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Questions and Answers

Which of the following neurotransmitters is most directly associated with emotions and mood regulation, making it a primary target for treating depressive disorders?

  • Glutamate
  • Norepinephrine
  • Serotonin (correct)
  • Dopamine

A patient undergoing anesthesia exhibits hyperthermia, rigidity, and autonomic instability. They are known to be taking an SSRI. Which condition is most likely causing these symptoms?

  • Central Cholinergic Syndrome
  • Serotonin Syndrome (correct)
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
  • Malignant Hyperthermia

Why are Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) generally continued perioperatively?

  • To prevent serotonin syndrome.
  • To avoid discontinuation syndrome. (correct)
  • To potentiate the effects of anesthetic agents.
  • To enhance analgesia during surgery.

A patient on an MAOI is hypotensive during surgery. Which vasopressor should be administered with caution?

<p>Phenylephrine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which lithium, a common mood stabilizer, is thought to exert its therapeutic effects?

<p>Inhibiting excitatory neurotransmission and enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which side effect of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) poses the greatest risk to elderly patients?

<p>Delirium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with lithium toxicity?

<p>Hypertension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of schizophrenia is scheduled for surgery. Which class of antipsychotics is most likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects (EPS)?

<p>Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) from Malignant Hyperthermia (MH) in a patient presenting with hyperthermia and muscle rigidity during anesthesia?

<p>Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants produce flaccid paralysis in NMS but are ineffective in MH. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient taking methylphenidate (Ritalin) for ADHD require a higher dose of anesthesia?

<p>Methylphenidate can actively induce emergence from anesthesia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient prescribed an SSRI is also taking tramadol for chronic pain. Which potential drug interaction should the anesthesia provider be most concerned about?

<p>Increased risk of serotonin syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which receptor type, when agonized, can result in anxiety, insomnia, and sexual dysfunction, side effects often associated with certain psychotropic medications?

<p>5-HT2A receptors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When considering anesthetic management for a patient taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), what is the most appropriate approach to administering vasopressors?

<p>Use direct-acting vasopressors like phenylephrine in smaller doses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a known anesthetic consideration for patients chronically using cannabis?

<p>Increased anesthetic requirements (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking lithium develops nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Which mechanism best explains this side effect?

<p>Downregulation of aquaporin channels in the collecting ducts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which atypical (second-generation) antipsychotics (SGAs) improve cognitive and affective symptoms compared to typical (first-generation) antipsychotics (FGAs)?

<p>Combined D2 antagonism with effects on serotonin, histamine, and alpha receptors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on an MAOI requires emergency surgery. Which anesthetic agent is most likely to be avoided?

<p>Ketamine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a cardinal feature of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

<p>Skeletal muscle rigidity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and develops increased thirst and frequent urination. What is the likely cause?

<p>Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why it is important to monitor ECGs in patients taking antipsychotics?

<p>Antipsychotics can prolong the QTc interval, increasing the risk of arrhythmias. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for acute dystonia caused by antipsychotic medications?

<p>Diphenhydramine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the mechanism of action of mixed amphetamine salts (Adderall), which of the following physiological effects would be most concerning during anesthesia?

<p>Increased heart rate and blood pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following receptors, when targeted by certain psychotropic drugs, is known to regulate nausea and vomiting?

<p>5-HT3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary anesthetic concern regarding the use of haloperidol for postoperative delirium?

<p>Potential for QT prolongation and arrhythmias (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on isocarboxazid (MAOI) is undergoing general anesthesia. Which muscle relaxant's duration of action is most likely to be prolonged?

<p>Succinylcholine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients taking SSRIs may be at increased risk for hyponatremia due to which mechanism?

<p>Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of bipolar disorder and currently prescribed lithium is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Preoperatively, what instructions should the patient receive regarding their lithium dosage?

<p>Discontinue lithium 1-3 days before surgery, if approved by their psychiatrist. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking clozapine presents for surgery. Which of the following side effects is most important for the anesthesia provider to be aware of?

<p>Myelosuppression / agranulocytosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions is most important in managing a patient who develops Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

<p>Discontinuation of the offending antipsychotic and supportive care (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking mirtazapine presents for elective surgery. Which of the following side effects of mirtazapine is most relevant to anesthetic management?

