Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for pupillary constriction?
Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for pupillary constriction?
- Abducens nerve (CN VI)
- Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
- Oculomotor nerve (CN III) (correct)
- Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
What is the expected pupillary response when a light is shone into one eye?
What is the expected pupillary response when a light is shone into one eye?
- Both pupils dilate simultaneously.
- Only the illuminated pupil constricts, while the other remains unchanged.
- Only the non-illuminated pupil constricts.
- Both pupils constrict simultaneously. (correct)
Which of the following is NOT a component of the near reaction (accommodation)?
Which of the following is NOT a component of the near reaction (accommodation)?
- Convergence of the eyes
- Accommodation of the lens
- Pupillary constriction
- Lens flattening (correct)
What term describes excessive constriction of the pupils?
What term describes excessive constriction of the pupils?
A patient presents with unequal pupil sizes. What is the most appropriate term to document this finding?
A patient presents with unequal pupil sizes. What is the most appropriate term to document this finding?
What is the typical range of normal pupillary size in millimeters (mm) under average lighting conditions?
What is the typical range of normal pupillary size in millimeters (mm) under average lighting conditions?
When assessing pupillary reaction to light, absence of the consensual response in the left eye when shining a light in the right eye suggests a lesion in which structure?
When assessing pupillary reaction to light, absence of the consensual response in the left eye when shining a light in the right eye suggests a lesion in which structure?
A patient complains of blurred vision when reading up close, but distance vision remains clear. Which component of the near reaction is most likely impaired?
A patient complains of blurred vision when reading up close, but distance vision remains clear. Which component of the near reaction is most likely impaired?
A patient's pupils are both fixed and dilated. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A patient's pupils are both fixed and dilated. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
During a physical examination, you note that your patient's left pupil constricts when you shine a light into their left eye, but the right pupil does not constrict at all. However, when you shine the light into the right eye, the left pupil constricts. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
During a physical examination, you note that your patient's left pupil constricts when you shine a light into their left eye, but the right pupil does not constrict at all. However, when you shine the light into the right eye, the left pupil constricts. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
When examining a child, which of the following pupillary responses would be considered normal?
When examining a child, which of the following pupillary responses would be considered normal?
The nurse is assessing a 10-year-old child's vision during a routine check-up. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
The nurse is assessing a 10-year-old child's vision during a routine check-up. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
What is the best way to measure pupil size?
What is the best way to measure pupil size?
Which of the following is most accurate about pupillary assessment?
Which of the following is most accurate about pupillary assessment?
What is the most common cause of mydriasis in children?
What is the most common cause of mydriasis in children?
You observe that a newborn's eyes do not consistently move together and occasionally appear crossed. What would be the next best step?
You observe that a newborn's eyes do not consistently move together and occasionally appear crossed. What would be the next best step?
During an examination of a 6-month-old infant, you note the presence of leukocoria (a white reflex in the pupil). Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?
During an examination of a 6-month-old infant, you note the presence of leukocoria (a white reflex in the pupil). Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?
A teenager reports experiencing occasional double vision (diplopia). Besides neurological causes, what else should you consider?
A teenager reports experiencing occasional double vision (diplopia). Besides neurological causes, what else should you consider?
An adolescent is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. What instructions are most important to provide to prevent the spread of infection?
An adolescent is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. What instructions are most important to provide to prevent the spread of infection?
Which of the following is true when assessing the pupillary light reflex?
Which of the following is true when assessing the pupillary light reflex?
A patient is 20 feet away from a Snellen chart and can read the line marked 20/50. What does this indicate about their vision?
A patient is 20 feet away from a Snellen chart and can read the line marked 20/50. What does this indicate about their vision?
A patient who is unable to read any of the lines on a Snellen chart at 20 feet should have their vision assessed using which of the following methods?
A patient who is unable to read any of the lines on a Snellen chart at 20 feet should have their vision assessed using which of the following methods?
What does '20/30 corrected' indicate when documenting a patient's visual acuity?
What does '20/30 corrected' indicate when documenting a patient's visual acuity?
A 50-year-old patient reports difficulty reading small print up close, and states they need to hold reading material further away to see it clearly. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for this?
A 50-year-old patient reports difficulty reading small print up close, and states they need to hold reading material further away to see it clearly. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for this?
At what distance should a handheld vision card be held from the patient's eyes when testing near vision?
At what distance should a handheld vision card be held from the patient's eyes when testing near vision?
Which of the following test methods is MOST appropriate for assessing visual acuity in a two-year-old child?
Which of the following test methods is MOST appropriate for assessing visual acuity in a two-year-old child?
Which refractive error causes focusing problems for distance vision?
Which refractive error causes focusing problems for distance vision?
A patient with legal blindness due to a constricted field of vision would have a visual field of what?
A patient with legal blindness due to a constricted field of vision would have a visual field of what?
A patient reports blurred vision at both near and far distances. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A patient reports blurred vision at both near and far distances. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
When screening visual acuity without a standard eye chart, what is an acceptable alternative?
When screening visual acuity without a standard eye chart, what is an acceptable alternative?
Which of the following instructions is MOST important to give a patient during Snellen chart testing to ensure accurate results?
Which of the following instructions is MOST important to give a patient during Snellen chart testing to ensure accurate results?
What is the primary reason for using a card, rather than fingers, when covering one eye during visual acuity testing?
What is the primary reason for using a card, rather than fingers, when covering one eye during visual acuity testing?
How does correcting myopia improve vision?
How does correcting myopia improve vision?
When assessing distance vision, what adjustment should be made for patients who wear glasses?
When assessing distance vision, what adjustment should be made for patients who wear glasses?
What must be noted along with the visual acuity score?
What must be noted along with the visual acuity score?
If a patient can't read the largest letter on the Snellen eye chart, what is the next step?
If a patient can't read the largest letter on the Snellen eye chart, what is the next step?
What does the Tumbling E chart require the patient to do?
What does the Tumbling E chart require the patient to do?
What should you do if a patient is having difficulty reading all the letters on a line of the Snellen chart?
What should you do if a patient is having difficulty reading all the letters on a line of the Snellen chart?
How should visual acuity be tested in a well-lit area?
How should visual acuity be tested in a well-lit area?
What type of vision problem does hyperopia cause?
What type of vision problem does hyperopia cause?
In visual field diagrams, from whose perspective are the fields conventionally represented?
In visual field diagrams, from whose perspective are the fields conventionally represented?
Where is the normal blind spot located in each eye's visual field relative to the line of gaze?
Where is the normal blind spot located in each eye's visual field relative to the line of gaze?
What anatomical structures typically limit the normal visual field?
What anatomical structures typically limit the normal visual field?
What phenomenon is enabled by the binocular overlap of visual fields?
What phenomenon is enabled by the binocular overlap of visual fields?
What is a key limitation of confrontation visual field testing?
What is a key limitation of confrontation visual field testing?
What type of specialized ophthalmologic test is needed for a definitive diagnosis of a visual field defect?
