IDC Head & Neck Pt. 1

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Questions and Answers

Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for pupillary constriction?

  • Abducens nerve (CN VI)
  • Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
  • Oculomotor nerve (CN III) (correct)
  • Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

What is the expected pupillary response when a light is shone into one eye?

  • Both pupils dilate simultaneously.
  • Only the illuminated pupil constricts, while the other remains unchanged.
  • Only the non-illuminated pupil constricts.
  • Both pupils constrict simultaneously. (correct)

Which of the following is NOT a component of the near reaction (accommodation)?

  • Convergence of the eyes
  • Accommodation of the lens
  • Pupillary constriction
  • Lens flattening (correct)

What term describes excessive constriction of the pupils?

<p>Miosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with unequal pupil sizes. What is the most appropriate term to document this finding?

<p>Anisocoria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical range of normal pupillary size in millimeters (mm) under average lighting conditions?

<p>3-5 mm (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing pupillary reaction to light, absence of the consensual response in the left eye when shining a light in the right eye suggests a lesion in which structure?

<p>Left oculomotor nerve (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient complains of blurred vision when reading up close, but distance vision remains clear. Which component of the near reaction is most likely impaired?

<p>Lens accommodation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's pupils are both fixed and dilated. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

<p>Damage to the pons or medications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a physical examination, you note that your patient's left pupil constricts when you shine a light into their left eye, but the right pupil does not constrict at all. However, when you shine the light into the right eye, the left pupil constricts. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

<p>Damage to the right oculomotor nerve. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining a child, which of the following pupillary responses would be considered normal?

<p>Pupils that are equal in size and react briskly to light (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a 10-year-old child's vision during a routine check-up. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?

<p>The child's pupils are different sizes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best way to measure pupil size?

<p>Using a pupillary gauge (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most accurate about pupillary assessment?

<p>Pupillary reactions can be helpful to assess cranial nerve function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of mydriasis in children?

<p>Use of dilating eye drops (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You observe that a newborn's eyes do not consistently move together and occasionally appear crossed. What would be the next best step?

<p>Monitor the eye movements during the next few well-child visits, as intermittent strabismus is common in newborns. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an examination of a 6-month-old infant, you note the presence of leukocoria (a white reflex in the pupil). Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?

<p>Cataracts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A teenager reports experiencing occasional double vision (diplopia). Besides neurological causes, what else should you consider?

<p>Eye muscle fatigue or strain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adolescent is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. What instructions are most important to provide to prevent the spread of infection?

<p>Practice frequent handwashing and avoid touching the eyes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true when assessing the pupillary light reflex?

<p>Use a bright light source and observe the response in a dimly lit room. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is 20 feet away from a Snellen chart and can read the line marked 20/50. What does this indicate about their vision?

<p>The patient can see objects at 20 feet that a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is unable to read any of the lines on a Snellen chart at 20 feet should have their vision assessed using which of the following methods?

<p>Assessing their ability to count fingers held up by the examiner. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does '20/30 corrected' indicate when documenting a patient's visual acuity?

<p>The patient achieved 20/30 vision with the use of glasses or contact lenses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 50-year-old patient reports difficulty reading small print up close, and states they need to hold reading material further away to see it clearly. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for this?

<p>Presbyopia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what distance should a handheld vision card be held from the patient's eyes when testing near vision?

<p>14 inches (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following test methods is MOST appropriate for assessing visual acuity in a two-year-old child?

<p>Allen cards (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which refractive error causes focusing problems for distance vision?

<p>Myopia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with legal blindness due to a constricted field of vision would have a visual field of what?

<p>20 degrees or less in the better eye (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports blurred vision at both near and far distances. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

<p>Astigmatism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When screening visual acuity without a standard eye chart, what is an acceptable alternative?

<p>Using any available print material (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following instructions is MOST important to give a patient during Snellen chart testing to ensure accurate results?

<p>Attempt to read the next line even if it's difficult. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for using a card, rather than fingers, when covering one eye during visual acuity testing?

<p>To prevent the patient from peeking through the fingers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does correcting myopia improve vision?

<p>By helping objects at a distance to focus better (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing distance vision, what adjustment should be made for patients who wear glasses?

<p>The patient should put on their distance glasses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be noted along with the visual acuity score?

<p>Whether glasses were used. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient can't read the largest letter on the Snellen eye chart, what is the next step?

<p>Position the patient closer to the chart (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Tumbling E chart require the patient to do?

<p>Point to the direction of the open face of the letter E. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should you do if a patient is having difficulty reading all the letters on a line of the Snellen chart?

<p>Identify the smallest line of print where the patient can identify more than half the letters. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should visual acuity be tested in a well-lit area?

<p>By using a Snellen eye chart (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of vision problem does hyperopia cause?

<p>Blurry near (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In visual field diagrams, from whose perspective are the fields conventionally represented?

<p>The patient's perspective, looking out (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is the normal blind spot located in each eye's visual field relative to the line of gaze?

<p>15 degrees temporal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical structures typically limit the normal visual field?

<p>Brows above, cheeks below, and nose medially (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What phenomenon is enabled by the binocular overlap of visual fields?

<p>Stereopsis (3D depth perception) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key limitation of confrontation visual field testing?

<p>It may miss relatively dense visual field defects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of specialized ophthalmologic test is needed for a definitive diagnosis of a visual field defect?

<p>Humphrey visual field test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is typically associated with anterior visual pathway defects?

<p>Optic neuritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions primarily results in posterior visual pathway defects?

<p>Stroke (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the static finger wiggle test, what action should the examiner take to mirror the patient's field of view when testing the patient's right eye?

<p>Cover their right eye (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the finger wiggle test, at what point should the patient indicate when they first see the examiner's fingers?

<p>As soon as the fingers enter their field of view (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important action during the finger wiggle test?

<p>Test each clock hour, or at least each quadrant. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it indicate if a patient repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze in the left eye?

<p>Left homonymous hemianopsia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient consistently misses the temporal field in both eyes during confrontation testing. Which of the following visual field defects is MOST likely?

<p>Bitemporal hemianopsia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During confrontation testing, you notice the patient has difficulty seeing objects in the upper quadrants of their visual field. This pattern is MOST indicative of damage to which area?

<p>Lower optic radiations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are performing a static finger wiggle test on a patient. While testing the right eye, you notice they consistently do not perceive your fingers until they are very close to the center of their visual field. How should this finding be documented?

