Psychology Quiz: Personality Disorders and Phobias
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is often associated with help-seeking behavior among people with borderline personality disorder?

  • Chronic fatigue
  • Excessive optimism
  • Perceived abandonment (correct)
  • Social withdrawal
  • Which of the following is a common characteristic among people with narcissistic, borderline and histrionic personality disorders?

  • Attention seeking (correct)
  • Low self-esteem
  • Emotional stability
  • Consistency in behavior
  • Mina, an 8-year-old child, often refuses to be separated from her mother and has anxiety about enclosed spaces. What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • Separation anxiety disorder (correct)
  • Generalized anxiety disorder
  • Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
  • Obsessive-compulsive disorder
  • Which of the following is NOT true about specific phobia among older individuals?

    <p>Specific phobia is a rare occurrence in older individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Phobias for spiders, snakes, and heights are common, but phobias for flowers are not. Which theory may explain this?

    <p>Prepared classical conditioning theory</p> Signup and view all the answers

    People with social anxiety disorder often engage in certain behaviors to manage anxiety. These behaviors are called _____.

    <p>Safety behaviors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    People with panic disorder are more likely to have irregularities in certain areas of the limbic system. Which area is often associated with panic attacks?

    <p>Locus ceruleus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the stage in organizational change where employees begin abandoning old habits?

    <p>Adaptation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes employees who only change when necessary and do not actively support change?

    <p>Reluctant Changers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is NOT a criterion for defining a group?

    <p>Group members act purely as individuals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which stage of team development do members begin to resolve conflicts?

    <p>Norming</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of power is Leo utilizing when he influences others due to his qualifications?

    <p>Legitimate Power</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What behavioral symptom is associated with burnout in organizations?

    <p>Cynicism towards the organization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of exposure to high levels of noise in the workplace?

    <p>Increased blood pressure during tasks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological effect can result from extreme temperature exposure?

    <p>Adaptation to perform tasks similarly to normal conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of incentive plan pays Banksy for every piece of artwork he creates in a day?

    <p>Merit pay</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a group incentive plan?

    <p>Merit pay</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is most likely to happen when individuals experience underpayment inequity?

    <p>Look for other people to compare themselves to</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of commitment does Bob have towards his company?

    <p>Affective</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to Huseman et al., what term describes individual differences in perception of equity?

    <p>Equity sensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best defines the individual difference theory postulate?

    <p>Individuals have different criteria and thresholds for staying in or leaving their jobs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option is considered a financial incentive plan that encourages team performance?

    <p>Profit sharing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might an employee experiencing inequity choose to do?

    <p>Work harder to prove their worth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would be the most appropriate next step for addressing a child's conduct disorder?

    <p>Work with the parents to develop a positive behaviour plan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the psychologist’s most appropriate response to the client’s ambivalence about addressing her anxiety?

    <p>Utilise motivational interviewing to address the client's ambivalence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the psychologist address concerns regarding electronic communication with the manager?

    <p>Discuss the issue of confidentiality before engaging in email consulting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is most likely false about borderline personality disorder?

    <p>Self harming behaviour is always used to numb emotional pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the psychologist do first when a client shows ambivalence about their treatment plan?

    <p>Explore the client's feelings about both issues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is most appropriate when a child exhibits conduct disorder symptoms?

    <p>Collaborate with caregivers on behavior interventions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of electronic communication concerns, which option should the psychologist prioritize?

    <p>Discuss the potential risks with the client</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is unlikely to be characteristic of borderline personality disorder?

    <p>A consistent sense of self</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of competency-focused tests?

    <p>To determine the likelihood of future success in employees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a method used for employee performance evaluation?

    <p>Customer Satisfaction Surveys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For the paired comparisons method involving 6 employees, how many pairs will be evaluated?

    <p>15 pairs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option correctly identifies the three variables needed in using certain employee evaluations?

    <p>Validity, selection ratio, base rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered when measuring performance using quality of work?

    <p>Errors in the work produced</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the graphic rating scale is accurate?

    <p>It is the most common tool used for performance rating.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can be said about the validity of tests in employee evaluations?

    <p>Valid tests increase the likelihood of accurate employee selection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario would an employee attend training to improve their skills?