What type of specialized ophthalmologic test is needed for a definitive diagnosis of a visual field defect?
Which of the following conditions is typically associated with anterior visual pathway defects?
Which of the following conditions is typically associated with anterior visual pathway defects?
Which of the following conditions primarily results in posterior visual pathway defects?
Which of the following conditions primarily results in posterior visual pathway defects?
In the static finger wiggle test, what action should the examiner take to mirror the patient's field of view when testing the patient's right eye?
In the static finger wiggle test, what action should the examiner take to mirror the patient's field of view when testing the patient's right eye?
During the finger wiggle test, at what point should the patient indicate when they first see the examiner's fingers?
During the finger wiggle test, at what point should the patient indicate when they first see the examiner's fingers?
What is the most important action during the finger wiggle test?
What is the most important action during the finger wiggle test?
What does it indicate if a patient repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze in the left eye?
What does it indicate if a patient repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze in the left eye?
A patient consistently misses the temporal field in both eyes during confrontation testing. Which of the following visual field defects is MOST likely?
A patient consistently misses the temporal field in both eyes during confrontation testing. Which of the following visual field defects is MOST likely?
During confrontation testing, you notice the patient has difficulty seeing objects in the upper quadrants of their visual field. This pattern is MOST indicative of damage to which area?
During confrontation testing, you notice the patient has difficulty seeing objects in the upper quadrants of their visual field. This pattern is MOST indicative of damage to which area?
You are performing a static finger wiggle test on a patient. While testing the right eye, you notice they consistently do not perceive your fingers until they are very close to the center of their visual field. How should this finding be documented?
You are performing a static finger wiggle test on a patient. While testing the right eye, you notice they consistently do not perceive your fingers until they are very close to the center of their visual field. How should this finding be documented?
You suspect a patient has a visual field defect but confrontation testing is inconclusive. What is your MOST appropriate next step?
You suspect a patient has a visual field defect but confrontation testing is inconclusive. What is your MOST appropriate next step?
After completing the static finger wiggle test, you suspect your patient has a complete loss of vision in one eye. Which of the following is MOST important to assess next?
After completing the static finger wiggle test, you suspect your patient has a complete loss of vision in one eye. Which of the following is MOST important to assess next?
A patient presents with a suspected lesion affecting the optic chiasm. Which visual field defect would you MOST likely expect to find during confrontation testing?
A patient presents with a suspected lesion affecting the optic chiasm. Which visual field defect would you MOST likely expect to find during confrontation testing?
Which of the following cranial nerves is MOST directly related to the visual field?
Which of the following cranial nerves is MOST directly related to the visual field?
A patient complains of gradually worsening peripheral vision bilaterally. Which eye condition is MOST likely?
A patient complains of gradually worsening peripheral vision bilaterally. Which eye condition is MOST likely?
Asymmetry of corneal light reflections during an EOM assessment indicates which of the following?
Asymmetry of corneal light reflections during an EOM assessment indicates which of the following?
Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle, enabling lateral eye movement?
Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle, enabling lateral eye movement?
During EOM testing, a patient exhibits a fine, rhythmic oscillation of the eyes at extreme lateral gaze. What is the most appropriate initial action?
During EOM testing, a patient exhibits a fine, rhythmic oscillation of the eyes at extreme lateral gaze. What is the most appropriate initial action?
In the context of extraocular muscle function, what is indicated by the term 'conjugate gaze'?
In the context of extraocular muscle function, what is indicated by the term 'conjugate gaze'?
A patient is asked to follow a finger moving from upward to downward gaze. A visible rim of sclera above the iris is noted. This finding is most indicative of what condition?
A patient is asked to follow a finger moving from upward to downward gaze. A visible rim of sclera above the iris is noted. This finding is most indicative of what condition?
During an EOM assessment, a patient is unable to adduct the left eye. Which cranial nerve and muscle are most likely affected?
During an EOM assessment, a patient is unable to adduct the left eye. Which cranial nerve and muscle are most likely affected?
When assessing convergence, the eyes should normally be able to follow an object to what distance from the bridge of the nose?
When assessing convergence, the eyes should normally be able to follow an object to what distance from the bridge of the nose?
What is the primary purpose of the cover-uncover test during an eye examination?
What is the primary purpose of the cover-uncover test during an eye examination?
A patient demonstrates sustained nystagmus within the binocular field of gaze. This finding is MOST likely associated with which of the following conditions?
A patient demonstrates sustained nystagmus within the binocular field of gaze. This finding is MOST likely associated with which of the following conditions?
Which of the following best describes the correct technique for assessing extraocular movements?
Which of the following best describes the correct technique for assessing extraocular movements?
A temporal light reflection on one cornea during the corneal light reflex test suggests what?
A temporal light reflection on one cornea during the corneal light reflex test suggests what?
Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating the superior oblique muscle?
Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating the superior oblique muscle?
What should you instruct the patient to do if you are evaluating for lid lag?
What should you instruct the patient to do if you are evaluating for lid lag?
A patient's left eye deviates medially. Which muscle is MOST likely weakened?
A patient's left eye deviates medially. Which muscle is MOST likely weakened?
When performing the cover-uncover test, you cover the patient's right eye, and the left eye shifts inward to fixate. What does this indicate?
When performing the cover-uncover test, you cover the patient's right eye, and the left eye shifts inward to fixate. What does this indicate?
During EOM testing, your finger should be held at what distance from the patient?
During EOM testing, your finger should be held at what distance from the patient?
If a middle-aged patient is having difficulty focusing during the EOM test, what should you do?
If a middle-aged patient is having difficulty focusing during the EOM test, what should you do?
If a patient moves their head while following your finger during EOM testing, what should you do?
If a patient moves their head while following your finger during EOM testing, what should you do?
Which of the following is NOT one of the extraocular muscles?
Which of the following is NOT one of the extraocular muscles?
Which of the following is NOT a cause of sustained nystagmus?
Which of the following is NOT a cause of sustained nystagmus?
What findings should be referred to an ophthalmologist?
What findings should be referred to an ophthalmologist?
A patient presents with a suspected retinal detachment during an ophthalmoscopic exam. What would you most likely observe?
A patient presents with a suspected retinal detachment during an ophthalmoscopic exam. What would you most likely observe?
During an ophthalmoscopic examination, retinal structures appear smaller than normal. Which condition might be responsible for this observation?
During an ophthalmoscopic examination, retinal structures appear smaller than normal. Which condition might be responsible for this observation?
What does an enlarged cup on fundoscopic examination suggest?
What does an enlarged cup on fundoscopic examination suggest?
What causes retinal structures in a myopic eye look larger than normal?
What causes retinal structures in a myopic eye look larger than normal?
Besides high intracranial pressures and glaucoma, what other condition is associated with loss of SVPs?
Besides high intracranial pressures and glaucoma, what other condition is associated with loss of SVPs?
When is absence of the red reflex typically noted?
When is absence of the red reflex typically noted?
Why are observations of pupillary reactions essential in patients with a head injury?
Why are observations of pupillary reactions essential in patients with a head injury?