<p>Orthostatic hypotension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which inhaled anesthetic agent is least likely to be affected by methylphenidate?

<p>Nitrous Oxide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ADHD is taking clonidine. What primary effect of clonidine should be considered during anesthesia?

<p>Increased risk of bradycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the effect of acute cannabis intoxication on anesthetic requirements?

<p>Increased anesthetic requirements, especially for sedation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding Atypical (Second Generation) Antipsychotics (SGAs)?

<p>SGAs are associated with significant metabolic effects like weight gain, insulin resistance, and hypercholesterolemia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During emergence from anesthesia, a patient exhibits signs of delirium. Besides administering haloperidol as a first-line treatment, what other intervention is crucial?

<p>Identifying and treating the underlying cause of delirium. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking venlafaxine, an SNRI, is noted to have hypertension and tachycardia preoperatively. Which receptor activity related to venlafaxine is most likely contributing to these findings?

<p>Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking an SSRI is scheduled for surgery. What is the most important consideration regarding their medication regimen?

<p>Continuing the SSRI perioperatively to avoid discontinuation syndrome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on an MAOI is undergoing anesthesia. Which of the following anesthetic agents should be avoided due to the risk of a hypertensive crisis?

<p>Ketamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most likely effect of lithium on anesthetic requirements?

<p>Decreased anesthetic requirements due to enhanced GABA neurotransmission. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability intraoperatively. The patient is taking haloperidol. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which SNRIs exert their antidepressant effects?

<p>Blocking the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, increasing their synaptic levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most important to monitor in a patient taking antipsychotics due to the potential for QTc prolongation.

<p>Electrocardiogram (ECG) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking lithium is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following instructions regarding their medication is most appropriate?

<p>Discontinue lithium 1-3 days prior to surgery, depending on the procedure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary anesthetic consideration for patients chronically using cannabis?

<p>Increased anesthetic requirements, potential cardiovascular and airway/pulmonary effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of trazodone?

<p>Serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI), 5-HT2A and alpha-1 antagonist. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on phenelzine requires emergency surgery. Which class of vasopressors should be avoided?

<p>Indirect-acting sympathomimetics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for avoiding ephedrine in patients taking MAOIs?

<p>Risk of hypertensive crisis due to unopposed adrenergic stimulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant side effect of clozapine that requires monitoring?

<p>Agranulocytosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the effect of methylphenidate on anesthetic requirements?

<p>Increased anesthetic requirements, potentially requiring higher doses of inhaled and IV anesthetics. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) that can be particularly problematic in elderly patients?

<p>Anticholinergic effects (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking bupropion presents for surgery. What potential side effect is most important for the anesthesia provider to be aware of?

<p>Seizures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might the use of clonidine for ADHD impact anesthetic management?

<p>It may decrease anesthetic requirements due to its sedative properties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the advantage of atypical (second-generation) antipsychotics (SGAs) compared to typical (first-generation) antipsychotics (FGAs)?

<p>Lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking venlafaxine, an SNRI, is undergoing surgery. Which potential cardiovascular effect should the anesthesia provider be most prepared to manage?

<p>Tachycardia / Hypertension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter system is most closely associated with the mechanism of action of typical antipsychotics (FGAs)?

<p>Dopamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is generally considered safe to administer to a patient taking an MAOI?

<p>Morphine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anesthesia providers should be aware that fluoxetine inhibits CYP450 enzymes, which can lead to what outcome?

<p>Decreased metabolism of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding risk. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does lithium exert its therapeutic effects in treating bipolar disorder?

<p>By inhibiting excitatory neurotransmission and increasing inhibitory neurotransmission. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Discontinuation of SSRIs can lead to a withdrawal syndrome. What are some of the symptoms of this?

<p>Major depressive episode, dizziness, paresthesias (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is least likely to occur during Serotonin Syndrome?

<p>Hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking an SSRI and scheduled for a surgical procedure is noted to have mild hyponatremia preoperatively. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

<p>Stimulation of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release leading to increased water retention. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms best explains how lithium decreases neuronal excitability in the treatment of bipolar disorder?

<p>Inhibiting excitatory neurotransmission by downregulating NMDA receptors and increasing GABA transmission. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on a stable dose of lithium is scheduled for surgery. Preoperative assessment reveals the concurrent use of a thiazide diuretic for hypertension. What adjustment to the anesthetic plan is most warranted?

<p>Closely monitor serum lithium levels and renal function due to increased risk of lithium toxicity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) is undergoing anesthesia. Which of the following cardiovascular effects is most important to anticipate and manage?

<p>Orthostatic hypotension due to alpha-1 receptor blockade. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When managing a patient taking MAOIs, why is it important to avoid indirect-acting sympathomimetics?

<p>They cause unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation, leading to hypertensive crisis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is scheduled for surgery. What is the most critical hematological side effect that the anesthesia provider should be aware of?

<p>Agranulocytosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of schizophrenia develops muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability postoperatively. They have been recently started on haloperidol. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ADHD is taking methylphenidate. What is the most likely effect of this medication on anesthetic requirements?

<p>Increased anesthetic requirements due to increased catecholamine levels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient chronically using cannabis is undergoing anesthesia. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

<p>Increased anesthetic requirements due to the development of tolerance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on an MAOI requires emergency surgery. Which of the following anesthetic agents is generally considered safe to administer?

<p>Propofol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Depressive Disorders

Sadness that interferes with function and loss of pleasure.

5-HT1A Receptors

Inhibitory; involved in antidepressant effects.

5-HT2A Receptors

Excitatory; agonism can cause anxiety, insomnia, and sexual dysfunction.

5-HT3 Receptors

Regulate nausea and vomiting; targeted by psychotropic and anesthetic drugs.

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SSRIs Mechanism

Block serotonin reuptake, increasing synaptic serotonin levels.

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SSRIs Mechanism

Block serotonin reuptake, leading to increased synaptic levels.

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SSRI Drug Interactions

Inhibiting CYP 450 enzymes, increasing plasma concentrations of other drugs.

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Serotonin Syndrome

Excessive CNS serotonergic activity, often with multiple drugs increasing serotonin levels.

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Serotonin Syndrome Symptoms

Autonomic instability, neuromuscular abnormalities, and mental status changes.

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SNRIs Mechanism

Block reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, increasing their synaptic levels.

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TCAs Mechanism

Inhibit reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine; antagonize various receptors.

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TCA Side Effects (CNS)

Anticholinergic effects, sedation, delirium risk, lowered seizure threshold.

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TCA Side Effects (CV)

Orthostatic hypotension, increased heart rate, ECG changes.

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MAOIs Mechanism

Inhibit monoamine oxidase (MAO), increasing availability of neurotransmitters.

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MAOI Side Effects

Hypotension, anticholinergic-like effects, sedation, paresthesias, weight gain.

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MAOIs Type I Reaction

Can occur with meperidine and dextromethorphan.

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MAOIs Type II Reaction

Due to enhanced opioid effects; treat with naloxone.

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Trazodone

SRI, 5-HT2A and alpha-1 antagonist; used for MDD and insomnia.

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Buspirone

Partial agonist at 5-HT receptors; used for GAD; may elevate NE and DA.

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Mirtazapine

Tetracyclic alpha-2 and 5-HT2A/3 and H1 antagonist; used for MDD.

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Bupropion

Inhibits DA and NE reuptake; used for MDD, smoking cessation, ADHD.

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Bipolar Disorders

Episodes of mania and depression.

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Lithium Mechanism

Inhibits excitatory neurotransmission and increases GABA neurotransmission.

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Lithium Side Effects

Polydipsia, polyuria, nephrogenic DI, hypothyroidism, cardiac effects.

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Lithium Drug Interactions

Increased lithium levels with thiazide and loop diuretics, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors.

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Schizophrenia/Psychoses

Loss of contact with reality, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech.

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Typical Antipsychotics Mechanism

Primarily dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists in the CNS.

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Extrapyramidal Side Effects (EPS)

Tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, dystonia, tremors.

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Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)

Hypertonicity, autonomic instability, altered consciousness.

