late latent syphilis is more than 2 years since infection
  • Late/Tertiary Syphilis occurs in about 40% of untreated infections
    • Cardiovascular symptoms: aortitis
    • Neurosyphilis: meningitis, spinal cord lesions, neuropsychiatric disorders
    • Gummatous Syphilis

Congenital Syphilis

  • It is acquired through transplacental transmission of spirochetes
  • Is most likely to occur if primary or secondary syphilis is untreated, rather than latent
  • In Early Congenital cases, evident before 2 years of age
    • Symptoms include hepatomegaly, rhinitis, rash, lymphadenopathy, and skeletal abnormalities
  • In Late Congenital cases, evident after 2 years of age
    • Symptoms include facial features, keratitis, hearing loss, Hutchinson teeth, bowing of the shins, and intellectual disability

Syphilis Diagnosis

  • Dark field microscopy requires expertise being not as commonly done
  • Serology includes qualitative (specific) and quantitative (non-specific) tests
  • Specific tests (generally positive for life)
    • Treponema pallidum EIA
    • Treponema pallidum particle agglutination test (TPPA)
    • Treponema pallidum immunoblot assay
    • Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-abs)
  • Non-specific tests (reported as a titre of antibody)
    • Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
    • Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
  • CSF serology to be performed if neurosyphilis is suspected while testing cell count, protein, and glucose

Syphilis Management

  • Penicillin G is the treatment of choice for all stages of syphilis
    • Administer 2.4 million units IM as a one-time dose for early syphilis
    • Administer once weekly for 3 weeks in late syphilis
  • For neurosyphilis: IV/IM penicillin G x 10-14 days
  • Alternative treatment for penicillin allergy: doxycycline
  • NB Jarisch Herxheimer reaction
  • Notification to Public Health is required

Gonorrhoea - Overview

  • Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)
  • Worldwide distribution of affliction
  • It is the 2nd most common STI in Ireland, predominantly affecting the 15-24 age group and MSM
  • Antimicrobial resistance major issue

Gonorrhoea Clinical Features

  • <80% of men and 50% of women are asymptomatic
  • In Males:
    • Urethritis
    • Epididymitis
  • In Females:
    • Cervicitis
    • Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
  • General symptoms:
    • Anorectal, pharyngeal, and disseminated infection – septicaemia, septic arthritis, endocarditis
  • Neonatal symptom:
    • Ophthalmia neonatorum

Gonorrhoea Diagnosis

  • In Males:
    • Urethral: FVU for NAAT, urethral swab for microscopy & culture
    • Rectal/pharyngeal: swab for NAAT
    • Conjunctival: swab for NAAT and culture
  • In Females:
    • Endocervical: Vulvovaginal swab for NAAT, endocervical swab for NAAT/microscopy and culture
    • Rectal/pharyngeal: Swab for NAAT
    • Conjunctival: Swab for NAAT and culture

Gonorrhoea Treatment

  • Notification to Public Health is required as well as testing for cure all patients
  • Treatment:
    • Uncomplicated anogenital or pharyngeal gonorrhoea: Ceftriaxone 1gram deep IM
    • Dissolve 1g ceftriaxone in 3.5ml of 1% Lidocaine Injection for IM injection and not IV injection
    • Cephalosporin allergy OR previous or immediate and/or severe hypersensitivity to penicillin or another β-lactam
    • Refer to dedicated GUM service and where not possible discuss with a specialist in GUM/ID
    • Uncomplicated anogenital: Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO as single dose
    • Pharyngeal gonorrhoea: Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO every 12 hours for 1 day OR -Azithromycin (when known to be susceptible to azithromycin) 2g orally as a single dose

Chlamydia - Overview

  • Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Most common STI reported in Ireland
  • ~50% of cases occur in age group 15-24
  • Major cause of PID and infertility in women
  • 15 serovars in total

Clinical Features of Chlamydia Trachomatis D-K

  • In Females:
  • Cervicitis: Majority asymptomatic, Non-specific symptoms of Inter-menstrual or post coital bleeding
    • Urethritis: Can be as high as 25%, pelvic inflammatory disease is developed if ascended
      • Complications of pregnancy (PROM/preterm delivery/transmission to new-born baby)
  • In Males:
    • Urethritis: Half of them have symptoms, urethral discharge with dysuria.
    • Acute epididymitis has side effects such as Unilateral testicular pain and tenderness, palpals swelling
    • Proctitis (mostly LGV)

Chlamydia Diagnosis and Treatment

  • Diagnosis: NAAT
    • Females: vulvo-vaginal, endo-cervical, urethral or rectal swab
    • Males: First void urine/urethral or rectal swab
  • Treatment
    • Antibiotic choice, treat the partner
    • Check for other causes of STI, and notify the public health

Chlamydia Diagnosis Options

  • Doxycycline 100mg every 12hr for 7 days
  • Azithromycin, 1g stat with 500mg daily for 2 days

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

  • Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis Serovars L1-L3
  • Involves lymphatic tissues
  • Clinical features
    • Primary infection: ulcer at infection site.
      • Secondary infection: More than 2 weeks later, systemic symptoms
        • Inguinal syndrome.
      • Anorectal symptoms.
      • Late infection is fibrosis. Diagnosis: NAAT
      • Anorectal NAAT of rectal swab and biopsy. - Inguinal swabbing of lesbian or aspirate bubo.
  • Treatment Doxycycline x 21/7.