What is the magnification provided by the ophthalmoscope when examining the optic disc and the retina?
What is the magnification provided by the ophthalmoscope when examining the optic disc and the retina?
If the light rays are focusing posterior to the retina, what condition does the patient have?
If the light rays are focusing posterior to the retina, what condition does the patient have?
What is the expected appearance of the optic disc?
What is the expected appearance of the optic disc?
What is a key early finding in dry atrophic macular degeneration?
What is a key early finding in dry atrophic macular degeneration?
What does the normal optic disc measure?
What does the normal optic disc measure?
You are examining a patient who is pregnant. What should you consider before administering Mydriatic drops?
You are examining a patient who is pregnant. What should you consider before administering Mydriatic drops?
What condition is dry atrophic macular degeneration associated with?
What condition is dry atrophic macular degeneration associated with?
What does the optic disc look like with high intracranial pressures?
What does the optic disc look like with high intracranial pressures?
What type of ophthalmoscope allows a greater field of view?
What type of ophthalmoscope allows a greater field of view?
What is the technique to examine your patients’ eyes?
What is the technique to examine your patients’ eyes?
A patient with myopia undergoes an ophthalmoscopic examination. How are retinal structures expect to appear?
A patient with myopia undergoes an ophthalmoscopic examination. How are retinal structures expect to appear?
A patient presents with a history of narrow-angle glaucoma. What should the physician consider before administering mydriatic drops?
A patient presents with a history of narrow-angle glaucoma. What should the physician consider before administering mydriatic drops?
During the whispered voice test, what is the primary reason for standing behind the patient?
During the whispered voice test, what is the primary reason for standing behind the patient?
In the whispered voice test, what constitutes a passing score for an individual ear?
In the whispered voice test, what constitutes a passing score for an individual ear?
A patient reports difficulty understanding speech, particularly in noisy environments, often stating that others seem to mumble. This is MOST indicative of what type of hearing loss?
A patient reports difficulty understanding speech, particularly in noisy environments, often stating that others seem to mumble. This is MOST indicative of what type of hearing loss?
Which class of medications is known to cause permanent hearing loss?
Which class of medications is known to cause permanent hearing loss?
Presbycusis typically involves the gradual loss of hearing acuity, particularly affecting which range of frequencies?
Presbycusis typically involves the gradual loss of hearing acuity, particularly affecting which range of frequencies?
A patient fails the whispered voice test in both ears. What is the MOST appropriate next step in assessing their hearing?
A patient fails the whispered voice test in both ears. What is the MOST appropriate next step in assessing their hearing?
A patient with unilateral hearing loss undergoes the Weber test. The sound lateralizes to the impaired ear. This finding suggests what type of hearing loss?
A patient with unilateral hearing loss undergoes the Weber test. The sound lateralizes to the impaired ear. This finding suggests what type of hearing loss?
During the Rinne test, bone conduction (BC) is greater than air conduction (AC). What type of hearing loss is MOST likely?
During the Rinne test, bone conduction (BC) is greater than air conduction (AC). What type of hearing loss is MOST likely?
In a patient with sensorineural hearing loss, how would air conduction (AC) compare to bone conduction (BC) in the Rinne test?
In a patient with sensorineural hearing loss, how would air conduction (AC) compare to bone conduction (BC) in the Rinne test?
What is the recommended frequency for the tuning fork used in Weber and Rinne tests?
What is the recommended frequency for the tuning fork used in Weber and Rinne tests?
What is the initial step in performing the Weber test?
What is the initial step in performing the Weber test?
What should the examiner instruct the patient to do while performing the Weber test?
What should the examiner instruct the patient to do while performing the Weber test?
What is the first step in the Rinne test?
What is the first step in the Rinne test?
During the Rinne test, after the patient no longer hears the sound via bone conduction, what is the next step?
During the Rinne test, after the patient no longer hears the sound via bone conduction, what is the next step?
A patient has unilateral sensorineural hearing loss in their right ear. How would you expect the sound to lateralize during the Weber test?
A patient has unilateral sensorineural hearing loss in their right ear. How would you expect the sound to lateralize during the Weber test?
A patient with suspected hearing loss reports that noisy environments seem to improve their ability to hear. This is MOST suggestive of:
A patient with suspected hearing loss reports that noisy environments seem to improve their ability to hear. This is MOST suggestive of:
Which of the following medications is known to cause temporary hearing damage?
Which of the following medications is known to cause temporary hearing damage?
If a patient fails the whispered voice test, and the Weber test lateralizes to the left ear, what does this combination of results suggest?
If a patient fails the whispered voice test, and the Weber test lateralizes to the left ear, what does this combination of results suggest?
A patient reports sudden onset hearing loss in one ear without any known cause. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A patient reports sudden onset hearing loss in one ear without any known cause. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
When performing the whispered voice test, what action should be taken to the non-test ear?
When performing the whispered voice test, what action should be taken to the non-test ear?
Which lymph node location is found midline a few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible?
Which lymph node location is found midline a few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible?
Where are the submandibular lymph nodes located?
Where are the submandibular lymph nodes located?
The preauricular lymph nodes are located in which area?
The preauricular lymph nodes are located in which area?
Where are the posterior auricular lymph nodes situated?
Where are the posterior auricular lymph nodes situated?
The tonsillar lymph nodes are located at which anatomical landmark?
The tonsillar lymph nodes are located at which anatomical landmark?
Where are the occipital lymph nodes located?
Where are the occipital lymph nodes located?
The anterior superficial cervical lymph nodes are positioned in which area?
The anterior superficial cervical lymph nodes are positioned in which area?
Where are the posterior cervical lymph nodes found?
Where are the posterior cervical lymph nodes found?
Which statement accurately describes the location of the deep cervical chain lymph nodes?
Which statement accurately describes the location of the deep cervical chain lymph nodes?
Where are the supraclavicular lymph nodes located?
Where are the supraclavicular lymph nodes located?
Enlargement of the left supraclavicular node (Virchow’s node) is MOST concerning for metastasis from which region?
Enlargement of the left supraclavicular node (Virchow’s node) is MOST concerning for metastasis from which region?
Which characteristics describe lymph nodes that are often found in healthy individuals?
Which characteristics describe lymph nodes that are often found in healthy individuals?
Tender lymph nodes are most suggestive of what condition?
Tender lymph nodes are most suggestive of what condition?
Hard or fixed lymph nodes are MOST concerning for what condition?
Hard or fixed lymph nodes are MOST concerning for what condition?
Generalized lymphadenopathy is commonly observed in which of the following conditions?
Generalized lymphadenopathy is commonly observed in which of the following conditions?
When examining the lymph nodes, what characteristics should be noted?
When examining the lymph nodes, what characteristics should be noted?
During a lymph node examination, you encounter a structure that feels like a node. What technique can help differentiate it from a muscle band or artery?
During a lymph node examination, you encounter a structure that feels like a node. What technique can help differentiate it from a muscle band or artery?
Which of the following is the MOST suitable technique for palpating cervical lymph nodes?
Which of the following is the MOST suitable technique for palpating cervical lymph nodes?
To enhance the palpation of cervical lymph nodes, how should the patient be positioned?
To enhance the palpation of cervical lymph nodes, how should the patient be positioned?
What does palpating small, mobile, discrete, nontender nodes indicate??
What does palpating small, mobile, discrete, nontender nodes indicate??
During an otoscopic examination, which action is MOST appropriate for straightening the ear canal in an adult?
During an otoscopic examination, which action is MOST appropriate for straightening the ear canal in an adult?
A positive 'tug test,' eliciting pain with movement of the auricle or tragus, is MOST indicative of:
A positive 'tug test,' eliciting pain with movement of the auricle or tragus, is MOST indicative of:
During otoscopic examination, you observe a red, bulging tympanic membrane. This finding is MOST consistent with:
During otoscopic examination, you observe a red, bulging tympanic membrane. This finding is MOST consistent with:
When examining the tympanic membrane, an amber color is MOST suggestive of:
When examining the tympanic membrane, an amber color is MOST suggestive of:
During otoscopy, you note a prominent short process and a more horizontal handle of the malleus. This finding suggests:
During otoscopy, you note a prominent short process and a more horizontal handle of the malleus. This finding suggests:
Which of the following findings on otoscopic examination is MOST suggestive of chronic otitis externa?
Which of the following findings on otoscopic examination is MOST suggestive of chronic otitis externa?
Absence of mobility of the tympanic membrane during pneumatic otoscopy is MOST indicative of:
Absence of mobility of the tympanic membrane during pneumatic otoscopy is MOST indicative of:
When performing otoscopy on a patient complaining of ear pain, tenderness upon palpation of the mastoid area suggests:
When performing otoscopy on a patient complaining of ear pain, tenderness upon palpation of the mastoid area suggests:
What is the MOST appropriate size of ear speculum to use when performing otoscopy?
What is the MOST appropriate size of ear speculum to use when performing otoscopy?
During an ear examination, you observe swelling, narrowing, and erythema of the ear canal. These findings are MOST consistent with:
During an ear examination, you observe swelling, narrowing, and erythema of the ear canal. These findings are MOST consistent with:
Which of the following structures can be identified through the tympanic membrane during otoscopic examination?
Which of the following structures can be identified through the tympanic membrane during otoscopic examination?
When assessing the tympanic membrane, what does the cone of light help with?
When assessing the tympanic membrane, what does the cone of light help with?
You are performing otoscopy and observe a retracted tympanic membrane. Which of the following is MOST likely to be present?
You are performing otoscopy and observe a retracted tympanic membrane. Which of the following is MOST likely to be present?
Where should you direct your otoscope to best visualize the pars flaccida?
Where should you direct your otoscope to best visualize the pars flaccida?
Which pneumatic otoscopy finding suggests poor tympanic membrane mobility?
Which pneumatic otoscopy finding suggests poor tympanic membrane mobility?
When assessing the ear canal during otoscopy, abundant cerumen obscures your view of the tympanic membrane. What is your next MOST appropriate step?
When assessing the ear canal during otoscopy, abundant cerumen obscures your view of the tympanic membrane. What is your next MOST appropriate step?
A patient presents with ear pain, and during otoscopic examination, you observe a moist, pale, and swollen ear canal. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with ear pain, and during otoscopic examination, you observe a moist, pale, and swollen ear canal. Which condition is MOST likely?
To optimally visualize the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, the examiner should:
To optimally visualize the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, the examiner should:
A patient reports decreased hearing and a sensation of fullness in one ear. On examination, the tympanic membrane appears normal, but pneumatic otoscopy reveals significantly reduced mobility. What is the MOST likely cause of these findings?
A patient reports decreased hearing and a sensation of fullness in one ear. On examination, the tympanic membrane appears normal, but pneumatic otoscopy reveals significantly reduced mobility. What is the MOST likely cause of these findings?
During an otoscopic examination, you suspect a small perforation in the tympanic membrane. What technique would be MOST helpful in confirming your suspicion?
During an otoscopic examination, you suspect a small perforation in the tympanic membrane. What technique would be MOST helpful in confirming your suspicion?
When examining the nasal cavity, what is the MOST common normal finding regarding the nasal septum?
When examining the nasal cavity, what is the MOST common normal finding regarding the nasal septum?
When using an otoscope to examine the nasal cavity, what is the MOST appropriate direction to insert the speculum?
When using an otoscope to examine the nasal cavity, what is the MOST appropriate direction to insert the speculum?
When differentiating between viral and allergic rhinitis through nasal mucosa inspection, what color changes are MOST indicative of allergic rhinitis?
When differentiating between viral and allergic rhinitis through nasal mucosa inspection, what color changes are MOST indicative of allergic rhinitis?
A patient presents with frequent nosebleeds. Upon examination, from which area of the nasal septum do nosebleeds MOST commonly originate?
A patient presents with frequent nosebleeds. Upon examination, from which area of the nasal septum do nosebleeds MOST commonly originate?
What conditions are commonly associated with the presence of nasal polyps?
What conditions are commonly associated with the presence of nasal polyps?
Which factors can contribute to a septal perforation?
Which factors can contribute to a septal perforation?
When palpating the paranasal sinuses, what finding, in addition to tenderness, MOST strongly suggests acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
When palpating the paranasal sinuses, what finding, in addition to tenderness, MOST strongly suggests acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
Where is Kiesselbach's plexus (Little's area) located in the nasal cavity, and why is it clinically significant?
Where is Kiesselbach's plexus (Little's area) located in the nasal cavity, and why is it clinically significant?
What is the MAIN purpose of palpating the frontal and maxillary sinuses during a physical examination?
What is the MAIN purpose of palpating the frontal and maxillary sinuses during a physical examination?
During a nasal examination, what is the BEST way to differentiate between a deviated septum that is clinically significant and one that is a normal variation?
During a nasal examination, what is the BEST way to differentiate between a deviated septum that is clinically significant and one that is a normal variation?
Which of the following is the MOST important step to take before using an otoscope to examine a child's nasal cavity?
Which of the following is the MOST important step to take before using an otoscope to examine a child's nasal cavity?
What specific instruction should the examiner provide to a child during palpation of the sinuses?
What specific instruction should the examiner provide to a child during palpation of the sinuses?
During an examination of a child with suspected allergic rhinitis, what observation of the nasal mucosa would be MOST consistent with this condition?
During an examination of a child with suspected allergic rhinitis, what observation of the nasal mucosa would be MOST consistent with this condition?
When examining an adolescent patient with a history of recurrent epistaxis, what area must be MOST carefully inspected?
When examining an adolescent patient with a history of recurrent epistaxis, what area must be MOST carefully inspected?
What is the significance of identifying nasal polyps during a nasal examination in a child, especially in the context of chronic conditions?
What is the significance of identifying nasal polyps during a nasal examination in a child, especially in the context of chronic conditions?
A young patient presents with nasal congestion, facial pain, and a persistent cough. These symptoms have persisted for over ten days despite treatment with over-the-counter medications. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A young patient presents with nasal congestion, facial pain, and a persistent cough. These symptoms have persisted for over ten days despite treatment with over-the-counter medications. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
When examining a child's nose, why is it important to identify the presence of any foreign bodies?
When examining a child's nose, why is it important to identify the presence of any foreign bodies?
An adolescent patient with a history of seasonal allergies presents with complaints of nasal congestion and frequent sneezing. What aspect of their history would be MOST important to explore further?
An adolescent patient with a history of seasonal allergies presents with complaints of nasal congestion and frequent sneezing. What aspect of their history would be MOST important to explore further?
What is the PRIMARY function of examining the nasal septum in children and adolescents?
What is the PRIMARY function of examining the nasal septum in children and adolescents?
If a middle school-aged child is experiencing persistent nasal congestion and discharge, what additional information should be gathered during the history taking to help identify the cause?
If a middle school-aged child is experiencing persistent nasal congestion and discharge, what additional information should be gathered during the history taking to help identify the cause?
Which of the following is the MOST important demographic risk factor to consider when evaluating a patient for potential oral cancer during a routine examination?
Which of the following is the MOST important demographic risk factor to consider when evaluating a patient for potential oral cancer during a routine examination?
What is the MOST appropriate method for detecting early-stage oral cancers on the tongue during a physical examination?
What is the MOST appropriate method for detecting early-stage oral cancers on the tongue during a physical examination?
During an oral examination, you observe a persistent, indurated white lesion on the side of a patient's tongue. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
During an oral examination, you observe a persistent, indurated white lesion on the side of a patient's tongue. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
During an examination of the oral cavity, you note that the patient's uvula deviates to the right when they say "ah." This finding suggests possible paralysis of which cranial nerve and on which side?
During an examination of the oral cavity, you note that the patient's uvula deviates to the right when they say "ah." This finding suggests possible paralysis of which cranial nerve and on which side?
While examining a patient's throat, you observe significant tonsillar exudates and a beefy red uvula. Which of the following conditions should you suspect?
While examining a patient's throat, you observe significant tonsillar exudates and a beefy red uvula. Which of the following conditions should you suspect?
A patient presents with asymmetric tonsils discovered during a routine oral examination. What is the MOST important consideration regarding this finding?
A patient presents with asymmetric tonsils discovered during a routine oral examination. What is the MOST important consideration regarding this finding?
During an oral exam, what is the primary purpose of asking the patient to stick out their tongue?
During an oral exam, what is the primary purpose of asking the patient to stick out their tongue?
You are examining a patient's hard palate and notice a bony protuberance in the midline. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
You are examining a patient's hard palate and notice a bony protuberance in the midline. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
After completing an examination of the oral cavity and pharynx, what is the appropriate disposal method for the tongue blade used during the assessment?
After completing an examination of the oral cavity and pharynx, what is the appropriate disposal method for the tongue blade used during the assessment?
When evaluating a patient's pharynx, which of the following structures should be inspected?
When evaluating a patient's pharynx, which of the following structures should be inspected?
What is the MOST appropriate action when palpating suspicious lesions in the oral cavity?
What is the MOST appropriate action when palpating suspicious lesions in the oral cavity?
A patient's soft palate does not rise when they say 'ah,' and the uvula deviates. This indicates:
A patient's soft palate does not rise when they say 'ah,' and the uvula deviates. This indicates:
You are examining the floor of the mouth, which is MOST important to assess?
You are examining the floor of the mouth, which is MOST important to assess?
What action should be taken after you have asked the patient to stick out their tongue?
What action should be taken after you have asked the patient to stick out their tongue?
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for inspecting the pharynx?
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for inspecting the pharynx?
Which of the following is NOT part of a standard examination of the oral cavity?
Which of the following is NOT part of a standard examination of the oral cavity?
What is the MOST concerning finding during inspection of the roof of the mouth?
What is the MOST concerning finding during inspection of the roof of the mouth?
Besides streptococcal pharyngitis, what other condition can result in tonsillar exudates?
Besides streptococcal pharyngitis, what other condition can result in tonsillar exudates?
A patient is being evaluated for oral cancer. Which area of the oral cavity is MOST commonly affected?
A patient is being evaluated for oral cancer. Which area of the oral cavity is MOST commonly affected?
A patient presents with throat pain and fever. The uvula is beefy and red. What rapid test should be ordered?
A patient presents with throat pain and fever. The uvula is beefy and red. What rapid test should be ordered?
Flashcards
Direct Pupillary Reaction
Direct Pupillary Reaction
Pupillary reaction where the pupil constricts when a light is shone directly into that eye.
Indirect Pupillary Reaction
Indirect Pupillary Reaction
Pupillary reaction where the pupil constricts when a light is shone into the opposite eye.
Miosis
Miosis
Pupillary constriction
Mydriasis
Mydriasis
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Myopia
Myopia
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Hyperopia
Hyperopia
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Astigmatism
Astigmatism
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Near Vision Card
Near Vision Card
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Presbyopia
Presbyopia
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Legal Blindness
Legal Blindness
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Tumbling 'E's'
Tumbling 'E's'
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Allen Cards
Allen Cards
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Visual Acuity Numerator
Visual Acuity Numerator
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Visual Acuity Denominator
Visual Acuity Denominator
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Visual Field
Visual Field
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Binocular Vision
Binocular Vision
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Confrontation Visual Field Testing
Confrontation Visual Field Testing
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Static Finger Wiggle Test
Static Finger Wiggle Test
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Blind Spot
Blind Spot
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Homonymous Hemianopsia
Homonymous Hemianopsia
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Nystagmus
Nystagmus
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Lid Lag
Lid Lag
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Conjugate Gaze
Conjugate Gaze
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Strabismus
Strabismus
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Convergence
Convergence
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Proptosis
Proptosis
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Abducens Nerve (CN VI)
Abducens Nerve (CN VI)
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Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)
Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)
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Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
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Cover-Uncover Test
Cover-Uncover Test
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Optic Disc
Optic Disc
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Papilledema
Papilledema
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Absence of Red Reflex
Absence of Red Reflex
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Drusen
Drusen
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Enlarged Optic Cup
Enlarged Optic Cup
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Whispered Voice Test
Whispered Voice Test
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Conductive Hearing Loss
Conductive Hearing Loss
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Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Sensorineural Hearing Loss
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Presbycusis
Presbycusis
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Weber Test
Weber Test
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Conductive Loss Lateralization
Conductive Loss Lateralization
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Sensorineural Loss Lateralization
Sensorineural Loss Lateralization
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Rinne Test
Rinne Test
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Normal Rinne Result
Normal Rinne Result
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Conductive Loss Rinne Result
Conductive Loss Rinne Result
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Sensorineural Loss Rinne Result
Sensorineural Loss Rinne Result
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Ototoxic Medications (Permanent)
Ototoxic Medications (Permanent)
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Ototoxic Medications (Temporary)
Ototoxic Medications (Temporary)
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Submental Lymph Nodes
Submental Lymph Nodes
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Submandibular Lymph Nodes
Submandibular Lymph Nodes
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Preauricular Lymph Nodes
Preauricular Lymph Nodes
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Posterior Auricular Lymph Nodes
Posterior Auricular Lymph Nodes
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Tonsillar (Jugulodigastric) Lymph Nodes
Tonsillar (Jugulodigastric) Lymph Nodes
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Occipital Lymph Nodes
Occipital Lymph Nodes
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Anterior Superficial Cervical Lymph Nodes
Anterior Superficial Cervical Lymph Nodes
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Posterior Cervical Lymph Nodes
Posterior Cervical Lymph Nodes
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Deep Cervical Chain Lymph Nodes
Deep Cervical Chain Lymph Nodes
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Supraclavicular Lymph Nodes
Supraclavicular Lymph Nodes
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Shotty Lymph Nodes
Shotty Lymph Nodes
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Virchow's Node
Virchow's Node
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Tender Lymph Nodes
Tender Lymph Nodes
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Hard or Fixed Lymph Nodes
Hard or Fixed Lymph Nodes
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Rolling a Node
Rolling a Node
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Generalized Lymphadenopathy
Generalized Lymphadenopathy
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Auricle Examination
Auricle Examination
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Positive "Tug Test"
Positive "Tug Test"
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Ear Canal Inspection
Ear Canal Inspection
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Acute Otitis Externa (Canal)
Acute Otitis Externa (Canal)
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Chronic Otitis Externa (Canal)
Chronic Otitis Externa (Canal)
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Cone of Light
Cone of Light
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Acute Purulent Otitis Media
Acute Purulent Otitis Media
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Serous Effusion (Ear)
Serous Effusion (Ear)
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Retracted Tympanic Membrane
Retracted Tympanic Membrane
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Decreased TM Mobility
Decreased TM Mobility
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Pneumatic Otoscopy
Pneumatic Otoscopy
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Pars Flaccida
Pars Flaccida
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Pars Tensa
Pars Tensa
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Nasal Cavity Inspection
Nasal Cavity Inspection
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Septal Asymmetry
Septal Asymmetry
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Viral Rhinitis Mucosa
Viral Rhinitis Mucosa
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Allergic Rhinitis Mucosa
Allergic Rhinitis Mucosa
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Nasal Polyps
Nasal Polyps
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Kiesselbach's Plexus
Kiesselbach's Plexus
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Septal Perforation Causes
Septal Perforation Causes
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Sinus Tenderness Palpation
Sinus Tenderness Palpation
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Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis Signs
Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis Signs
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Torus palatinus
Torus palatinus
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Suspect Oral Lesion
Suspect Oral Lesion
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CN X Paralysis
CN X Paralysis
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Asymmetric Tonsils
Asymmetric Tonsils
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Tonsillar Exudates
Tonsillar Exudates
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Study Notes
Pupils
- When examining pupils, assess their size, shape, and symmetry in dim light.
- Use a card with black circles of different sizes to measure the pupils.
- Assess pupillary reaction to light.
- Note if the pupils are large (mydriasis measuring >5 mm) or small (miosis measuring 5mm).
Visual Acuity Testing
- Visual acuity can be tested using a Snellen eye chart in a well-lit area, positioning the patient 20 ft away from the chart.
- Patients who wear glasses for things other than reading should wear them during the test.
- Have the patient cover one eye and read the smallest line possible, encouraging them to attempt the next line.
- If the patient cannot read the largest letter, position them closer to the chart, noting the distance.
- Identify the smallest line where the patient can identify more than half the letters and record the visual acuity.
- For patients who cannot identify English alphabet letters, options include tumbling "E's" where the patient points to the direction of the open face, or Allen cards displaying standardized pictures recognizable by children over 2 years old.
- Visual acuity is expressed as two numbers (e.g., 20/30): the first is the patient's distance from the chart, and the second is the distance at which a normal eye can read the same line.
- Vision of 20/200 means that at 20 ft, the patient can read print that a person with normal vision could read at 200 ft.
- The larger the second number, the worse the vision while "20/40 corrected" means the patient could read the 20/40 line with glasses.
- Myopia (nearsightedness) causes focusing problems for distance vision.
- Hyperopia (farsightedness) describes eyesight that is blurry on objects nearby.
- Astigmatism is an imperfection of the cornea or lens causing distortion while looking at near and far objects.
- Near vision can be tested with a handheld card to identify the need for reading glasses in patients >45 years.
- The handheld card should be held 14 inches from the patient’s eyes and simulates a Snellen chart.
- Presbyopia causes focusing problems for near vision, found in middle-aged and older adults, better when the card is farther away.
- If no charts are available, screen visual acuity with any available print and if patients cannot read the largest letters, test their ability to count fingers, detect hand motion direction, and distinguish light from dark.
- In the United States, legal blindness is defined as vision in the better eye, corrected by glasses, being 20/200 or less.
- Legal blindness also results from a constricted field of vision that is 20 degrees or less in the better eye.
Visual Fields
- A visual field is the entire area seen by an eye when it looks at a central point.
- Fields are conventionally diagrammed on circles from the patient’s point of view looking “through” the piece of paper.
- The diagram represents a focus of gaze divided into quadrants.
- Visual fields extend farthest on the temporal sides.
- Visual fields are normally limited by the brows above, the cheeks below, and the nose medially.
- A lack of retinal receptors at the optic disc produces an oval blind spot in the normal field of each eye, 15 degrees temporal to the line of gaze.
- When a person is using both eyes, the two visual fields overlap in an area of binocular vision allowing for stereopsis, or 3D depth perception.
Confrontation Visual Field Testing
- Confrontation visual field testing is a valuable screening technique for detection of lesions in the anterior and posterior visual pathway.
- Even relatively dense quadrantic or hemianopic visual field defects can be missed by confrontation screening tests.
- A formalized automated perimetry test such as the Humphrey visual field performed by an ophthalmologist is needed to make a definitive diagnosis of a visual field defect.
- Refer patients with suspected visual field defects for dedicated ophthalmology evaluation.
- Causes of anterior pathway defects include glaucoma, optic neuropathy, optic neuritis, and compressive lesions.
- Posterior pathway defects include stroke and chiasmal tumors.
Static Finger Wiggle Test
- Position yourself about an arm’s length away from the patient.
- The patient closes one eye and covers the opposite eye while staring at your open eye.
- When the patient covers the left eye, to test the visual field of the patient’s right eye, you should cover your right eye to mirror the patient’s field of view.
- Place your hands about 2 ft apart out of the patient’s view, roughly lateral to the patient’s ears.
- While in this position, wiggle your fingers and slowly bring your moving fingers forward into the patient’s center of view.
- Ask the patient to tell you as soon as he or she sees your finger movement.
- Test each clock hour, or at least each quadrant.
- Test each eye individually and record the extent of visits in each area.