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NMS Treatment

Dantrolene, dopamine agonists, benzodiazepines, IV hydration, and cooling.

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Atypical Antipsychotics Mechanism

D2 antagonism plus effects on H1, 5-HT2, mACh, alpha receptors.

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SGA Metabolic Effects

Weight gain, hypercholesterolemia, insulin resistance.

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Emergence Delirium Symptoms

Disturbed attention/cognition, disorientation, agitation.

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Emergence Delirium Treatment

Control pain and agitation; haloperidol is often first-line.

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ADHD Characteristics

Inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity.

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Methylphenidate (Ritalin) Mechanism

CNS stimulant; blocks NE and DA reuptake, increases DA release.

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Mixed Amphetamine Salts (Adderall) Mechanism

Blocks NE and DA reuptake, increases dopamine release.

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Clonidine

Alpha-2 agonist; used for ADHD, anxiety, opioid withdrawal, and analgesia.

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Delta-9-THC

Most potent psychoactive cannabinoid; binds to CB1 and CB2 receptors.

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Acute Cannabis Intoxication

Euphoria, relaxation, altered perception, decreased reaction time.

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Study Notes

Psychopharmacology & Anesthesia

  • Psychotropic drugs affect mood, sensation, thinking, and behavior
  • Many psychotropic drugs affect similar neurotransmitter and ionic systems as anesthetic agents
  • This influences anesthetic management and guides decisions on whether to continue or hold medications perioperatively

Depressive Disorders

  • Characterized by sadness that interferes with function and loss of pleasure
  • Multifactorial, involving genetics, neurotransmitter changes, neuroendocrine issues, and psychosocial factors
  • Serotonin (5-HT) is highly implicated in emotions and mood and serves as a major target for treatment
  • Different 5-HT receptors have varying actions depending on tissue

Serotonin Receptors

  • 5-HT1A receptors are inhibitory and involved in antidepressant effects
  • 5-HT2A receptors are excitatory and their agonism can cause anxiety, insomnia, and sexual dysfunction
    • They are antagonized by some antipsychotics and implicated in serotonin syndrome
  • 5-HT3 receptors regulate nausea and vomiting and can be targeted by psychotropic and anesthetic drugs

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

  • Include fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine, citalopram, escitalopram
  • Mechanism: blocking serotonin reuptake, which increases synaptic serotonin levels and can eventually lead to down-regulation of serotonin receptors
  • Used for mild to moderate depression, panic disorder, OCD, phobias, and PTSD
  • Common side effects: insomnia, agitation, headache, nausea, diarrhea, hyponatremia (SIADH), and increased risk of suicidal thoughts in children and adolescents (black box warning)
  • Can inhibit CYP 450 enzymes, increasing plasma concentrations of other drugs and increasing bleeding risk with drugs like warfarin
  • Citalopram and escitalopram can cause QT prolongation
  • Should generally be continued perioperatively to avoid discontinuation syndrome

Serotonin Syndrome

  • Related to excessive CNS serotonergic activity, often with multiple drugs increasing serotonin levels
    • These drugs include SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, MAOIs, phenylpiperidine opioids like fentanyl and meperidine, tramadol, methadone, and ondansetron
  • Symptoms: autonomic instability (tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, tachypnea, diaphoresis), neuromuscular abnormalities (hyperreflexia, tremors, myoclonus, rigidity), and mental status changes (restlessness, agitation, hallucinations, confusion, seizures)
  • Can occur within 12 hours

Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)

  • Include venlafaxine, duloxetine, desvenlafaxine, and milnacipran
  • Mechanism: Block reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, increasing their synaptic levels
  • Used for depressive disorders, anxiety disorders, and chronic pain syndromes
  • Adverse effects: sympathetic activation (tachycardia, hypertension) and inhibition of CYP 2D6
  • Can also have effects on alpha-1, NMDA, histamine, and muscarinic receptors, and deplete catecholamine stores

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)

