Sexually Transmitted Infections Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the causative agent of gonorrhea?

Treponema pallidum

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (correct)

Chlamydia trachomatis

Human papillomavirus

Which statement is true regarding chlamydia infections?

Chlamydia is always symptomatic.

Men are less frequently infected than women.

Infections can result in infertility and ectopic pregnancy. (correct)

It is primarily transmitted through blood.

What percentage of infected men may not exhibit any signs or symptoms of gonorrhea?

0% to 1%

15% to 20%

5% to 10% (correct)

25% to 30%

What is a major complication of untreated gonorrhea infections in infants?

Bilateral corneal ulceration Signup and view all the answers

Which group is considered at higher risk for chlamydia infections?

Age younger than 26 Signup and view all the answers

Why is HPV infection particularly concerning in teens and young adults?

It is the most common viral STI in this demographic. Signup and view all the answers

What is one method to prevent the transmission of HPV?

Practicing safe sex Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about neonatal treatment for gonorrhea is true?

Systemic treatment is necessary for newborns with exposure. Signup and view all the answers

What are the cardinal features in the pathogenesis of Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?

Excessive androgens and ovulatory dysfunction Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a feature used to diagnose Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?

Elevated levels of prostaglandins Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Scarring and adhesions in the reproductive tract Signup and view all the answers

Which infectious agents are known causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Gonorrhea and chlamydia Signup and view all the answers

How does obesity affect insulin resistance in the context of PCOS?

It worsens insulin resistance Signup and view all the answers

What is a noted risk associated with scarring from Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Ectopic pregnancy Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria leading to a malodorous vaginal discharge?

Bacterial vaginosis Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions can result from the descent of the vaginal wall or uterus?

Pelvic Organ Prolapse Signup and view all the answers

How does spermatocele differ from a hydrocele in terms of presentation?

Hydrocele aspiration yields a clear, yellow fluid. Signup and view all the answers

What is a major reason ovarian cancer is referred to as the 'silent killer'?

It is commonly asymptomatic until large tumors develop. Signup and view all the answers

Which genes are primarily associated with breast cancer risk?

BRCA1 and BRCA2 Signup and view all the answers

What factor is commonly linked to increased breast cancer cell proliferation?

Leptin secreted by adipose tissue Signup and view all the answers

What type of obstruction can lead to urinary hesitancy and dribbling in males?

Bladder outflow obstruction (BOO) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the BRCA1 gene?

To function as a tumor-suppressor gene. Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of ovarian cancer's pathogenesis?

It can originate from the fimbriae of fallopian tubes. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for breast cancer?

Increased physical activity Signup and view all the answers

What is one primary function of surfactant in premature infants?

To decrease alveolar surface tension Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by thick, dehydrated mucus due to a CFTR gene mutation?

Cystic Fibrosis Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common pathogen responsible for bronchiolitis in children under 2 years of age?

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk factor associated with Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?

Sleeping on soft surfaces Signup and view all the answers

What typically triggers acid reflux in individuals with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Spontaneous relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of lungs in premature infants that contributes to respiratory distress syndrome?

Underdeveloped lungs with small alveoli Signup and view all the answers

Respiratory failure is most commonly associated with which condition listed?

Cystic Fibrosis Signup and view all the answers

Which age group is at the highest risk for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?

Infants aged 2-4 months Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of large cell carcinomas in lung cancer?

They often exhibit rapid growth and early metastasis. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT directly related to the development of lung cancer?

Consuming a high-fiber diet. Signup and view all the answers

Which category is NOT part of the staging for small cell lung carcinomas?

Localized disease Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by partial or complete upper airway obstruction during sleep in children?

Pediatric obstructive apnea syndrome (OSAS) Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is commonly associated with pediatric obstructive apnea syndrome?

Snoring and labored breathing Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding small cell lung carcinoma is correct?

It has the worst prognosis of all lung cancers. Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consequence of chronic exposure to tobacco smoke on lung tissue?

Progression from metaplasia to invasive carcinoma. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT true about the components of tobacco smoke?

It primarily affects the peripheral lung tissue. Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of healthy individuals are likely to spontaneously eliminate HPV?

70% Signup and view all the answers

Which factors are strongly correlated with persistent HPV infection?

Alcohol use, smoking, and HIV infection Signup and view all the answers

Which conditions are contributing factors to airway obstruction in obstructive pulmonary diseases?

Increased mucus production and inflammation Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the early asthmatic response?

Antigen exposure leading to immune activation and inflammation Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of IgE in the late asthmatic response?

It causes mast cell degradation and release of inflammatory mediators Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of impaired expiration in obstructive pulmonary diseases?

Increased residual volume and hyperinflation Signup and view all the answers

What cytokines are primarily involved in the inflammatory response during asthma?

Interleukins and prostaglandins Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding the immune response in asthma is true?

It activates T-helper cells resulting in IgE and pro-inflammatory cytokines production. Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Exam 4 Fall 2024 Adv Pathophysiology

Exam dates: Tuesday, December 10th (8 AM Central Time) to Friday, December 13th (8 AM Central Time)
Scores posted by Saturday, December 14th (5 PM Central Time)
Exam covers chapters 25, 26, 27, 35, 36, 38, 39, 41, 42
Exam average score requirement: 79.5%
Final grade calculation includes assignments and discussions

Alterations in the Female Reproductive System

Hormonal and Menstrual Alterations
- Primary dysmenorrhea: excessive endometrial prostaglandin production causing uterine hypercontractility, decreased blood flow, and nerve hypersensitivity.
- Secondary dysmenorrhea: pelvic disorders (endometriosis, endometritis, pelvic inflammatory disease, uterine fibroids, polyps, tumors, ovarian cysts, or IUDs)
- Endometriosis: presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterus, common sites include pelvic peritoneum, ovaries, uterosacral ligaments, GI tract, lungs, diaphragm, abdomen, pericardium.
- Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS): suspected genetic basis, characterized by irregular ovulation, elevated androgens, and polycystic ovaries (ultrasound). Elevated androgens/insulin resistance affect follicular growth; FSH is decreased.