Trichomonas Vaginalis

  • Flagellated protozoan
  • Humans are only natural hosts
  • Most common non-viral STI
  • Transmitted through sexual contact Clinical features
  • Females
  • Vaginal discharge
  • 10 to 50% asymptomatic
  • Associated with PROM & LBW
  • Males
    • Greater than 75% asymptomatic
    • Urethritis Diagnosis and treatment
  • Diagnosis vulvovaginal swab NAAT
  • Wet prep sensitive for trophozoites
  • Treatment - Metronidazole 2g
  • Metronidazole 400mgs BD x 5 - 7 days- Treat partner - Notify public health

Mycoplasma Genitalium

  • Urethritis dysuria, Urethral discharge
  • Females
  • Cervicitis with dsyuria with PID
  • Diagnosis FVU PCR
  • Management - Azithromycin

Chancroid

  • Pathogen Haemophilus ducregi
  • Presentation -Incubation of 1 - 6 weeks
  • Ulcer - Tender inguinal Lymphadenopathy
  • Suppuration and adenitis
  • Differential - HERPES
  • Syphilis - LGV
  • Diagnosis aspiration- Antibodies
  • Azithromycin - Ceftriaxone

Genital Herpes

  • Caused by HSV-1 or HSV-2
  • Primary infection
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Inguinal adenitis -Latency Sacral Nerve Root Ganglia Recurring Symptoms -Genital vesicular lesions
  • Characteristics are vesicular lesions -Penis - Labia vagina and cervix
  • Get Also to rectal oropharyngeal with HSV - 2

Genital Herpes - Ireland 2023

  • Annual of HSV in Ireland 2023
  • About 1,687 Cases genital HSV infection reported in Ireland
  • Most women % 71
  • More cases with HSV - 1- HSV-2- not specified

HSV-2: NEONATAL HERPES SIMPLEX

  • Caused by HSV-2
  • Acquired via canal -50 chances neonatal
  • High risk with CNS infections Severe cases- Results with Intellectual and neurological

Laboratory Diagnosis of HSV 1 % 2

Lab test done for cold cores symptoms or Minor infections Diagnosis - PCR

  • Used vesicular fluid -To make a differentiate HSV-1 with 2
  • Tested with CSF
  • Neonatal HSV tested on lesions -Conjunctivae. Mpox- -

Mpox

  • DS DNA VIRUs
  • Clades 1 & 2
  • Clade lla2022 -WHO REPORTS ENDEMIC
  • Global OUTBREAK -AFFECT - main Gb MSM Population - 2024. WHO HCID
  • Human From Transmission-Direct contact membranes. Skin-touch-Mouth and Mounth
  • Contaminated clothing’s etc. short -range - Aerosols
  • Vertical-Sharps tattoos Animal - Transmission

Mpox - Features and Symptoms

  • Incubation period 5 - 13 days -Persists
    • -Weeks
    • -Molecules Pseudo Umbilicate -Painful and itchy -Systematic head aches

Mpox - Complications (Clade II)

  • Neurological GI -Obstruction Immunocompromised Patients with HIV

Management

  • Viral DNA via PCR
  • Symptoms Skin -Anal Swap
  • Careful and skin infection
  • Prevention Avoid Contact Person
  • Condoms 12 weeks and after
  • Vaccination Modified

Genital Warts

Causes – Human Papilloma Virus -Spread Other contact Apparent Months

  • Recur visual to diagnose

Genital Warts Management

  • Treatment - Chemical and Physical - Therapy - surgical excisions - Prevention Safe Sex -Vaccination

HIV Epidemiology

  • 37.7 million
  • 3.4 million
  • First case Kaposi Sarcoma
  • AID Symptoms- Blood and transfusion Tissues

HIV INFECTON

  • Common Worldwide
  • Risk - Contaminated Vertical
  • MTC - congenital -Needles
  • Tissues and organs
  • Exposures
  • Sharp and injuries

HIV PREVENTION

  • Sexual Contact or PWID

  • Key is -Education-Drug treatment and Prevention-Needle Exchange Transfusion with Voluntary self-exclusion-Screening

  • Limited the occupational

  • Testing - Check risk level ,screening

  • Antenatal

  • HIV Mothers

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Bacterial STIs Overview
20 questions

Bacterial STIs Overview

SmartestFluorine avatar
SmartestFluorine
Understanding STIs and Their Effects
10 questions
Chlamydia and Gonorrhea: Overview
10 questions
STIs:
44 questions

STIs:

EnchantingIguana avatar
EnchantingIguana
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser