Abnormal Psychology Drills 2021 PDF

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY Prepared by: Prof. Erickson A. Amion, PhD (cand), RPsy, RPm ENCIRCLE THE LETTER THAT CORRESPONDS TO YOUR BEST ANSWER 1. Which of the following best describes what is known reg...

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY Prepared by: Prof. Erickson A. Amion, PhD (cand), RPsy, RPm ENCIRCLE THE LETTER THAT CORRESPONDS TO YOUR BEST ANSWER 1. Which of the following best describes what is known regarding the definition of abnormality? a. Personal distress is the one criterion that defines abnormality. b. The criteria differ depending on the cause of the psychological disorder. c. The criteria differ depending on whether the individual has a psychological disorder or a psychological dysfunction. d. No one criterion has yet been developed that fully defines abnormality. 2. Which of the following is a sufficient element to determine abnormality? a. Suffering b. Maladaptiveness c. Deviancy d. There is no sufficient element 3. Which of the following is true regarding the "four Ds" of abnormality? a. Most clinicians agree on what qualifies under each of "the four Ds." b. Every culture has generally identical criteria of what constitutes abnormality. c. An individual can only be diagnosed with a mental illness if (s)he has all "four Ds." d. None of the "four Ds" is, by itself, an adequate gauge of psychological abnormality. 4. Three weeks ago, Jane, a 35-year-old business executive, stopped showering, refused to leave her apartment, and started watching television talk shows. She continues to spend her days staring blankly at the television screen. Which of the definitions seems to describe Jane’s behavior? a. Dysfunction b. Dangerousness c. Disability d. Deviance 5. Which of the following is an example of point prevalence? a. Forty people had a panic attack in the last year. b. Seventy people in her graduating class had been diagnosed with anorexia at some time during the past four years. c. 1% of the population is currently experiencing depressive symptoms. d. 15% of women will suffer from an anxiety disorder before the age of 30. 6. The St. Mary of Bethlehem is said to be as one of the first asylums during classical era. Which of the following would be LEAST likely false about the said asylum? a. It was also termed as bedlam which means “healing” b. It was known for moral treatment c. It became one of the London’s great tourist attractions d. Promotion of mental hygiene is prioritized in this asylum 7. Which of the following Dorothea Dix did not anticipate in her mental hygiene movement? a. People with mental illness appeared to be very violent thus treatment was not successful b. The mental hygiene movement was not needed during that time c. Since hospitalization is expensive people were not able to afford d. Hospitals became overcrowded and inadequately staffed. 8. The dopamine-psychosis link is based on the observation that a. low dopamine levels of activity in the brain seem to produce psychotic symptoms. b. there are high levels of dopamine activity in the brains of psychotic people. c. there are high levels of amphetamine in the brains of schizophrenics. d. dopamine interacts with serotonin creating psychosis. 9. People with mood disorders usually have abnormal neurochemical activities in the brain. Which neurotransmitter is found to be high among people with depression? a. dopamine b. methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol c. serotonin d. none of these 10. If a trait is entirely genetically determined, which of the following would be expected in a twin study of monozygotic (MZ) twins and dizygotic (DZ) twins? a. DZ twins will have 0% concordance b. MZ twins will have 50% concordance c. MZ twins will have 100% concordance d. DZ twins will have the same concordance as MZ twins 11. Judy has a mood disorder, but neither of her parents, nor any of her siblings or grandparents, has ever had one. How is this possible, according to what you know about genetic transmission of mental disorders? a. Judy must have been adopted. b. Judy may have received enough abnormal genes from the chromosomes of her mother and father at birth to inevitably cause a mood disorder. c. Some of Judy's family members may actually carry a predisposition for a mood disorder, but may never have experienced an interaction among multiple factors sufficient to cause the disorder. d. The situation described is not possible according to what we know about genetics. 12. Inhibiting the process of reuptake in a neuron leads to: a. Compensation by means of increasing the frequency of degradation. b. A greater amount of neurotransmitter in the synapse. c. A lesser amount of neurotransmitter in the synapse. d. An increase in the number of dendrite receptors on the receiving neuron. 13. Patients of Parkinson have loss of nerve cells in a particular and small part of the brain which is called a. Amagdayla b. Cortex and cerebellum c. Substantia nigra d. Frontal lobe 14. Pam is diagnosed with depression. She has difficulty anticipating incentives or rewards. She also has difficulty maintaining setting goals and ways to attain them. Which of the following brain part is associated with Pam’s symptoms? a. Cerebellum b. Corpus Callosum c. Prefrontal cortex d. Ventricles 15. In assessing the severity of Axis IV in DSM IV-TR, which of the following is an example of catastrophic term? a. Broke up with girlfriend or boyfriend b. Suicide of spouse c. Victim of rape d. Marital separation 16. Which of the following is consistent to Humanistic view of Abnormality? a. Abnormal behavior results from a distorted concept of the self. b. Psychological disorders may represent disruptions or disturbances in how information is processed. c. Abnormal behavior is viewed as an avoidance response d. Abnormality is caused by the inability to fulfil psychological needs 17. Which of the following is included in the DSM? a. A discussion of the various causes of mental disorders b. A means of identifying different mental disorders c. A description of the necessary and sufficient conditions for mental illness d. A description of all of the possible treatments for each disorder 18. Which of the following best describes the DSM? a. A complete guide to the origin, diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders b. A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known c. A fundamentally flawed collection of unfounded assumptions about mental disorders d. An objective guide to diagnosing mental disorders 19. Jill’s mother brought her to a clinic after finding out that Jill ingests non-nutritive substances like tissue paper as a means of attempting to control appetite. What is your primary diagnosis? a. Pica Disorder b. Rumination Disorder c. Anorexia Nervosa d. Binge-Eating Disorder 20. Why is a representative sample desirable? a. Such samples are random. b. Hypotheses can only be tested on representative samples. c. Only representative samples yield meaningful results. d. The more representative a sample is, the more generalizable the data. 21. Which of the following is one reason given that more women than men are treated for psychological problems? a. Some forms of mental disorders are sex-linked recessive. b. Developmental tasks required of women are far more difficult than those required of men c. Women tend to distract when they are subject to stress while men tend to ruminate d. Women are more likely to report symptoms than do men 22. All of the following statements are true about antisocial personality disorder EXCEPT a. are below average in intelligence b. tend to show abnormal chromosomal structure c. were disciplined regularly as children d. are largely undeterred by punishment 23. Techniques used by Steketee and Foa as the recommended treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorders are _________ and ____________. a. Cognitive restructuring, exposure treatment b. Implosion, response prevention c. Exposure treatment, response prevention d. Counter-conditioning, reciprocal inhibition 24. Tom an 8-year old male has been very defiant and argumentative towards his parents and anyone who is older than him. He seems severely irritable most of the time and this irritability tends to manifest across many settings. His mother sought for treatment for his mood appeared to be very unusual. The clinician diagnosed him with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder and oppositional defiant disorder. Is the clinician correct? a. Yes. Both shall be diagnosed since criteria for both of the conditions are met. b. Yes. Irritability is both common to these disorders so as defiance and argumentativeness. c. No. Disruptive mood dysregulation should only be the diagnosis. d. No. This is only a case of Oppositional Defiant Disorder. 25. Remy has been so preoccupied with the belief that she has significant defects in her appearance and has been comparing hers with that of the appearance of others. These flaws are not really observable and her boyfriend believes that these are just imagined flaws. Moreover, she has shown strong beliefs that these are true. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Obsessive compulsive disorder with absent insight/delusional beliefs b. Delusional Disorder c. Body dysmorphic disorder with absent insight/delusional beliefs d. Delusional disorder with body dysmorphic symptoms 26. Dara an 18-yr old female suffered from a sexual assault two months ago. Since then, she has been very preoccupied of violent and horrific thoughts and images. These thoughts became more intrusive and persistent and finds it difficult to control. As a response she kept on performing mental acts in order to get rid of it. She finds this activities time-consuming thus it causes impairment on her part. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Acute stress disorder b. Adjustment disorder c. Obsessive compulsive disorder d. Dissociative amnesia 27. Moley has suffered from a severe vehicular accident. Days after, he started to experience recurrent and non-cued symptoms such as palpitations, pounding heart, sweating, chills and numbness. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Panic disorder b. Post traumatic disorder with panic attacks c. Acute stress-disorder with panic attacks d. Factitious disorder with panic attacks 28. Which of the following best describes the relationship of temperamental traits and erectile problems? a. Neurotic personality traits may be associated with erectile problems in college students b. Submissive personality traits may be associated with erectile problems in men age 40 years and older. c. Letter a only is correct. b. Both a and b are correct. 29. Which of the following would be least likely false about sexual dysfunctions and anxiety disorder? a. Premature (early) ejaculation may be more common in men with anxiety disorders, especially social anxiety disorder. a. Premature (early) ejaculation may be more common in men with anxiety disorders, especially generalized anxiety disorder. b. Premature (early) ejaculation may be more common in men with anxiety disorders, panic disorder. d. No relationship exists between the two. 30. Which of the following disorders is considered as a risk factor for developing pedophilic disorder? a. Histrionic personality disorder b. Narcissistic personality disorder c. Other paraphilic disorder d. Antisocial personality disorder 31. Transvestism (and thus transvestic disorder) is often found in association with other paraphilias. The most frequently co-occurring paraphilias are__________. a. exhibitionism and masochism b. fetishism and masochism c. pedophilia and fetishism d. exhibitionism and pedophilia 32. Ren sought professional help for he has been experiencing recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the presence of and involving enemas. This has caused significant distress and impairment in functioning. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Other specified paraphilic disorder (salirophilia) b. Other specified paraphilic disorder (klismaphilia) c. Other specified paraphilic disorder (formicophilia) d. Other specified paraphilic disorder (maschalania) 33. Rico a 6-year old child sought professional help for he has been experiencing social worries particularly excessive worries that solely focused about the quality of his social performance. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. social anxiety disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. separation anxiety disorder d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. 34. Nympha presented herself in the clinic for she has been being preoccupied by her partner’s infidelity. This has led her to develop repetitive and clearly excessive mental acts and behaviors. Upon further assessment, these beliefs are non-delusional. This causes significant distress and impairment in functioning. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Paranoid personality disorder not otherwise specified b. Obsessional jealousy c. Obsessive compulsive disorder d. Unspecified obsessive compulsive disorder 35. When an individual is dealing with recovered memories it is often a severely traumatic experience for the client, and may involve the intense re-experiencing of traumatic events. This is known as: a. annareaction b. abreaction c. antireaction d. reactive 36. Which among the following people with endocrine abnormalities is more likely to exhibit depression symptoms? a. Cushing’s Syndrome b. Addison’s Disease c. Hyperthyroidism d. Acromegaly 37.Structural and functional abnormalities in the Amygdala have been found to be associated with Major Depression The role of the Amygdala is to: a. Stimulate secretion by sweat glands. b. Stimulate secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. Prioritize affectively salient stimuli. d. Control spatial memory 38. Which of the following is a concept proposed by Freud to counteract the theoretical problems of introjection? a. Diabolic loss b. Symbolic Loss c. Regressive Loss d. Object Loss 39. Psychodynamic theories of personality disorders that individuals with weak egos engage in a defence mechanism called: a. Isolation b. Splitting c. Immediacy d. Compartmentalization 40. Which of the following descriptions fits the parents of people with paranoid personality disorder? a. They are critical and intolerant of any weakness but also emphasize that the child is "special" and "different," resulting in a child who is hypersensitive to others' evaluations and who believes that he or she is being persecuted for being different. b. They are harsh and inconsistent often alternating between being neglectful, being hostile, and being violent toward their children. c. They derive pleasure from their child's dependence on them in early life, do not encourage the child to develop a separate sense of self, and punish the child's attempts at individuation. d. They overindulge their child, instilling in the child a grandiose sense of abilities that the child is not able to live up to, and yet, the child will continue to act as if he or she is superior to others. 41. Which of the following is false about antisocial personality disorder? a. People with antisocial personality disorder are more likely to have low levels of education. b. The tendency to engage in antisocial behaviors tends to begin in childhood and is one of the most stable personality characteristics. c. People with antisocial personality disorder have difficulty in inhibiting impulsive behaviors. d. People with antisocial personality disorder have high levels of arousability, which leads them to avoid stimulation through impulsive and dangerous acts and to experience punishment as less severe. 42. The interpersonal circumplex model classifies personality along two dimensions, one of which is: a. Introversion - extraversion. b. Dominance - submission. c. Agreeableness - unagreeableness. d. Nurturance - schizoid. 43. With which subtype of depression would the person in the following case example be diagnosed? Richard, a 30-year old businessman, has experienced anhedonia for about the past month. He frequently wakes up very early in the morning, during which time his symptoms are especially debilitating. He feels extremely guilty about many things and has lost a significant amount of weight since the onset of his symptoms. a. depression with catatonic features b. depression with melancholic features c. depression with psychotic features d. depression with atypical features 44. Which of the following best defines all dissociative disorders? a. massive repression of unacceptable impulses b. a sudden, temporary change in consciousness or identity c. the presence of at least two conflicting personalities d. impairment in memory functions 45. Jane is diagnosed with bipolar II disorder. Which of the following is expected? a. She will experience hypomanic episodes and major depressive episodes. b. She will experience manic episodes and major depressive episodes. c. She will experience hypomanic episodes alternating with mild depressive symptoms. d. She will experience hypomanic episodes predominantly 46. Sandra and Jim have been happily married for several years. Sandra reports that she reaches orgasm from intercourse only about half of the time and she wonders if something is "wrong" with her. What should Sandra do? a. She should realize that this is normal. b. She should have a medical exam before assuming that she has a diagnosable psychological disorder. c. She should seek counselling regarding her feelings for Jim to try to understand why she does not reach orgasm more regularly. d. She should seek treatment for inhibited orgasm disorder 47. Individuals who are socially isolated, behave in ways that seem unusual, tend to be suspicious, and have odd beliefs, are generally diagnosed with which of the following personality disorders? a. schizoid personality disorder b. schizotypal personality disorder c. paranoid personality disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 48. According to the autohypnotic model, who may be able to use dissociation as a defence against extreme trauma? a. people who have frequent "out-of-body" experiences b. people who have had head injury and resulting brain damage c. people who are highly suggestible d. people who have certain neurological disorders, such as seizure disorders 49. In the diathesis-stress model, what does diathesis refer to? a. conditions in the environment that can trigger a disorder depending upon how severe the stressors are b. an inherited, subclinical disease state that has the potential for developing into a full-blown psychological disorder, given certain environmental conditions c. an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person susceptible to developing a disorder d. the interaction of social and psychological influence 50. While driving to work one day, Larry debates what color to paint his new house. When he arrives at his parking spot, he realizes that he does not remember any of the details of his drive in to work. Larry has experienced: a. cognitive impairment b. an obsessive thought c. dissociation d. a fugue state 51. Some people with obsessive-compulsive disorder attempt to neutralize or suppress disturbing, intrusive thoughts. How successful do these strategies tend to be? a. These strategies usually cause other kinds of obsessive thinking to occur. b. These strategies are usually effective in permanently reducing the obsessive thoughts. c. These strategies usually increase the frequency of the obsessive thoughts. d. These strategies usually have no effect on the obsessive thoughts. 