<p>Generalized visual field constriction OD (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You suspect a patient has a visual field defect but confrontation testing is inconclusive. What is your MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Refer the patient for a comprehensive ophthalmology evaluation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After completing the static finger wiggle test, you suspect your patient has a complete loss of vision in one eye. Which of the following is MOST important to assess next?

<p>Evaluate the pupillary response to light in both eyes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a suspected lesion affecting the optic chiasm. Which visual field defect would you MOST likely expect to find during confrontation testing?

<p>Bitemporal Hemianopsia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cranial nerves is MOST directly related to the visual field?

<p>Optic Nerve (CN II) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient complains of gradually worsening peripheral vision bilaterally. Which eye condition is MOST likely?

<p>Glaucoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Asymmetry of corneal light reflections during an EOM assessment indicates which of the following?

<p>Deviation from normal ocular alignment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle, enabling lateral eye movement?

<p>Abducens nerve (CN VI) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During EOM testing, a patient exhibits a fine, rhythmic oscillation of the eyes at extreme lateral gaze. What is the most appropriate initial action?

<p>Bring your finger within the field of binocular vision and observe again. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of extraocular muscle function, what is indicated by the term 'conjugate gaze'?

<p>Parallel movement of both eyes in the same direction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is asked to follow a finger moving from upward to downward gaze. A visible rim of sclera above the iris is noted. This finding is most indicative of what condition?

<p>Hyperthyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an EOM assessment, a patient is unable to adduct the left eye. Which cranial nerve and muscle are most likely affected?

<p>CN III, Medial Rectus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing convergence, the eyes should normally be able to follow an object to what distance from the bridge of the nose?

<p>5-8 cm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the cover-uncover test during an eye examination?

<p>To reveal a slight or latent muscle imbalance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient demonstrates sustained nystagmus within the binocular field of gaze. This finding is MOST likely associated with which of the following conditions?

<p>Congenital disorders or drug toxicity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the correct technique for assessing extraocular movements?

<p>Having the patient follow a target moving through the six cardinal directions of gaze. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A temporal light reflection on one cornea during the corneal light reflex test suggests what?

<p>Nasal deviation of that eye (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating the superior oblique muscle?

<p>Trochlear nerve (CN IV) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should you instruct the patient to do if you are evaluating for lid lag?

<p>Follow your finger as you move it slowly from up to down in the midline (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's left eye deviates medially. Which muscle is MOST likely weakened?

<p>Left lateral rectus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing the cover-uncover test, you cover the patient's right eye, and the left eye shifts inward to fixate. What does this indicate?

<p>The patient has left exophoria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During EOM testing, your finger should be held at what distance from the patient?

<p>At a comfortable distance, increasing the distance for older adults. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a middle-aged patient is having difficulty focusing during the EOM test, what should you do?

<p>Increase the distance of the target from their eyes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient moves their head while following your finger during EOM testing, what should you do?

<p>Hold the head in the proper midline position. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the extraocular muscles?

<p>Orbicularis oculi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a cause of sustained nystagmus?

<p>Normal aging (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What findings should be referred to an ophthalmologist?

<p>To evaluate the macula well, unexplained visual loss. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a suspected retinal detachment during an ophthalmoscopic exam. What would you most likely observe?

<p>Absence of a red reflex. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an ophthalmoscopic examination, retinal structures appear smaller than normal. Which condition might be responsible for this observation?

<p>Aphakia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an enlarged cup on fundoscopic examination suggest?

<p>Chronic open-angle glaucoma. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes retinal structures in a myopic eye look larger than normal?

<p>Light rays focus anterior to the retina. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides high intracranial pressures and glaucoma, what other condition is associated with loss of SVPs?

<p>Retinal vein occlusion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is absence of the red reflex typically noted?

<p>Opacity of the lens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are observations of pupillary reactions essential in patients with a head injury?

<p>To monitor neurological status. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the magnification provided by the ophthalmoscope when examining the optic disc and the retina?

<p>15 times. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the light rays are focusing posterior to the retina, what condition does the patient have?

<p>Hyperopia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected appearance of the optic disc?

<p>Round, yellow-orange to creamy pink with a pink neuroretinal rim and central depression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key early finding in dry atrophic macular degeneration?

<p>Drusen in the macula. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the normal optic disc measure?

<p>About 1.5 mm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are examining a patient who is pregnant. What should you consider before administering Mydriatic drops?

<p>Pregnancy and breastfeeding are relative contraindications for administration of mydriatic drops. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is dry atrophic macular degeneration associated with?

<p>Macular degeneration is an important cause of poor central vision. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the optic disc look like with high intracranial pressures?

<p>Absence of SVPs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of ophthalmoscope allows a greater field of view?

<p>PanOptic direct ophthalmoscope. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the technique to examine your patients’ eyes?

<p>Examine your patients’ eyes without dilating their pupils. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with myopia undergoes an ophthalmoscopic examination. How are retinal structures expect to appear?

<p>Larger than normal. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a history of narrow-angle glaucoma. What should the physician consider before administering mydriatic drops?

<p>Mydriatic drops are contraindicated. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the whispered voice test, what is the primary reason for standing behind the patient?

<p>To prevent the patient from reading your lips and influencing test results. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the whispered voice test, what constitutes a passing score for an individual ear?

<p>Repeating at least three out of a possible total of six letters or numerals correctly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports difficulty understanding speech, particularly in noisy environments, often stating that others seem to mumble. This is MOST indicative of what type of hearing loss?

<p>Sensorineural hearing loss (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of medications is known to cause permanent hearing loss?

<p>Aminoglycosides (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Presbycusis typically involves the gradual loss of hearing acuity, particularly affecting which range of frequencies?

<p>High-pitched sounds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient fails the whispered voice test in both ears. What is the MOST appropriate next step in assessing their hearing?

<p>Administer the Weber and Rinne tests. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with unilateral hearing loss undergoes the Weber test. The sound lateralizes to the impaired ear. This finding suggests what type of hearing loss?

<p>Unilateral conductive hearing loss (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the Rinne test, bone conduction (BC) is greater than air conduction (AC). What type of hearing loss is MOST likely?

<p>Conductive hearing loss (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with sensorineural hearing loss, how would air conduction (AC) compare to bone conduction (BC) in the Rinne test?

<p>AC &gt; BC (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended frequency for the tuning fork used in Weber and Rinne tests?