- Note any abnormal “field cuts”.
- When the patient’s left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze, a left homonymous hemianopsia is present.
Extraocular Muscles
- The extraocular muscles responsible for eye movements include the lateral and medial recti, the superior and inferior recti, and the superior and inferior obliques.
- The function of each muscle and its cranial nerve (CN) innervation can be tested by having the patient move their eye in the direction controlled by that muscle.
- There are six cardinal directions of gaze.
- In each direction of gaze, a muscle of one eye is coupled with a muscle of the other eye for conjugate gaze.
- If one of these muscles is paralyzed, the eye will deviate, and the eyes will no longer appear conjugate, or parallel.
- The abducens nerve (CN VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle.
- The trochlear nerve (CN IV) supplies the superior oblique muscle.
- The oculomotor nerve (CN III) supplies all the rest of the extraocular muscles.
Extraocular Muscles (EOM) Assessment
- Stand about 2 ft directly in front of the patient and shine a light into their eyes, asking them to look at it.
- Inspect the light reflection in the corneas; they should be visible slightly nasal to the center of the pupils.
- Asymmetry of the corneal reflections indicates a deviation from normal ocular alignment.
- A temporal light reflection on one cornea indicates a nasal deviation of that eye.
- A cover–uncover test may reveal a slight or latent muscle imbalance, especially in children.
- Assess the EOMs, looking for:
- Normal conjugate movements of the eyes in each direction.
- Any deviation from normal (strabismus), or dysconjugate gaze.
- Nystagmus, a fine rhythmic oscillation of the eyes (a few beats on extreme lateral gaze are normal).
- Lid lag as the eyes move from up to down.
- Sustained nystagmus within the binocular field of gaze is seen in congenital disorders, labyrinthitis, cerebellar disorders, and drug toxicity.
- In the lid lag of hyperthyroidism, a rim of sclera is visible above the iris with downward gaze.
Testing the Six EOMs
- Ask the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you sweep through the six cardinal directions of gaze, making a wide H in the air.
- Pause during vertical and lateral gaze to detect nystagmus, moving at a comfortable distance from the patient.
- If you suspect lid lag or hyperthyroidism, ask the patient to follow your finger again as you move it slowly from up to down in the midline.
- The upper eyelid should overlap the iris slightly throughout this movement.
Convergence
- To test for convergence, ask the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose.
- The converging eyes normally follow the object to within 5 cm to 8 cm of the nose.
Ophthalmoscopic (Funduscopic) Examination
- In general health care, examine your patients’ eyes without dilating their pupils.
- View is limited to the posterior structures of the retina, which can obscure important neurologic findings.
- Consider referral to ophthalmologists for pupillary dilatation with mydriatic drops to see more peripheral structures, evaluate the macula well, or to investigate unexplained visual loss.
- Contraindications for mydriatic drops include head injury and coma and any suspicion of narrow-angle glaucoma.
- Pregnancy and breastfeeding are relative contraindications for administration of mydriatic drops.
- Some offices use a PanOptic direct ophthalmoscope, which allows a greater field of view, but most clinical settings still use the traditional direct ophthalmoscope.
- Absence of a red reflex suggests an opacity of the lens (cataract) or, possibly, the vitreous or even an artificial eye.
- Less commonly, a detached retina, mass, or in children, a retinoblastoma may obscure this reflex.
- The optic disc is a round, yellow-orange to creamy pink structure with a pink neuroretinal rim and central depression, that often takes practice to locate.
- The ophthalmoscope magnifies the normal disc and retina about 15 times and the normal iris about 4 times.
- The optic disc actually measures about 1.5 mm.
- When the lens has been removed surgically, its magnifying effect is lost.
- Retinal structures then look much smaller, and you can see a larger expanse of the fundus.
- In a refractive error, light rays from a distance do not focus on the retina.
- In myopia, they focus anterior to the retina; in hyperopia, posterior to it.
- Retinal structures in a myopic eye look larger than normal.
- An enlarged cup suggests chronic open-angle glaucoma.
- Loss of SVPs occurs with high intracranial pressures (above 190 mm H2O) that change the pressure gradient between cerebral spinal fluid pressure and intraocular pulse pressure in the optic disc.
- Other causes include glaucoma and retinal vein occlusion.
- Macular degeneration is an important cause of poor central vision in older adults.
- Types include dry atrophic (more common but less severe) and wet exudative, or neovascular.
- Cellular debris, called drusen, may be “hard” and sharply defined, or “soft” and confluent with altered pigmentation.
Additional Information on Hearing Loss
- Weber and Rinne tests are used when unilateral hearing loss is suspected.
- It is important to know the difference between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss, how they lateralize in the Weber test, and how air conduction (AC) compares to bone conduction (BC) in the Rinne test.
- Assessment of hearing loss in the elderly is also important.
Whispered Voice Test
- Inform the patient that you will be whispering a combination of numbers and letters and then asking them to repeat the sequence.
- Stand at arm’s length (2 ft) behind the seated patient so that they cannot read your lips.
- Each ear is tested individually.
- Occlude the non-test ear with a finger and gently rub the tragus in a circular motion to prevent sound transfer to the non-test ear.
- Exhale a full breath before whispering to ensure a quiet voice.
- Whisper a combination of three words of numbers and letters, such as 4-K-2 or 5-B-6.
- If the patient responds correctly, hearing is considered normal for that ear.
- If the patient responds incorrectly or not at all, repeat the test once more using a different three-numeral/letter combination.
- Use a different combination each time to exclude the effect of learning.
- If the patient repeats at least three out of a possible total of six letters or numerals correctly, they have passed the screening test.
- If the patient repeats fewer than three words correctly, conduct further testing by audiometry.
- Using a different number/letter combination, the other ear is then tested in a similar manner.
- Detects significant hearing loss >30 dB.
Hearing Loss History
- If the patient has noticed hearing loss, determine if it involves one or both ears.
- Determine whether the hearing loss started suddenly or gradually and ask about any associated symptoms.
- Sudden onset hearing loss, particularly sensorineural, without a known cause should be referred to an otolaryngologist.
- Distinguish conductive loss (external or middle ear) from sensorineural loss (inner ear, cochlear nerve, or central connections in the brain).
- People with sensorineural loss have trouble understanding speech, often complaining that others mumble; noisy environments make hearing worse.
- In conductive loss, noisy environments may help.
- Medications causing permanent hearing loss include aminoglycosides and many chemotherapeutics (cisplatin, carboplatin).
- Medications causing temporary damage include aspirin, NSAIDs, quinine, and loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide).
- Hearing acuity declines with age (presbycusis), often after age 50, and early losses primarily affect high-pitched sounds.
- Ask “Do you feel you have hearing loss or difficulty hearing?”
- If the patient reports hearing loss, proceed to the whispered voice test.
Tuning Fork Tests (Weber and Rinne)
- For patients failing the whispered voice test, Weber and Rinne may help determine if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural.
- Restrict Weber to patients with unilateral hearing loss.
- A 512 Hz tuning fork is typically used.