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

Acute inflammatory process of the upper genital tract, caused by infections (gonococcus and chlamydia).
Results in scarring, adhesions, and obstruction of fallopian tubes, increasing risk of ectopic pregnancy
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a noninflammatory vaginal condition, frequently occurring in PID.
Pelvic organ prolapse (POP): possible causes include trauma, pelvic floor surgery, obesity, constipation, and damage to pelvic innervation. Symptoms can include urine issues, pelvic discomfort, or numbness during sex.

Alterations of the Male Reproductive System

Lower Urinary Tract Obstructions (BOO): Urinary hesitancy, intermittency, nocturia, dribbling, associated with urethral strictures, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and prostate cancer.
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH): Nodular hyperplasia (prostate enlargement) causing abnormal resistance to bladder outflow.
Prostate Cancer: Most are adenocarcinomas originating from prostate epithelium.

Alterations of the Pulmonary System

Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases: Inflammatory cell infiltration, cytokinesis (Interleukin - pro-inflammatory), mucus production leading to airway obstruction especially during exhalation and air trapping in the lungs.
Asthma (early response): Antigen exposure to bronchial mucosa initiates airway hyperresponsiveness.
Asthma (late response): Toxic neuropeptides contribute to increased bronchial hyperresponsiveness.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD): Two major types include chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
Emphysema: destruction of alveolar walls and enlargement of air spaces (barrel chest) due to elastic recoil loss and gas exchange difficulties.
Chronic bronchitis: excess mucus production, impairment of ciliary function and increased susceptibility to infections related to chronic inflammation.
Restrictive lung diseases: reduced compliance (stiffness) of the lungs, meaning more effort is needed during inhalation. Examples include aspiration, pulmonary edema, ARDS, and pneumoconiosis.

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

Gonorrhea: Neisseria gonorrhoeae, causes infection of mucous membranes, often asymptomatic in early stages in both genders.
Chlamydia: Caused by C. trachomatis and symptoms include inflammation of the cervix, urethritis, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Also, cause of preventable infertility/ectopic pregnancies

Disorders of Accessory Organs

Cirrhosis: Irreversible inflammatory fibrotic liver disease due to chronic alcohol abuse.
Alcoholic cirrhosis: caused by excessive alcohol intake.
Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD): fatty infiltration of hepatocytes without significant inflammation or fibrosis .
Portal Hypertension: Resistance to flow in the portal venous system causes esophageal varices, ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Causes include cirrhosis, and some heart/vascular conditions.
Cholelithiasis (Gallstones): Formation in biliary tract due to impaired metabolism of cholesterol, bilirubin, and bile acids.
Acute pancreatitis: Reflux of bile into the pancreatic duct, from gallstones or alcohol; inflammatory cells recruitment and enzymes back into the pancreas leading to pain and inflammation.
Cleft Lip/Cleft Palate: Incomplete fusion of lip/palate structures during embryonic development, affecting the face/mouth.

Alterations of the Renal and Urinary Tract Systems

Urinary Tract Infection (UTI): Common cause is E.coli in females.
Painful Bladder Syndrome/Interstitial Cystitis (PBS/IC): Chronic condition of bladder pain and pressure; exact cause is unknown but likely involving immune reaction, neuroinflammation, and increased bladder sensitivity.
Nephrolithiasis (Kidney Stones): Result from calcium oxalate crystallization or other minerals in the urine; factors include mineral excess, low urine volume, and lack of inhibitors.
Acute Glomerulonephritis (AG): Immune-mediated inflammatory damage to glomeruli in the kidney; symptoms include hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (protein in urine), and edema. Causes are related to infections, ischemia, toxins, and vascular problems.
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD): Progressive and irreversible loss of kidney function; risk factors include DM, HTN, and CKD.
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI): Rapid decline in kidney function, causing waste buildup. Can be caused by prerenal, intrarenal and postrenal factors.
Other related issues include: hypospadias (urethral opening located on the underside of penis), epispadias (urethral opening located on the top of the penis).

Disorders of the Gastrointestinal Tract

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): Regurgitation of stomach acid and pepsin into esophagus; caused by issues with lower esophageal sphincter (LES) function, motility, or gastric motility. Symptoms include heartburn, pain, and potentially damage to the esophagus.
Peptic Ulcer Disease: Duodenal and gastric ulcers due to an imbalance between acid/pepsin production and the mucosal barrier's protection. Helicobacter pylori and NSAID use are risk factors.
Ulcerative Colitis: Inflammation and ulceration limited to the colon and rectum, without skip lesions.
Crohn's Disease: Inflammatory disease of the GI tract, from mouth to anus, and typically skip lesions.
Diverticular disease: Formation of abnormal pouches (diverticula) in the weakened portions of the intestinal wall, most commonly in the sigmoid colon.

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Test your knowledge on key aspects of sexually transmitted infections, focusing on gonorrhea and chlamydia. This quiz covers causative agents, symptoms, complications, and at-risk populations. Challenge yourself to learn more about these important health topics.