<p>512 Hz (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial step in performing the Weber test?

<p>Setting the tuning fork into light vibration and placing the base on the patient’s head or forehead. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the examiner instruct the patient to do while performing the Weber test?

<p>Indicate in which ear the sound is heard louder or if it is heard equally in both ears. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in the Rinne test?

<p>Placing the base of a lightly vibrating tuning fork on the mastoid bone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the Rinne test, after the patient no longer hears the sound via bone conduction, what is the next step?

<p>Quickly place the prongs of the tuning fork near the ear canal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has unilateral sensorineural hearing loss in their right ear. How would you expect the sound to lateralize during the Weber test?

<p>Lateralizes to the left ear. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected hearing loss reports that noisy environments seem to improve their ability to hear. This is MOST suggestive of:

<p>Conductive hearing loss. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is known to cause temporary hearing damage?

<p>Furosemide. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient fails the whispered voice test, and the Weber test lateralizes to the left ear, what does this combination of results suggest?

<p>Conductive hearing loss in the left ear. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports sudden onset hearing loss in one ear without any known cause. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Refer to an otolaryngologist. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing the whispered voice test, what action should be taken to the non-test ear?

<p>Occlude it with a finger and gently rub the tragus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lymph node location is found midline a few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible?

<p>Submental (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the submandibular lymph nodes located?

<p>Midway between the angle and the tip of the mandible (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The preauricular lymph nodes are located in which area?

<p>In front of the ear (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the posterior auricular lymph nodes situated?

<p>Behind the ear, superficial to the mastoid process (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The tonsillar lymph nodes are located at which anatomical landmark?

<p>At the angle of the mandible (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the occipital lymph nodes located?

<p>At the base of the skull posteriorly (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The anterior superficial cervical lymph nodes are positioned in which area?

<p>Anterior and superficial to the SCM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the posterior cervical lymph nodes found?

<p>Along the anterior edge of the trapezius (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the location of the deep cervical chain lymph nodes?

<p>Located deep in the SCM, often inaccessible (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the supraclavicular lymph nodes located?

<p>Deep in the angle formed by the clavicle and the SCM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Enlargement of the left supraclavicular node (Virchow’s node) is MOST concerning for metastasis from which region?

<p>Thorax or abdomen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristics describe lymph nodes that are often found in healthy individuals?

<p>Small, mobile, discrete, nontender nodes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tender lymph nodes are most suggestive of what condition?

<p>Inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hard or fixed lymph nodes are MOST concerning for what condition?

<p>Malignancy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Generalized lymphadenopathy is commonly observed in which of the following conditions?

<p>HIV/AIDS (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining the lymph nodes, what characteristics should be noted?

<p>Size, shape, delimitation, mobility, consistency, and tenderness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a lymph node examination, you encounter a structure that feels like a node. What technique can help differentiate it from a muscle band or artery?

<p>Attempt to roll the structure in two directions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST suitable technique for palpating cervical lymph nodes?

<p>Using the pads of the index and middle fingers with a gentle rotary motion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To enhance the palpation of cervical lymph nodes, how should the patient be positioned?

<p>Neck flexed slightly forward and turned slightly toward the side being examined if needed (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does palpating small, mobile, discrete, nontender nodes indicate??

<p>Normal finding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an otoscopic examination, which action is MOST appropriate for straightening the ear canal in an adult?

<p>Pulling the auricle up and back (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A positive 'tug test,' eliciting pain with movement of the auricle or tragus, is MOST indicative of:

<p>Acute otitis externa (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During otoscopic examination, you observe a red, bulging tympanic membrane. This finding is MOST consistent with:

<p>Acute purulent otitis media (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining the tympanic membrane, an amber color is MOST suggestive of:

<p>Serous effusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During otoscopy, you note a prominent short process and a more horizontal handle of the malleus. This finding suggests:

<p>Retracted tympanic membrane (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings on otoscopic examination is MOST suggestive of chronic otitis externa?

<p>Thickened, red, itchy canal skin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Absence of mobility of the tympanic membrane during pneumatic otoscopy is MOST indicative of:

<p>Tympanic membrane perforation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing otoscopy on a patient complaining of ear pain, tenderness upon palpation of the mastoid area suggests:

<p>Otitis media or mastoiditis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate size of ear speculum to use when performing otoscopy?

<p>The largest speculum that inserts easily into the ear canal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an ear examination, you observe swelling, narrowing, and erythema of the ear canal. These findings are MOST consistent with:

<p>Acute otitis externa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures can be identified through the tympanic membrane during otoscopic examination?

<p>Handle and short process of the malleus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing the tympanic membrane, what does the cone of light help with?

<p>Orienting and identifying the landmarks of the eardrum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are performing otoscopy and observe a retracted tympanic membrane. Which of the following is MOST likely to be present?

<p>A horizontal handle of the malleus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where should you direct your otoscope to best visualize the pars flaccida?

<p>Superiorly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pneumatic otoscopy finding suggests poor tympanic membrane mobility?

<p>A serous effusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing the ear canal during otoscopy, abundant cerumen obscures your view of the tympanic membrane. What is your next MOST appropriate step?

<p>Use a cerumen spoon or loop to carefully remove the obstructing wax. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with ear pain, and during otoscopic examination, you observe a moist, pale, and swollen ear canal. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Acute otitis externa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To optimally visualize the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, the examiner should:

<p>Brace their hand against the patient's face to prevent injury from sudden movements. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports decreased hearing and a sensation of fullness in one ear. On examination, the tympanic membrane appears normal, but pneumatic otoscopy reveals significantly reduced mobility. What is the MOST likely cause of these findings?

<p>Fluid in the middle ear (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an otoscopic examination, you suspect a small perforation in the tympanic membrane. What technique would be MOST helpful in confirming your suspicion?

<p>Evaluate mobility (with pneumatic otoscope) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining the nasal cavity, what is the MOST common normal finding regarding the nasal septum?

<p>Deviation of the lower septum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using an otoscope to examine the nasal cavity, what is the MOST appropriate direction to insert the speculum?

<p>Posteriorly and upward (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When differentiating between viral and allergic rhinitis through nasal mucosa inspection, what color changes are MOST indicative of allergic rhinitis?

<p>Pale, bluish, or red mucosa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with frequent nosebleeds. Upon examination, from which area of the nasal septum do nosebleeds MOST commonly originate?