  • Include amitriptyline, nortriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine, and desipramine
  • Mechanism: Inhibit reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine and antagonize various receptors (5-HT2A, alpha-1, NMDA, H1, H2, muscarinic)
  • Used for major depressive disorder and chronic pain syndromes
  • Central nervous system side effects: anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia, urinary retention, ileus), sedation, delirium risk (elderly), lowered seizure threshold (pediatrics), extrapyramidal symptoms, and tremors
  • Cardiovascular side effects: orthostatic hypotension, increased heart rate, ECG changes (QRS widening, T wave inversion, QT prolongation), and slowed AV conduction
  • Can enhance depressant effects of anesthetics
  • Anesthetic considerations: increase anesthetic requirements; exaggerated response to anticholinergics and indirect-acting vasopressors (avoid ephedrine, use smaller doses of direct-acting like phenylephrine); exaggerated ventilatory depressant effects of opioids (avoid pancuronium, ketamine, meperidine, epinephrine)

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)

  • Include isocarboxazid, phenelzine, selegiline, and tranylcypromine
  • Mechanism: Inhibit monoamine oxidase (MAO), a mitochondrial enzyme that breaks down norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin, thus increasing their availability
  • Older MAOIs are irreversible; newer ones (RIMAs) are reversible
  • Used for major depressive disorder, panic disorder, Parkinson's, and phobias
  • Side effects: hypotension, anticholinergic-like effects, sedation, paresthesias, weight gain, hepatitis, and hyperadrenergic crisis with tyramine-rich foods
  • Type I (excitatory) reaction resembling serotonin syndrome can occur with meperidine and dextromethorphan
  • Type II (depressive) reaction due to enhanced opioid effects (hypotension, ventilatory depression)
    • Treat with naloxone
  • Contraindicated with indirect-acting sympathomimetics (risk of fatal hypertensive crisis)
    • Use direct-acting with caution (smaller doses of phenylephrine)
    • Avoid ketamine, ephedrine, pancuronium, and epinephrine
  • Phenelzine decreases plasma cholinesterase, prolonging succinylcholine action and may reduce barbiturate metabolism
  • Propofol, etomidate, benzodiazepines, inhaled agents, and anticholinergics are generally safe
  • Continue perioperatively despite traditional recommendations to stop

Miscellaneous Monoamine Altering Drugs

  • Trazodone: SRI, 5-HT2A and alpha-1 antagonist; used for MDD and insomnia; side effects include orthostatic hypotension and dry mouth
  • Buspirone: partial agonist at 5-HT receptors; used for GAD; may elevate NE and DA
  • Mirtazapine: tetracyclic alpha-2 and 5-HT2A/3 and H1 antagonist; used for MDD; lower risk of serotonin syndrome
  • Bupropion: inhibits DA and NE reuptake; used for MDD, smoking cessation, ADHD, and possibly neuropathic pain; side effects include seizures and stimulant-like effects

Bipolar Disorders

  • Characterized by episodes of mania and depression
  • Treatment involves mood stabilizers, antidepressants, antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, and psychotherapy

Lithium

  • Treatment of choice for bipolar disorder, treatment-resistant MDD, and suicide risk
  • Mechanism: inhibits excitatory neurotransmission (dopamine, glutamate by downregulating NMDA receptors), and increases GABA neurotransmission (increases GABA levels and upregulates receptors)
  • Side effects: renal (polydipsia, polyuria, nephrogenic DI, chronic kidney disease), endocrine (hypothyroidism), and cardiac (T wave changes, SA nodal block, bradycardia)
  • Drug interactions: increased lithium levels with thiazide and loop diuretics, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors; increased neurotoxicity with neuroleptic drugs and anticonvulsants; prolonged blockade with muscle relaxants; possible decrease in anesthetic requirements with inhaled and IV anesthetics; delayed recovery with barbiturates
  • Perioperative discontinuation (1-3 days prior) is recommended due to narrow therapeutic index (1-1.2 mEq/L) and risk of toxicity.
  • Avoid sodium depletion, diuretics, and NSAIDs
  • Toxicity (plasma level > 1.5-2 mEq/L): widened QRS, AV block, dysrhythmias, hypotension, weakness, ataxia, seizures, confusion
  • Treatment: dialysis and sodium bicarbonate

