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Questions and Answers

What is the due date for Quiz 3?

  • October 4th
  • October 18th
  • October 11th
  • October 16th (correct)

    • How many multiple choice questions are included in Quiz 3?

  • 10 questions
  • 8 questions (correct)
  • 4 questions
  • 6 questions

    • What percentage of the final course grade do the quizzes account for?

  • 25%
  • 20% (correct)
  • 30%
  • 15%

    • What type of exam format will the midterm be?

    <p>Closed book in-person exam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lectures does the midterm cover?

    <p>Lectures 2-12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During what times will the midterm be held?

    <p>11:35am - 12:55pm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How will the total quiz mark be determined?

    <p>By taking the top five quizzes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following topics are covered in lectures immediately preceding the midterm?

    <p>Recombinant DNA Technologies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one function of coactivators in transcription?

    <p>To locally open the chromatin for GTFs and RNA polymerase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which domain within an activator is responsible for binding to specific enhancers?

    <p>DNA binding domain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do corepressors suppress transcription?

    <p>By preventing RNA polymerase II complex from binding to the promoter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of repressor proteins?

    <p>Binding to enhancers directly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What allows certain transcription factors to function in a cell-type specific manner?

    <p>Allosteric interactions with ligands</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do insulators play in gene regulation?

    <p>Block access to the promoter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can activator proteins increase transcription levels?

    <p>By facilitating interactions with basal factors and RNA polymerase II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic best describes the regulatory regions of enhancers in humans?

    <p>Multiple enhancers can regulate a single gene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical annealing temperature range for primers in PCR?

    <p>50-60ºC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which property is NOT a characteristic of good primer design?

    <p>A high ratio of G to A nucleotides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of real-time quantitative PCR (qPCR)?

    <p>To detect amplification products during the PCR</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a higher Ct value indicate in a qPCR reaction?

    <p>Less nucleic acid present at the start</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common fluorescence detection method used in qPCR?

    <p>SYBR Green</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical melting temperature (Tm) range for primers used in PCR?

    <p>50-65ºC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition should be avoided to ensure specificity in primer pairs?

    <p>Having complementary regions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many cycles are typically performed in a PCR process?

    <p>30 cycles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of miRNAs in the context of diseases?

    <p>They can impact cancer prognosis and treatment through abnormal expression.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process does RNA interference (RNAi) utilize to degrade mRNAs?

    <p>Double stranded RNA (dsRNA).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is critical for control of translation at initiation?

    <p>The presence of eIFG proteins and PABP.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to 4E-BP1 in the presence of nutrients and growth factors?

    <p>It gets phosphorylated, allowing translation to initiate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do longer poly-A tails affect the translation process?

    <p>They bind PABP more effectively, facilitating translation initiation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is NOT used to artificially transform E. coli?

    <p>Exposure to viral infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using an antibiotic resistance gene in plasmids during transformation?

    <p>It helps to distinguish transformed bacteria from those that have not taken up the plasmid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is antibiotic selection important in the context of E. coli transformation?

    <p>It allows for the identification of non-transformed bacteria.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do histone acetyltransferases have on gene expression?

    <p>They favor expression of genes in euchromatin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid modification favors the formation of heterochromatin?

    <p>Lysine 9 methylation on H3.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the role of histone 'readers'?

    <p>They recognize post-translational modifications and exert function on gene expression.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of histone deacetylases?

    <p>They remove acetyl groups from histone tails.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do chromatin modifier proteins play in histone tail modifications?

    <p>They bind to modified histone tails and alter chromatin structure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which proteins are responsible for reversing the effects of histone methylation?

    <p>Histone demethylases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the chromatin structure during acetylation?

    <p>Nucleosomes become more loosely packed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group of proteins is involved in adding various chemical groups to histone tails?

    <p>Histone Writers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

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