Weber Test
- Set the fork into light vibration and place the base on top of the patient’s head or midforehead
- Ask if the sound is heard equally in both ears or if it lateralizes to one side.
- Unilateral conductive hearing loss: sound is heard (lateralizes) in the impaired ear.
- Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss: sound is heard in the good ear.
Rinne Test
- Compare air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC).
- Place the base of a lightly vibrating fork on the mastoid bone until the patient can no longer hear it, then quickly place the prongs near the ear canal.
- Normally, AC > BC.
- Conductive loss: BC = AC or BC > AC.
- Sensorineural loss: AC > BC.
Lymph Nodes (Head and Neck Exam)
Cervical Lymph Nodes
- Palpate gently with the pads of the index and middle fingers, using a gentle rotary motion to move the skin over underlying tissues.
- The patient should be relaxed, with the neck flexed slightly forward, and turned slightly toward the side being examined, if needed.
Lymph Node Locations:
- Submental: In the midline, a few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible.
- Submandibular: Midway between the angle and the tip of the mandible.
- Preauricular: In front of the ear.
- Posterior auricular: Behind the ear, superficial to the mastoid process.
- Tonsillar (jugulodigastric): At the angle of the mandible.
- Occipital: At the base of the skull posteriorly.
- Anterior superficial cervical: Anterior and superficial to the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle.
- Posterior cervical: Along the anterior edge of the trapezius muscle by flexing the patient’s neck slightly forward.
- Deep cervical chain: Deep in the SCM, often inaccessible.
- Supraclavicular: Deep in the angle formed by the clavicle and SCM.
- Enlargement of a supraclavicular node, especially on the left (Virchow’s node), suggests possible metastasis from a thoracic or an abdominal malignancy.
Lymph Node Characteristics:
- Note size, shape, delimitation, mobility, consistency, and tenderness.
- Small, mobile, discrete, nontender nodes, sometimes termed “shotty,” are frequently found in normal people.
- Tender nodes suggest inflammation.
- Hard or fixed nodes suggest malignancy.
- Generalized lymphadenopathy occurs in conditions like HIV/AIDS, infectious mononucleosis, lymphoma, leukemia, and sarcoidosis.
Rolling a Node
- You can roll a lymph node in two directions: up and down, and side to side which helps differentiate it from a band of muscle or an artery.
Examination of the Ear
Auricle Inspection
- Inspect the auricle and surrounding tissue for deformities, lumps, pits, or skin lesions.
- If the patient has ear pain, discharge, or inflammation, perform a tug test.
- Move the auricle up and down, press the tragus (tug test), and press firmly behind the ear over the mastoid.
- Pain with movement of the auricle or tragus indicates acute otitis externa.
- Tenderness behind the ear suggests otitis media or mastoiditis.
Ear Canal and Tympanic Membrane Inspection
- Use an otoscope with the largest ear speculum that inserts easily to inspect the ear canal.
- Look for discharge, foreign bodies, redness, and swelling.
- Note that cerumen varies in color and consistency.
- A swollen, narrowed, moist, erythematous or pale, tender ear canal indicates acute otitis externa.
- Thickened, red, itchy canal skin often indicates chronic otitis externa.
- Inspect the tympanic membrane for color and contour, using the cone of light to orient yourself.
- A red, bulging membrane suggests acute purulent otitis media.
- An amber color suggests a serous effusion.
- Identify the handle and short process of the malleus.
- A prominent short process and a more horizontal handle suggest a retracted tympanic membrane.
- Move the speculum to see the pars flaccida superiorly and the margins of the pars tensa looking for perforations.
- Evaluate mobility using a pneumatic otoscope.
- Decreased mobility is seen with a serous effusion, thickened drum, or purulent otitis media.
- No mobility at all suggests perforation.
Examination of the Nasal Cavity, Septum, and Paranasal Sinuses
Nasal Cavity and Mucosa
- Use an otoscope and largest ear speculum.
- Tilt the patient’s head back and insert the speculum gently into each nostril.
- Direct posteriorly and upward to see the inferior and middle turbinates, the septum, and the nasal passage.
- Some asymmetry is normal, deviation of the lower septum is common.
- Inspect mucosa covering the septum and turbinates for color, swelling, bleeding, or exudate.
- Nasal mucosa is normally somewhat redder than oral mucosa.
- In viral rhinitis, the mucosa is reddened and swollen.
- In allergic rhinitis, the mucosa appears pale, bluish, or red.
Nasal Septum
- Inspect the septum for deviation, inflammation, or perforation.
- The lower anterior portion of the septum (area reachable by a finger) is a common source of epistaxis (nosebleed).
- Inspect for ulcers or polyps.
- Nasal polyps are pale saclike growths of inflamed tissue that obstruct the air passage, seen in allergic rhinitis, aspirin sensitivity, asthma, chronic sinus infections, and cystic fibrosis.
- Septal perforation can result from trauma, surgery, or use of cocaine or amphetamines.
- Inspection is usually limited to the vestibule, anterior septum, and lower/middle turbinates.
- Bleeding from nose picking commonly originates from Little’s area (Kiesselbach’s plexus) on the anterior portion of the nasal septum.
Paranasal Sinuses
- Palpate for sinus tenderness.
- Press up on the frontal sinuses from under the bony brows, then up on the maxillary sinuses.
- Local tenderness plus facial pain, purulent discharge, nasal obstruction, and smell disorder (>7 days) may suggest acute bacterial rhinosinusitis in the frontal or maxillary sinuses.
Examination of the Throat and Oral Cavity
Roof and Floor of the Mouth and the Tongue
- Inspect the hard palate (roof) for erythema, discoloration, nodules, ulcerations, or deformities.
- Torus palatinus: a benign midline lump on the hard palate.
- Inspect the floor of the mouth for white or red areas, nodules, ulcers.
- Test CN XII (hypoglossal) by having the patient stick out the tongue.
- Inspect the sides and undersurface of the tongue (common areas for oral cancers).
- Note color and texture of the dorsum.
- Men >50, smokers, and heavy users of chewing tobacco/alcohol are at highest risk.
- Any persistent nodule or ulcer (red or white) is suspect, especially if indurated.
- Palpate suspicious lesions with gloved hands.
- Pull the tongue to one side and inspect/palpate.
- Carcinoma of the side of the tongue is common.
- Inspection + palpation remain the standard for detection of oral cancers.
Pharynx
- Ask the patient to say “ah” or yawn, or use a tongue blade.
- Note the rise of the soft palate (CN X).
- In CN X paralysis, the palate fails to rise and the uvula deviates to the opposite side.
- Inspect soft palate, anterior/posterior pillars, uvula, tonsils, and pharynx for color, symmetry, exudate, swelling, ulceration, or tonsillar enlargement.
- Asymmetric tonsils may indicate lymphoma or other pathology.
- Tonsillar exudates with a beefy red uvula are common in streptococcal pharyngitis (needs rapid antigen detection test or culture).
- Discard the tongue blade after use.
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