<p>Lower anterior portion of the septum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What conditions are commonly associated with the presence of nasal polyps?

<p>Allergic rhinitis, aspirin sensitivity, asthma, chronic sinus infections, cystic fibrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors can contribute to a septal perforation?

<p>Trauma, surgery, cocaine, or amphetamines use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When palpating the paranasal sinuses, what finding, in addition to tenderness, MOST strongly suggests acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

<p>Facial pain, purulent discharge, nasal obstruction, smell disorder (&gt;7 days) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is Kiesselbach's plexus (Little's area) located in the nasal cavity, and why is it clinically significant?

<p>Anterior portion of the nasal septum; common source of nosebleeds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN purpose of palpating the frontal and maxillary sinuses during a physical examination?

<p>To evaluate for sinus tenderness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a nasal examination, what is the BEST way to differentiate between a deviated septum that is clinically significant and one that is a normal variation?

<p>Evaluate for obstructed airflow (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST important step to take before using an otoscope to examine a child's nasal cavity?

<p>Explaining the procedure to the child using simple terms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific instruction should the examiner provide to a child during palpation of the sinuses?

<p>&quot;Tell me if it hurts.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an examination of a child with suspected allergic rhinitis, what observation of the nasal mucosa would be MOST consistent with this condition?

<p>A pale, bluish, or red mucosa (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining an adolescent patient with a history of recurrent epistaxis, what area must be MOST carefully inspected?

<p>Kiesselbach's plexus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of identifying nasal polyps during a nasal examination in a child, especially in the context of chronic conditions?

<p>They may indicate underlying conditions such as cystic fibrosis or chronic allergic disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young patient presents with nasal congestion, facial pain, and a persistent cough. These symptoms have persisted for over ten days despite treatment with over-the-counter medications. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Evaluate the patient for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and consider further diagnostic testing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining a child's nose, why is it important to identify the presence of any foreign bodies?

<p>Nasal foreign bodies can lead to infection, bleeding, and difficulty breathing if not addressed (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adolescent patient with a history of seasonal allergies presents with complaints of nasal congestion and frequent sneezing. What aspect of their history would be MOST important to explore further?

<p>Exposure to environmental allergens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY function of examining the nasal septum in children and adolescents?

<p>To assess for structural abnormalities that may contribute to breathing difficulties or recurrent infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a middle school-aged child is experiencing persistent nasal congestion and discharge, what additional information should be gathered during the history taking to help identify the cause?

<p>Information about potential irritant exposures, such as smoking or mold (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST important demographic risk factor to consider when evaluating a patient for potential oral cancer during a routine examination?

<p>Age older than 50, smoker, and heavy alcohol use (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate method for detecting early-stage oral cancers on the tongue during a physical examination?

<p>Inspection combined with palpation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an oral examination, you observe a persistent, indurated white lesion on the side of a patient's tongue. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Refer the patient for further evaluation and possible biopsy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an examination of the oral cavity, you note that the patient's uvula deviates to the right when they say "ah." This finding suggests possible paralysis of which cranial nerve and on which side?

<p>CN X on the left (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While examining a patient's throat, you observe significant tonsillar exudates and a beefy red uvula. Which of the following conditions should you suspect?

<p>Streptococcal pharyngitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with asymmetric tonsils discovered during a routine oral examination. What is the MOST important consideration regarding this finding?

<p>It could indicate lymphoma or other pathology (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an oral exam, what is the primary purpose of asking the patient to stick out their tongue?

<p>To test the function of cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are examining a patient's hard palate and notice a bony protuberance in the midline. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Torus palatinus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After completing an examination of the oral cavity and pharynx, what is the appropriate disposal method for the tongue blade used during the assessment?

<p>Discard it after use to prevent cross-contamination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating a patient's pharynx, which of the following structures should be inspected?

<p>Soft palate, anterior/posterior pillars, uvula, tonsils, and pharynx (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate action when palpating suspicious lesions in the oral cavity?

<p>Use gloved hands to prevent infection and cross-contamination (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's soft palate does not rise when they say 'ah,' and the uvula deviates. This indicates:

<p>Paralysis of cranial nerve X (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are examining the floor of the mouth, which is MOST important to assess?

<p>The presence of white or red areas, nodules, or ulcers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be taken after you have asked the patient to stick out their tongue?

<p>Pull the tongue to one side to inspect and palpate its base (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for inspecting the pharynx?

<p>Ask the patient to cough forcefully (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT part of a standard examination of the oral cavity?

<p>Inspection of the nasal mucosa (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST concerning finding during inspection of the roof of the mouth?

<p>Ulcerations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides streptococcal pharyngitis, what other condition can result in tonsillar exudates?

<p>Viral pharyngitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being evaluated for oral cancer. Which area of the oral cavity is MOST commonly affected?

<p>Sides of the tongue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with throat pain and fever. The uvula is beefy and red. What rapid test should be ordered?

<p>Streptococcal Antigen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Direct Pupillary Reaction

Pupillary reaction where the pupil constricts when a light is shone directly into that eye.

Indirect Pupillary Reaction

Pupillary reaction where the pupil constricts when a light is shone into the opposite eye.

Miosis

Pupillary constriction

Mydriasis

Pupillary dilation

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Myopia

Impairment of distance vision due to focusing problems.

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Hyperopia

Impairment of near vision; nearby objects appear blurry.

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Astigmatism

Imperfection in the curvature of the cornea or lens causing distorted vision at any distance.

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Near Vision Card

Use of a handheld card to assess near vision, simulating a Snellen chart at bedside.

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Presbyopia

Age-related decline in near vision, common in older adults.

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Legal Blindness

Visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better eye with correction, or a visual field of 20 degrees or less.

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Tumbling 'E's'

Chart used to assess visual acuity where the patient points in the direction that the open face of the letter 'E' is facing

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Allen Cards

Pictures that can be recognized by children over the age of 2 years to assess visual acuity

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Visual Acuity Numerator

Indicates the distance of the patient from the Snellen chart.

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Visual Acuity Denominator

Distance at which a normal eye can read the line of letters on the Snellen chart.

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Visual Field

The entire area seen by an eye when it looks at a central point.

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Binocular Vision

The area where the visual fields of both eyes overlap, enabling depth perception.

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Confrontation Visual Field Testing

A screening technique used to identify lesions in the anterior and posterior visual pathway.

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Static Finger Wiggle Test

A test where the examiner wiggles their fingers while moving them from outside the patient's field of view toward the center, assessing peripheral vision.

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Blind Spot

The oval area in the visual field where vision is absent due to lack of receptors at the optic disc.

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Homonymous Hemianopsia

A visual field defect where the same half of the visual field is lost in both eyes.

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Nystagmus

A fine rhythmic oscillation of the eyes.

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Lid Lag

Failure of the upper eyelid to overlap the iris with downward gaze, revealing sclera above the iris.

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Conjugate Gaze

Coordinated movement of both eyes in the same direction.

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Strabismus

Deviation from normal ocular alignment, indicated by asymmetry of corneal reflections.

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Convergence

The ability of the eyes to turn inward to focus on a near object.

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Proptosis

Protrusion of the eyeball.

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Abducens Nerve (CN VI)

Cranial nerve that innervates the lateral rectus muscle, responsible for abduction of the eye.

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Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)

Cranial nerve that supplies the superior oblique muscle, responsible for intorsion and depression of the eye.

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Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)

Cranial nerve that innervates most of the extraocular muscles.

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Cover-Uncover Test

Slight or latent muscle imbalance revealed by alternately covering each eye.

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Optic Disc

Round, yellow-orange to creamy pink structure in the fundus, with a pink neuroretinal rim and central depression.

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Papilledema

Swelling of the optic nerve with increased intracranial pressure.

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Absence of Red Reflex

The loss of the red reflex indicates an opacity of the lens (cataract) or the vitreous.

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Drusen

Cellular debris, seen in macular degeneration; can be hard/sharply defined or soft/confluent.

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Enlarged Optic Cup

Enlarged cup-to-disc ratio, a key indicator for chronic open-angle glaucoma.

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Whispered Voice Test

Procedure where examiner whispers a sequence of numbers/letters and asks the patient to repeat them to test hearing acuity.

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Conductive Hearing Loss

Hearing loss involving the outer or middle ear.

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Sensorineural Hearing Loss

Hearing loss involving the inner ear, cochlear nerve, or central connections in the brain.

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Presbycusis

Age-related hearing loss, typically affecting high-pitched sounds first.

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Weber Test

Test using a tuning fork to assess hearing lateralization; useful in unilateral hearing loss.

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Conductive Loss Lateralization

In unilateral conductive loss during Weber, the sound lateralizes to which ear?

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Sensorineural Loss Lateralization

In unilateral sensorineural loss during Weber, the sound lateralizes to which ear?

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Rinne Test

Test comparing air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC) using a tuning fork.

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Normal Rinne Result

In normal hearing (Rinne), compare air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC).

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Conductive Loss Rinne Result

In conductive hearing loss (Rinne), compare air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC).

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Sensorineural Loss Rinne Result

In sensorineural hearing loss (Rinne), compare air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC).

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Ototoxic Medications (Permanent)

Which medications can cause permanent hearing loss?

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Ototoxic Medications (Temporary)

Which medications can cause temporary hearing loss?

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Submental Lymph Nodes

Located midline, a few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible.

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Submandibular Lymph Nodes

Located midway between the angle and the tip of the mandible.

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Preauricular Lymph Nodes

Located in front of the ear.

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Posterior Auricular Lymph Nodes

Located behind the ear, superficial to the mastoid process.

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Tonsillar (Jugulodigastric) Lymph Nodes

Located at the angle of the mandible.

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Occipital Lymph Nodes

Located at the base of the skull posteriorly.

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Anterior Superficial Cervical Lymph Nodes

Located anterior and superficial to the SCM (sternocleidomastoid muscle).

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Posterior Cervical Lymph Nodes

Located along the anterior edge of the trapezius.

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Deep Cervical Chain Lymph Nodes

Located deep to the SCM (sternocleidomastoid muscle), often inaccessible.

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Supraclavicular Lymph Nodes

Located deep in the angle formed by the clavicle and the SCM.

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Shotty Lymph Nodes

Small, mobile, discrete, nontender nodes frequently found in normal people.

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Virchow's Node

Enlargement of supraclavicular node, especially on the left, may suggest metastasis from a thoracic or abdominal malignancy.

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Tender Lymph Nodes

Suggest inflammation.

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Hard or Fixed Lymph Nodes

Suggest malignancy.

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Rolling a Node

Rolling a node up and down, side to side.

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Generalized Lymphadenopathy

Occurs in HIV/AIDS, infectious mononucleosis, lymphoma, leukemia, and sarcoidosis.

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Auricle Examination

Inspect for deformities, lumps, pits, or skin lesions; move the auricle, press the tragus, and press over the mastoid process.

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Positive "Tug Test"

Pain indicates acute otitis externa; tenderness suggests otitis media or mastoiditis.

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Ear Canal Inspection

Use the largest speculum that fits, inspect for discharge, foreign bodies, redness, and swelling.

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Acute Otitis Externa (Canal)

Swollen, narrowed, moist, erythematous/pale, tender canal.

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Chronic Otitis Externa (Canal)

Thickened, red, itchy canal skin.

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Cone of Light

Helps with orientation during tympanic membrane inspection.

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Acute Purulent Otitis Media

Red, bulging membrane.

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Serous Effusion (Ear)

Amber color.

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Retracted Tympanic Membrane

A prominent short process and a more horizontal handle suggests a retracted tympanic membrane.

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Decreased TM Mobility

Serous effusion, thickened drum, or purulent otitis media.

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Pneumatic Otoscopy

Evaluate mobility using pneumatic otoscope.

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Pars Flaccida

Seen superiorly on the tympanic membrane.

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Pars Tensa

The main, taut portion of the tympanic membrane.

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Nasal Cavity Inspection

Visual examination of the nasal passages using an otoscope and speculum to observe the turbinates and septum.

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Septal Asymmetry

Deviation of the nasal septum is common and may not obstruct airflow.

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Viral Rhinitis Mucosa

Reddened and swollen nasal mucosa.

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Allergic Rhinitis Mucosa

Pale, bluish, or red nasal mucosa.

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Nasal Polyps

Inflamed tissue growths obstructing the nasal passage, seen in conditions like allergic rhinitis.

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Kiesselbach's Plexus

A common site for nosebleeds, located on the lower anterior portion of the nasal septum.

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Septal Perforation Causes

Trauma, surgery, or drug use can cause this.

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Sinus Tenderness Palpation

Palpation of the frontal and maxillary areas.

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Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis Signs

Local tenderness, facial pain, purulent discharge, nasal obstruction, and smell disorder lasting >7 days.

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Torus palatinus

A benign midline lump on the hard palate.

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Suspect Oral Lesion

Persistent nodule or ulcer, red or white, especially if indurated.

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CN X Paralysis

The palate fails to rise and the uvula deviates to the opposite side.

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Asymmetric Tonsils

May indicate lymphoma or other pathology.

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Tonsillar Exudates

Common in streptococcal pharyngitis and need testing.

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Study Notes

Pupils

  • When examining pupils, assess their size, shape, and symmetry in dim light.
  • Use a card with black circles of different sizes to measure the pupils.
  • Assess pupillary reaction to light.
  • Note if the pupils are large (mydriasis measuring >5 mm) or small (miosis measuring 5mm).

Visual Acuity Testing

  • Visual acuity can be tested using a Snellen eye chart in a well-lit area, positioning the patient 20 ft away from the chart.
  • Patients who wear glasses for things other than reading should wear them during the test.
  • Have the patient cover one eye and read the smallest line possible, encouraging them to attempt the next line.
  • If the patient cannot read the largest letter, position them closer to the chart, noting the distance.
  • Identify the smallest line where the patient can identify more than half the letters and record the visual acuity.
  • For patients who cannot identify English alphabet letters, options include tumbling "E's" where the patient points to the direction of the open face, or Allen cards displaying standardized pictures recognizable by children over 2 years old.
  • Visual acuity is expressed as two numbers (e.g., 20/30): the first is the patient's distance from the chart, and the second is the distance at which a normal eye can read the same line.
  • Vision of 20/200 means that at 20 ft, the patient can read print that a person with normal vision could read at 200 ft.
  • The larger the second number, the worse the vision while "20/40 corrected" means the patient could read the 20/40 line with glasses.
  • Myopia (nearsightedness) causes focusing problems for distance vision.
  • Hyperopia (farsightedness) describes eyesight that is blurry on objects nearby.
  • Astigmatism is an imperfection of the cornea or lens causing distortion while looking at near and far objects.
  • Near vision can be tested with a handheld card to identify the need for reading glasses in patients >45 years.
  • The handheld card should be held 14 inches from the patient’s eyes and simulates a Snellen chart.
  • Presbyopia causes focusing problems for near vision, found in middle-aged and older adults, better when the card is farther away.
  • If no charts are available, screen visual acuity with any available print and if patients cannot read the largest letters, test their ability to count fingers, detect hand motion direction, and distinguish light from dark.
  • In the United States, legal blindness is defined as vision in the better eye, corrected by glasses, being 20/200 or less.
  • Legal blindness also results from a constricted field of vision that is 20 degrees or less in the better eye.

Visual Fields

  • A visual field is the entire area seen by an eye when it looks at a central point.
  • Fields are conventionally diagrammed on circles from the patient’s point of view looking “through” the piece of paper.
  • The diagram represents a focus of gaze divided into quadrants.
  • Visual fields extend farthest on the temporal sides.
  • Visual fields are normally limited by the brows above, the cheeks below, and the nose medially.
  • A lack of retinal receptors at the optic disc produces an oval blind spot in the normal field of each eye, 15 degrees temporal to the line of gaze.
  • When a person is using both eyes, the two visual fields overlap in an area of binocular vision allowing for stereopsis, or 3D depth perception.

Confrontation Visual Field Testing

  • Confrontation visual field testing is a valuable screening technique for detection of lesions in the anterior and posterior visual pathway.
  • Even relatively dense quadrantic or hemianopic visual field defects can be missed by confrontation screening tests.
  • A formalized automated perimetry test such as the Humphrey visual field performed by an ophthalmologist is needed to make a definitive diagnosis of a visual field defect.
  • Refer patients with suspected visual field defects for dedicated ophthalmology evaluation.
  • Causes of anterior pathway defects include glaucoma, optic neuropathy, optic neuritis, and compressive lesions.
  • Posterior pathway defects include stroke and chiasmal tumors.

Static Finger Wiggle Test

  • Position yourself about an arm’s length away from the patient.
  • The patient closes one eye and covers the opposite eye while staring at your open eye.
  • When the patient covers the left eye, to test the visual field of the patient’s right eye, you should cover your right eye to mirror the patient’s field of view.
  • Place your hands about 2 ft apart out of the patient’s view, roughly lateral to the patient’s ears.
  • While in this position, wiggle your fingers and slowly bring your moving fingers forward into the patient’s center of view.
  • Ask the patient to tell you as soon as he or she sees your finger movement.
  • Test each clock hour, or at least each quadrant.
  • Test each eye individually and record the extent of visits in each area.
  • Note any abnormal “field cuts”.
  • When the patient’s left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze, a left homonymous hemianopsia is present.

Extraocular Muscles

  • The extraocular muscles responsible for eye movements include the lateral and medial recti, the superior and inferior recti, and the superior and inferior obliques.
  • The function of each muscle and its cranial nerve (CN) innervation can be tested by having the patient move their eye in the direction controlled by that muscle.
  • There are six cardinal directions of gaze.
  • In each direction of gaze, a muscle of one eye is coupled with a muscle of the other eye for conjugate gaze.
  • If one of these muscles is paralyzed, the eye will deviate, and the eyes will no longer appear conjugate, or parallel.
  • The abducens nerve (CN VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle.
  • The trochlear nerve (CN IV) supplies the superior oblique muscle.
  • The oculomotor nerve (CN III) supplies all the rest of the extraocular muscles.

Extraocular Muscles (EOM) Assessment

  • Stand about 2 ft directly in front of the patient and shine a light into their eyes, asking them to look at it.
  • Inspect the light reflection in the corneas; they should be visible slightly nasal to the center of the pupils.
  • Asymmetry of the corneal reflections indicates a deviation from normal ocular alignment.
  • A temporal light reflection on one cornea indicates a nasal deviation of that eye.
  • A cover–uncover test may reveal a slight or latent muscle imbalance, especially in children.
  • Assess the EOMs, looking for:
    • Normal conjugate movements of the eyes in each direction.
    • Any deviation from normal (strabismus), or dysconjugate gaze.
    • Nystagmus, a fine rhythmic oscillation of the eyes (a few beats on extreme lateral gaze are normal).
    • Lid lag as the eyes move from up to down.
  • Sustained nystagmus within the binocular field of gaze is seen in congenital disorders, labyrinthitis, cerebellar disorders, and drug toxicity.
  • In the lid lag of hyperthyroidism, a rim of sclera is visible above the iris with downward gaze.