52. Ryan a 3 year old male has been complaining by his colleagues for he has been performing acts that are usually unlawful and often led to disregarding other people’s feelings and this occurs during the course of elevated mood or irritability. He has also been exhibiting impulsive behaviors like reckless driving, sexual indiscretions and risky behaviors that may possibly put himself into danger. Upon further assessment, he has also shown symptoms of hallucinations and delusions occasionally. The psychologist diagnosed him with Bipolar I Disorder. Is the psychologist is correct? a. Yes. Since people with bipolar I disorder may manifest psychotic symptom and antisocial behavior b. Yes. Since people with bipolar I disorder includes these are all symptoms of bipolar I disorder c. No. The diagnosis should have been schizophrenia d. No. The diagnosis should have been antisocial personality disorder 53. Which of the following is often associated with help-seeking behavior among people with borderline personality disorder? a. Perceived abandonment b. Recurrent suicidality c. Impulsive behavior d. uncontrolled anger 54. Which of the following is a common characteristic among people with narcissistic, borderline and histrionic personality disorders? a. aggression b. rigidity c. attention seeking d. callousness 55. Mina an 8-year old child refused to be separated from his mother for she has been often anxious about being trapped in certain situations specially enclosed spaces or places. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. separation anxiety disorder b. agoraphobia c. social anxiety disorder d. panic disorder 56. Which of the following is NOT true about specific phobia among older individuals? a. older individuals may be more likely to endorse natural environment specific phobias b. specific phobia tends to co-occur with medical concerns in older individuals c. older individuals may be more likely to manifest anxiety in an atypical manner d. the prevalence of specific phobia tends to be higher in older populations 57. Phobias for spiders, snakes and heights are common, but phobias for flowers are not. Which of the following theories may answer the question why humans develop phobias of some objects or situations and not others? a. Analytical Psychology b. Prepared classical conditioning theory c. Second order conditioning theory d. Evolutionary theory 58. People with social anxiety disorder may engage in certain behaviors to reduce their anxiety such as avoiding eye contact, excessive rehearsal of what they will say, and often fail to self-disclose. These behaviors are called_____. a. interoceptive avoidant behaviors b. safety behaviors c. behavioral inhibition d. safety behaviors 59. People with panic disorder are more likely to have irregularities in certain areas of the limbic system. Which of the following is often associated with panic attack? a. hippocampus b. locus ceruleus c. hypothalamus d. septum 60. Which of the following biological theories would most likely explain why people with schizotypal personality disorder have less severe symptoms compared with people with schizophrenia? a. people with schizophrenia have more gray matter reductions compared to people with schizotypal personality disorder b. people with schizophrenia have abnormally high level of dopamine compared to people with schizotypal personality disorder c. people with schizophrenia tend to show abnormalities in prefrontal cortex which is most of the time not present to people with schizotypal personality disorder d. heritability is quite higher in schizophrenia than in schizotypal personality disorder 61. Neuroimaging studies show that there are two structures in the brain that appear to be reduced in volume among people with borderline personality disorder. What are these structures? a. hypothalamus and hippocampus b. amygdala and hippocampus c. hypothalamus and thalamus d. amygdala and thalamus 62. This treatment shows a promising result to people with borderline personality disorder that promotes a more realistic and healthier understanding of themselves and interpersonal relationships thus helping them to have reduced behaviors related to suicidality, aggression and anger. a. Transference-focused therapy b. Mentalization based treatment c. Mindfulness therapy d. Gestalt therapy 63. Cognitive theorists explained that people with this disorder develop certain traits central to their personality as a result of indulgence and overvaluation by significant others during childhood. a. obsessive compulsive personality disorder b. narcissistic personality disorder c. histrionic personality disorder d. antisocial personality disorder 64. The presence of specific phobia in older adults is associated with decreased quality of life and may serve as a risk factor for _______________. a. schizophrenia b. major neurocognitive disorder c. schizoid personality disorder d. substance use disorder 65. One attitude that contributes in the development of sexual dysfunctions includes person’s tendency to anxiously attend to reactions and performance rather than focusing on the pleasure that sexual stimulation is giving them is called_______. a. performance anxiety b. spectatoring c. behavioral inhibition d. personal trauma 66. One personality characteristic that is consistently related to an increased risk of substance use disorder is _________ a. behavioral inhibition b. behavioral activation c. behavioral undercontrol d. behavioral monitoring 67. The following are most likely true about antisocial personality disorder except a. Boredom is common b. Relationships are often short lived c. Suicide threats and behavior are common d. They are only capable of learning if they are punished 68. Which of the following would be least likely true about avoidant personality disorder? a. There is pervasive low self esteem b. They feel tense all the time c. They are able to enter relationships with people who are willing to offer uncritical acceptance d. There is no desire to make friends, thus leads lonely lives 69. Schizophrenia is not considered as sex-linked disorder, this means that a. It tends to be more prevalent in either of the sexes b. The development of the disorder is due to non-sex related factors c. It doesn't matter which parent has the disorder in terms of the risk d. Disorder is more common to those individuals who happened to have a sibling with schizophrenia 70. Rey a 38-year old employee has this tendency to deviate from what is expected in the workplace since he has this belief that he is unique and special. He always says, “I don’t have to be bound by rules that apply to other people”. This is more often diagnosed with_________. a. obsessive compulsive personality disorder b. narcissistic personality disorder c. histrionic personality disorder d. antisocial personality disorder 71. A clinician has been treating a client for a driving phobia following a traffic accident when she was driving a work car. During the course of therapy, the client discloses that she has recently submitted a worker’s compensation claim for bullying. The psychologist then receives a valid subpoena to provide all his client records from the workers compensation authority. What is the most appropriate response to the subpoena? A. The clinician is not obliged to release any information as client records are subject to professional privilege B. The psychologist must not release the client records as it constitutes a breach of confidentiality C. The clinician should release a summary of the client records but retain a more detailed set of notes D. The clinician must release all information that is requested as there is no professional privilege 72. A 10-year-old boy is referred to a you at the suggestion of the school because of the boy's behaviour difficulties. His teacher has completed the Strengths and Difficulties Questionnaire (SDQ). The Total Difficulties scale score on the SDQ is at the 91st percentile. What would be the most appropriate next step? A. Work with the school to develop positive behaviour plan B. Work with the parents to better understand this high score C. Work with the parents to develop a positive behaviour plan D. Work with the school to better manage this conduct disordered child 73. An 18-year-old woman is referred to a psychologist for treatment of social anxiety and insomnia. Following the initial interview, the psychologist and client negotiate a treatment plan targeting social anxiety. The client attends the next session stating that she is ambivalent about addressing her anxiety and instead wants to focus on her insomnia. What is the psychologist’s most appropriate response to the client’s ambivalence? A. Utilise motivational interviewing to address the client's ambivalence B. Acknowledge the client’s ambivalence but continue with the treatment plan for social anxiety as it is the primary problem C. Refer the client to another psychologist because of her ambivalence about the treatment plan D. Change the focus of treatment and work with the client on her insomnia problem E. Explore the reasons for the client's ambivalence in order to maintain a good therapeutic alliance 74. A psychologist is providing psychological consulting services to a manager of an international mining company about his strengths and effectiveness within the organisation. The manager is required to travel to remote areas of the world and consulting sessions have become irregular due to his work. Nevertheless, the manager is motivated to continue and he suggests that email could serve as a means for maintaining regular contact. The psychologist has some concerns about communicating electronically. How should the psychologist best address her concerns regarding electronic communication? A. Ensure the latest encryption protocols are installed on the psychologist’s email B. Include a disclaimer in every electronic communication with the client C. Discuss the issue of confidentiality before engaging in email consulting D. Insist that the client obtain the psychologist’s permission before forwarding any email communication to a third party 75. Which of the following is most likely false about borderline personality disorder? a. Characterized by unstable self image b. Self harming behaviour is always used to numb emotional pain c. Doubts of gender identity is common d. Disorders of body-image are common 76. Which of the following would be most likely false about narcissistic personality disorder? a. They are egocentric b. Preoccupied by fantasies of success, power and brilliance c. Develops strong relationships with in those with dependent personality disorder d. Increased sense of self worth 77. A sense of presence may occur in the following group except a. Schizophrenia