Schizophrenia, Psychoses

  • Characterized by psychosis (loss of contact with reality, hallucinations, delusions), disorganized speech and behavior, flattened affect, cognitive deficits, and social dysfunction
  • Treatment includes pharmacologic therapy (antipsychotics), cognitive therapy, and psychosocial rehab

Typical (First Generation) Antipsychotics (FGAs) / Neuroleptics

  • Examples: haloperidol, chlorpromazine, perphenazine, and fluphenazine
  • Mechanism: primarily dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists in the CNS
  • Cause extrapyramidal side effects (EPS)
  • Less favorable due to side effects but commonly used in emergency and acute care settings
  • High therapeutic index and have antiemetic effects by blocking dopamine in the CRTZ
  • Haloperidol (Haldol): butyrophenone; used off-label for emergence/ICU delirium and acute agitation/aggression; mechanism is D1 and D2 antagonism and RAS depression; dosing IV 2-10 mg, IM 5 mg; onset 3-20 min IV, 30 min IM
  • Droperidol: butyrophenone; potent antiemetic and sedative; used off-label for delirium and as a GA adjunct (neurolept analgesia with opioids)
    • Carries a black box warning due to high-dose cardiac risks (QT prolongation, arrhythmias)
    • Antiemetic dose 0.625-2.5 mg IV/IM
  • Perphenazine: phenothiazine; anti-dopaminergic antiemetic with mixed evidence; dosing IV/IM 5-10 mg, PO 8-16 mg; use with caution in older patients, those with EPS/Parkinson's, or on Class III antiarrhythmics
  • Extrapyramidal Effects: tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, dystonia (treat with diphenhydramine 25-50 mg IV), and tremors
  • Other FGA side effects: hypotension, antidysrhythmic effects, QTc prolongation, gynecomastia, weight gain, sedation, skeletal muscle relaxation, abnormal thermoregulation, decreased seizure threshold, obstructive jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS): possibly related to dopamine antagonism; risk factors include young males and dehydration; develops over 24-72 hours; characterized by hypertonicity of skeletal muscles, autonomic instability (labile BP, tachycardia, dysrhythmias), and altered consciousness
    • Differential diagnosis from malignant hyperthermia (MH): non-depolarizing muscle relaxants produce flaccid paralysis in NMS but are ineffective in MH
    • Treatment includes dantrolene, dopamine agonists, benzodiazepines, IV hydration, and cooling
  • FGA Anesthetic Considerations: prone to tachycardia and hypotension; higher incidence of CV disease; QTc prolongation risk (monitor ECG); higher incidence of DM and glucose intolerance (monitor blood glucose); potential weight gain and altered pain response; impaired temperature regulation (active warming) and altered HPA function (decreased cortisol); synergistic effects with non-depolarizing muscle relaxants (monitor neuromuscular function); risk for over-sedation with BZs and CNS depressants (monitor for serotonergic symptoms with phenylpiperidines); postoperative surgical stress can worsen psychotic symptoms and increase risk for emergence delirium and infection

Atypical (Second Generation) Antipsychotics (SGAs)

  • Examples: clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, and aripiprazole
  • Mechanism: D2 antagonism plus effects on H1, 5-HT2, mACh, and alpha receptors; tend to have lower or no EPS
  • Greater benefit for cognitive and affective symptoms due to 5-HT2A antagonism and other serotonergic actions
  • Clozapine: most effective SGA; strong 5-HT antagonism, little D2; side effects include agranulocytosis, fever, myocarditis, and excessive salivation
  • Olanzapine: used for agitated psychosis and mania; side effects include sedation, hypotension, weight gain/metabolic syndrome; caution with benzodiazepines due to cardiorespiratory depression risk
  • Risperidone, paliperidone: similar to FGAs in dopamine antagonism and EPS risks; side effects include hypotension and gynecomastia; being investigated for delirium prophylaxis post cardiac surgery
  • Aripiprazole, brexpiprazole: mixed D2 agonist/antagonist; used for bipolar disorder and MDD; side effects include akathisia and risky behaviors
  • Ziprasidone, lurasidone: moderately effective; side effects include QTc prolongation and akathisia; minimal metabolic effects
  • Quetiapine: primary 5-HT antagonism, little D2 (minimal EPS risk); active metabolite inhibits NE transporter; side effects include sedation and orthostatic hypotension
  • SGA Side Effects: similar risk as FGAs for EPS and NMS, but metabolic effects (weight gain, hypercholesterolemia, insulin resistance) and related cardiovascular morbidity are significant