Testing the Six EOMs

  • Ask the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you sweep through the six cardinal directions of gaze, making a wide H in the air.
  • Pause during vertical and lateral gaze to detect nystagmus, moving at a comfortable distance from the patient.
  • If you suspect lid lag or hyperthyroidism, ask the patient to follow your finger again as you move it slowly from up to down in the midline.
  • The upper eyelid should overlap the iris slightly throughout this movement.

Convergence

  • To test for convergence, ask the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose.
  • The converging eyes normally follow the object to within 5 cm to 8 cm of the nose.

Ophthalmoscopic (Funduscopic) Examination

  • In general health care, examine your patients’ eyes without dilating their pupils.
  • View is limited to the posterior structures of the retina, which can obscure important neurologic findings.
  • Consider referral to ophthalmologists for pupillary dilatation with mydriatic drops to see more peripheral structures, evaluate the macula well, or to investigate unexplained visual loss.
  • Contraindications for mydriatic drops include head injury and coma and any suspicion of narrow-angle glaucoma.
  • Pregnancy and breastfeeding are relative contraindications for administration of mydriatic drops.
  • Some offices use a PanOptic direct ophthalmoscope, which allows a greater field of view, but most clinical settings still use the traditional direct ophthalmoscope.
  • Absence of a red reflex suggests an opacity of the lens (cataract) or, possibly, the vitreous or even an artificial eye.
  • Less commonly, a detached retina, mass, or in children, a retinoblastoma may obscure this reflex.
  • The optic disc is a round, yellow-orange to creamy pink structure with a pink neuroretinal rim and central depression, that often takes practice to locate.
  • The ophthalmoscope magnifies the normal disc and retina about 15 times and the normal iris about 4 times.
  • The optic disc actually measures about 1.5 mm.
  • When the lens has been removed surgically, its magnifying effect is lost.
  • Retinal structures then look much smaller, and you can see a larger expanse of the fundus.
  • In a refractive error, light rays from a distance do not focus on the retina.
  • In myopia, they focus anterior to the retina; in hyperopia, posterior to it.
  • Retinal structures in a myopic eye look larger than normal.
  • An enlarged cup suggests chronic open-angle glaucoma.
  • Loss of SVPs occurs with high intracranial pressures (above 190 mm H2O) that change the pressure gradient between cerebral spinal fluid pressure and intraocular pulse pressure in the optic disc.
  • Other causes include glaucoma and retinal vein occlusion.
  • Macular degeneration is an important cause of poor central vision in older adults.
  • Types include dry atrophic (more common but less severe) and wet exudative, or neovascular.
  • Cellular debris, called drusen, may be “hard” and sharply defined, or “soft” and confluent with altered pigmentation.

Additional Information on Hearing Loss

  • Weber and Rinne tests are used when unilateral hearing loss is suspected.
  • It is important to know the difference between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss, how they lateralize in the Weber test, and how air conduction (AC) compares to bone conduction (BC) in the Rinne test.
  • Assessment of hearing loss in the elderly is also important.

Whispered Voice Test

  • Inform the patient that you will be whispering a combination of numbers and letters and then asking them to repeat the sequence.
  • Stand at arm’s length (2 ft) behind the seated patient so that they cannot read your lips.
  • Each ear is tested individually.
  • Occlude the non-test ear with a finger and gently rub the tragus in a circular motion to prevent sound transfer to the non-test ear.
  • Exhale a full breath before whispering to ensure a quiet voice.
  • Whisper a combination of three words of numbers and letters, such as 4-K-2 or 5-B-6.
  • If the patient responds correctly, hearing is considered normal for that ear.
  • If the patient responds incorrectly or not at all, repeat the test once more using a different three-numeral/letter combination.
  • Use a different combination each time to exclude the effect of learning.
  • If the patient repeats at least three out of a possible total of six letters or numerals correctly, they have passed the screening test.
  • If the patient repeats fewer than three words correctly, conduct further testing by audiometry.
  • Using a different number/letter combination, the other ear is then tested in a similar manner.
  • Detects significant hearing loss >30 dB.

Hearing Loss History

  • If the patient has noticed hearing loss, determine if it involves one or both ears.
  • Determine whether the hearing loss started suddenly or gradually and ask about any associated symptoms.
  • Sudden onset hearing loss, particularly sensorineural, without a known cause should be referred to an otolaryngologist.
  • Distinguish conductive loss (external or middle ear) from sensorineural loss (inner ear, cochlear nerve, or central connections in the brain).
  • People with sensorineural loss have trouble understanding speech, often complaining that others mumble; noisy environments make hearing worse.
  • In conductive loss, noisy environments may help.
  • Medications causing permanent hearing loss include aminoglycosides and many chemotherapeutics (cisplatin, carboplatin).
  • Medications causing temporary damage include aspirin, NSAIDs, quinine, and loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide).
  • Hearing acuity declines with age (presbycusis), often after age 50, and early losses primarily affect high-pitched sounds.
  • Ask “Do you feel you have hearing loss or difficulty hearing?”
  • If the patient reports hearing loss, proceed to the whispered voice test.

Tuning Fork Tests (Weber and Rinne)

  • For patients failing the whispered voice test, Weber and Rinne may help determine if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural.
  • Restrict Weber to patients with unilateral hearing loss.
  • A 512 Hz tuning fork is typically used.

Weber Test

  • Set the fork into light vibration and place the base on top of the patient’s head or midforehead
  • Ask if the sound is heard equally in both ears or if it lateralizes to one side.
    • Unilateral conductive hearing loss: sound is heard (lateralizes) in the impaired ear.
    • Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss: sound is heard in the good ear.

Rinne Test

  • Compare air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC).
  • Place the base of a lightly vibrating fork on the mastoid bone until the patient can no longer hear it, then quickly place the prongs near the ear canal.
    • Normally, AC > BC.
    • Conductive loss: BC = AC or BC > AC.
    • Sensorineural loss: AC > BC.