    <p>As part of an incentive method</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect called when a person has confidence in their abilities and performs well as a result?

    <p>Galatea effect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If Scarlet believes she is not good enough and performs poorly as a result, what is this effect called?

    <p>Golem effect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the theory on employee motivation, what correlates with self-esteem?

    <p>Employee motivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What needs is Jordan high and low in based on her preferences for control and individual tasks?

    <p>Achievement; Affiliation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is TRUE about hygiene factors?

    <p>They are necessary and sufficient for motivation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which theory states that a meaningful job and good feedback can increase employee motivation?

    <p>Job Characteristics theory</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Pygmalion effect primarily involve?

    <p>High expectations leading to improved performance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which level is most closely associated with self-actualization?

    <p>Esteem needs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Abnormal Psychology

    • Abnormality Definition: No single criterion fully defines abnormality; criteria differ depending on the cause and type of psychological disorder or dysfunction.
    • Four Ds of Abnormality: Suffering, maladaptiveness, deviancy, and distress are key elements, though none alone is sufficient.

    Additional Questions and Answers

    • Question 1: The criteria for defining abnormality differ based on the cause of the psychological issue.

    • Question 2: No single element (suffering, maladaptiveness, deviancy, or distress) alone is enough to determine abnormality.

    • Question 3: Clinicians do not uniformly agree on the meaning of each of the "four Ds" of abnormality, nor do different cultures have identical criteria.

    • Question 4: Jane's behavior is best described as dysfunctional.

    • Question 5: Point prevalence is the proportion of a population experiencing a mental health issue at a specific point in time.

    • Question 6: An example of an asylum's false statement is promoting mental health as a priority

    • Question 7: Dorothea Dix did not anticipate the high expenses of hospitalizing people with mental illness impacting the availability of treatment

    • Question 8: High dopamine levels are associated with psychotic symptoms.

    • Question 9: Serotonin levels are frequently elevated in depressive episodes.

    • Question 10: Monozygotic (identical) twins share 100% of their genes; dizygotic (fraternal) twins share 50%.

    • Question 11: A person can have a genetic predisposition for mental illness without it being expressed.

    • Question 12: Inhibiting reuptake increases neurotransmitter levels in the synapse.

    • Question 13: Substantia nigra degeneration is a hallmark of Parkinson's disease.

    • Question 14: Prefrontal cortex is vital for anticipating rewards and managing goals and with symptoms of depression.

    • Question 15: Examples of catastropic terms in Axis IV are suicide of spouse, victim of rape

    • Question 16: Humanistic views on abnormality focus on a distorted self-concept.

    • Question 17: The DSM is a guide that describes mental disorders in terms of symptoms and criteria.

    • Question 18: The DSM is a work in progress and based on current knowledge.

    • Question 19: Pica disorder is a diagnosed condition characterized by eating non-nutritive substances.

    • Question 20: Representative samples are desirable because they allow generalizing the findings to a wider population.

    • Question 21: Potential reasons for more women receiving mental health treatment than men include differences in developmental tasks, greater reporting of symptoms, and differences in coping mechanisms.

    • Question 22: Antisocial personality disorder doesn't stem from below-average intelligence.

    • Question 23: The specific techniques used by Steketee and Foa are omitted.

    • Question 24: The clinician is incorrect to diagnose both DMDD and ODD; irritability is a critical component of both conditions.

    • Question 25: The most probable diagnosis is delusional disorder with body dysmorphic symptoms

    • Question 26: The most probable diagnosis is acute stress disorder.

    • Question 27: The most likely diagnosis is post traumatic stress disorder with panic attacks

    • Question 28: Neurotic personalities are associated with erectile difficulties in older men.

    • Question 29: Several are listed, but the question does not specify a least likely occurrence.

    • Question 30: It is omitted.

    Cognitive Restructuring, Exposure Treatment, Implosion, Response Prevention, Exposure Treatment, Response Prevention, Counter-conditioning, Reciprocal Inhibition

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on various psychological disorders, including borderline, narcissistic, and histrionic personality disorders. The quiz also addresses specific phobias, anxiety disorders, and the behaviors associated with them. Engage with scenarios and definitions to deepen your understanding of these complex topics.

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