Postoperative, Emergence Delirium

  • Can occur minutes to 7 days postoperatively
  • Pathophysiology is not fully understood but may involve inflammatory markers and altered balance in sleep/arousal pathways; quick emergence from anesthesia is a risk factor
  • Risk factors include extremes of age, male gender, cognitive dysfunction, substance use, prolonged surgery, residual neuromuscular blockade, temperature/BP changes, hypoxemia, pain, and presence of ETT
  • Differential diagnosis includes hypoxia, hypercarbia, acidemia, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, stroke, seizure, and central cholinergic syndrome
  • Symptoms: disturbed attention/cognition and disorientation/agitation
  • Treatment: control pain and agitation (pre-emptive multimodal analgesia, sedation); haloperidol is often first-line; benzodiazepines may increase risk in adults

Neurodevelopmental Disorders

  • Notable characteristics: inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity; multifactorial
  • Treatment: stimulant drugs, behavioral therapy, and educational interventions

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

  • Methylphenidate (Ritalin): CNS stimulant; indirect sympathomimetic (blocks NE and DA reuptake, increases DA release); used for ADHD, ADD, and narcolepsy; side effects include hypertension, tachycardia, arrhythmias, weight loss, and insomnia; may actively induce emergence from inhaled and propofol anesthesia and may result in higher anesthetic requirements
  • Mixed Amphetamine Salts (Adderall): block NE and DA reuptake, increase dopamine release; side effects include tolerance, dependency, anxiety, insomnia, exacerbation of tics, and increased HR/BP
  • Clonidine: alpha-2 agonist; FDA approved for ADHD; also used for anxiety, opioid withdrawal, and analgesia (neuraxial/regional); side effects include hypotension and bradycardia

Cannabis, Cannabinoids

  • Delta-9-THC is the most potent psychoactive cannabinoid; binds to CB1 (CNS, memory, learning, motor, addiction, psych disorders) and CB2 (periphery/CNS, immune, pain) receptors
  • Uses: N/V, cachexia, analgesia, and anxiety
  • Acute intoxication: euphoria, relaxation, altered perception, decreased reaction time, tachycardia, hypotension, and increased appetite
  • Anesthetic considerations: increased anesthetic requirements and potential cardiovascular and airway/pulmonary effects (irritability, laryngospasm, coughing, excess secretions)

MemoryMaster Knowledge Check

  • MAO inhibitors interfere with the metabolism of adrenergic neurotransmitters by inhibiting monoamine oxidase
  • Dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia, urinary retention, and ileus are all symptoms of anticholinergic side effects of TCAs
  • A patient taking fluoxetine exhibiting HTN, tachycardia, agitation, and restlessness resembles serotonin syndrome
  • Drugs to avoid in a patient taking phenelzine include ephedrine, ketamine, amphetamines, sympathomimetics, and over-the-counter cold medicines (like dextromethorphan)
  • A common blood pressure side effect with TCAs is orthostatic hypotension
  • In a patient taking an MAOI who suddenly develops hypotension during anesthesia, phenylephrine (small doses) should be used to treat it
  • The threshold plasma concentration for lithium toxicity is 1.5-2 mEq/L
  • Dystonia related to droperidol or other antipsychotic use can be treated with diphenhydramine 25-50 mg
  • In a patient taking lithium, sodium (hyponatremia) is another lab value of concern, and diuretics might contribute
  • The mechanism of action of amphetamines (stimulants) is indirect sympathetic activation by blocking the reuptake of catecholamines (norepinephrine and dopamine)
  • The mechanism of action of caffeine is adenosine antagonism and inhibition of phosphodiesterase
  • The two cannabinoid receptor types are CB1 (neurotransmission, pain, immune, learning, memory, reward, addiction, motor dysfunction, psych disorders) and CB2 (neurotransmission, pain, immune, cocaine-induced reward)

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