Lymph Nodes (Head and Neck Exam)

Cervical Lymph Nodes

  • Palpate gently with the pads of the index and middle fingers, using a gentle rotary motion to move the skin over underlying tissues.
  • The patient should be relaxed, with the neck flexed slightly forward, and turned slightly toward the side being examined, if needed.
Lymph Node Locations:
  • Submental: In the midline, a few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible.
  • Submandibular: Midway between the angle and the tip of the mandible.
  • Preauricular: In front of the ear.
  • Posterior auricular: Behind the ear, superficial to the mastoid process.
  • Tonsillar (jugulodigastric): At the angle of the mandible.
  • Occipital: At the base of the skull posteriorly.
  • Anterior superficial cervical: Anterior and superficial to the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle.
  • Posterior cervical: Along the anterior edge of the trapezius muscle by flexing the patient’s neck slightly forward.
  • Deep cervical chain: Deep in the SCM, often inaccessible.
  • Supraclavicular: Deep in the angle formed by the clavicle and SCM.
  • Enlargement of a supraclavicular node, especially on the left (Virchow’s node), suggests possible metastasis from a thoracic or an abdominal malignancy.
Lymph Node Characteristics:
  • Note size, shape, delimitation, mobility, consistency, and tenderness.
  • Small, mobile, discrete, nontender nodes, sometimes termed “shotty,” are frequently found in normal people.
  • Tender nodes suggest inflammation.
  • Hard or fixed nodes suggest malignancy.
  • Generalized lymphadenopathy occurs in conditions like HIV/AIDS, infectious mononucleosis, lymphoma, leukemia, and sarcoidosis.

Rolling a Node

  • You can roll a lymph node in two directions: up and down, and side to side which helps differentiate it from a band of muscle or an artery.

Examination of the Ear

Auricle Inspection

  • Inspect the auricle and surrounding tissue for deformities, lumps, pits, or skin lesions.
  • If the patient has ear pain, discharge, or inflammation, perform a tug test.
    • Move the auricle up and down, press the tragus (tug test), and press firmly behind the ear over the mastoid.
  • Pain with movement of the auricle or tragus indicates acute otitis externa.
    • Tenderness behind the ear suggests otitis media or mastoiditis.

Ear Canal and Tympanic Membrane Inspection

  • Use an otoscope with the largest ear speculum that inserts easily to inspect the ear canal.
  • Look for discharge, foreign bodies, redness, and swelling.
  • Note that cerumen varies in color and consistency.
    • A swollen, narrowed, moist, erythematous or pale, tender ear canal indicates acute otitis externa.
    • Thickened, red, itchy canal skin often indicates chronic otitis externa.
  • Inspect the tympanic membrane for color and contour, using the cone of light to orient yourself.
    • A red, bulging membrane suggests acute purulent otitis media.
    • An amber color suggests a serous effusion.
  • Identify the handle and short process of the malleus.
    • A prominent short process and a more horizontal handle suggest a retracted tympanic membrane.
  • Move the speculum to see the pars flaccida superiorly and the margins of the pars tensa looking for perforations.
  • Evaluate mobility using a pneumatic otoscope.
    • Decreased mobility is seen with a serous effusion, thickened drum, or purulent otitis media.
    • No mobility at all suggests perforation.

Examination of the Nasal Cavity, Septum, and Paranasal Sinuses

Nasal Cavity and Mucosa

  • Use an otoscope and largest ear speculum.
  • Tilt the patient’s head back and insert the speculum gently into each nostril.
  • Direct posteriorly and upward to see the inferior and middle turbinates, the septum, and the nasal passage.
  • Some asymmetry is normal, deviation of the lower septum is common.
  • Inspect mucosa covering the septum and turbinates for color, swelling, bleeding, or exudate.
  • Nasal mucosa is normally somewhat redder than oral mucosa.
    • In viral rhinitis, the mucosa is reddened and swollen.
    • In allergic rhinitis, the mucosa appears pale, bluish, or red.

Nasal Septum

  • Inspect the septum for deviation, inflammation, or perforation.
  • The lower anterior portion of the septum (area reachable by a finger) is a common source of epistaxis (nosebleed).
  • Inspect for ulcers or polyps.
    • Nasal polyps are pale saclike growths of inflamed tissue that obstruct the air passage, seen in allergic rhinitis, aspirin sensitivity, asthma, chronic sinus infections, and cystic fibrosis.
    • Septal perforation can result from trauma, surgery, or use of cocaine or amphetamines.
  • Inspection is usually limited to the vestibule, anterior septum, and lower/middle turbinates.
  • Bleeding from nose picking commonly originates from Little’s area (Kiesselbach’s plexus) on the anterior portion of the nasal septum.

Paranasal Sinuses

  • Palpate for sinus tenderness.
  • Press up on the frontal sinuses from under the bony brows, then up on the maxillary sinuses.
  • Local tenderness plus facial pain, purulent discharge, nasal obstruction, and smell disorder (>7 days) may suggest acute bacterial rhinosinusitis in the frontal or maxillary sinuses.

Examination of the Throat and Oral Cavity

Roof and Floor of the Mouth and the Tongue

  • Inspect the hard palate (roof) for erythema, discoloration, nodules, ulcerations, or deformities.
    • Torus palatinus: a benign midline lump on the hard palate.
  • Inspect the floor of the mouth for white or red areas, nodules, ulcers.
  • Test CN XII (hypoglossal) by having the patient stick out the tongue.
  • Inspect the sides and undersurface of the tongue (common areas for oral cancers).
  • Note color and texture of the dorsum.
    • Men >50, smokers, and heavy users of chewing tobacco/alcohol are at highest risk.
    • Any persistent nodule or ulcer (red or white) is suspect, especially if indurated.
  • Palpate suspicious lesions with gloved hands.
  • Pull the tongue to one side and inspect/palpate.
    • Carcinoma of the side of the tongue is common.
    • Inspection + palpation remain the standard for detection of oral cancers.

Pharynx

  • Ask the patient to say “ah” or yawn, or use a tongue blade.
  • Note the rise of the soft palate (CN X).
    • In CN X paralysis, the palate fails to rise and the uvula deviates to the opposite side.
  • Inspect soft palate, anterior/posterior pillars, uvula, tonsils, and pharynx for color, symmetry, exudate, swelling, ulceration, or tonsillar enlargement.
    • Asymmetric tonsils may indicate lymphoma or other pathology.
    • Tonsillar exudates with a beefy red uvula are common in streptococcal pharyngitis (needs rapid antigen detection test or culture).
  • Discard the tongue blade after use.

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