b. Healthy individuals c. Borderline personality disorder d. None of the above 78. Which of the following types of illusion in which vivid illusions occur without the patient making any effort since these illusions are the result of fantasy thinking and vivid visual imagery. a. Affect illusions b. Completion illusions c. referential illusion d. Pareidolia 79. Which of the following is a negative dissociative symptom? a. depersonalization b. derealization c. amnesia d. fragmentation of identity 80. In 3 months, binge-eating disorder occurs at least how many times a week? a. 3 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 81. What does self-functioning involve? a. identity and empathy b. identity and self-direction c. empathy and intimacy d. self-direction and intimacy 82. Ricky a 25-yearl old office staff was diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder that causes significant social withdrawal and inhibitions. He suddenly received a bad news that his immediate superior who has been very supportive of him was relieved of the post. This event has caused worsening of avoidant behaviors and feelings of inadequacy. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. Avoidant personality disorder b. Adjustment disorder c. Both a and b d. This is better explained by another mental disorder 83. Elton is a 31-year old married male presented himself in the clinic reporting symptoms of sexual difficulty. He claimed that has lower desire for sexual activity than his female partner and has been very upset of this symptom. The psychologist said that it is a form of desire discrepancy and diagnosed him with male hypoactive sexual desire disorder. Is the psychologist correct? a. No. The diagnosis should be anxiety-related disorder b. Yes. Desire discrepancy is an essential feature of this disorder c. Yes. The psychologist is correct since there is sexual difficulty d. No. This should not warrant a diagnosis 84. Deficits in theory of mind can be seen in the following disorders except a. Schizophrenia b. Autism c. Dissociative disorder d. Antisocial personality disorder 85. Which of the following is NOT true about pseudologia fantastica? a. Defined in as fluent plausible lying b. May be seen in organic illness c. When confronted may admit to lying d. Seen in personality disorder 86. Which of the following would be LEAST likely effective in handling cases of Delusion? a. Do not pretend that the delusion is true b. Be straightforward and honest in dealings with the patient, as these patients are hypervigilant about being tricked or deceived. c. Examine what trigger the first appearance of the delusion. d. Argue or challenge the patient’s delusion 87. Which of the following Clusters of personality disorders that involves the use of dissociation, denial, splitting, and acting out? a. B b. A c. C d. all of these 88. Jevon was talking with his doctor about the side effects of his medication. He talked about having dry mouth and then immediately began talking about cottonmouth snakes and jungle safaris and how hiking was good for your health but that Barack Obama was in better shape than George Bush. Which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia is evident in the case of Jevon? a. Tangentiality b. Flight of ideas c. Derailment d. Ideas of reference 89. Peter had just experienced severe motor vehicle accident. Since then he started to avoid anything that resembles the appearance of a motor vehicle. He also exhibited emotional and behavioral symptoms that have led to extreme sadness and significant impairment in functioning for the past 3 months. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. PTSD b. Specific Phobia c. Adjustment Disorder d. Acute Stress Disorder 90. The following statements are TRUE about Hypomania, point the exception. a. There is noticeable behavioral change among people with hypomania and impairment is marked. b. In hypomania, a person might may feel unusually charged with energy and show a heightened level of activity and an inflated sense of self- esteem, and may be more alert, restless, and irritable than usual. c. Hypomania exhibits by people who have bipolar II disorder d. Hypomania is less severe than Mania 91. Which of the following would be least likely true about Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder? a. Tendency to hoard b. Preoccupied with rules, details, & organization c. Reluctant to delegate d. With true obsessions/compulsions 92. According to behavioral theories, how do paraphilias develop? a. Paraphilic behaviors develop primarily when a child observes and then models his or her parents' sexual behaviors. b. Paraphilia develops when the person is rewarded by others for engaging in paraphilic behaviors and punished for engaging in "normal" sexual behaviors. c. The paraphilic object and a person's usual sexual partner must be paired for the person to develop sexual arousal to the paraphilic object. d. A chance pairing of some paraphilic object and sexual arousal leads the person to develop a classically conditioned sexual response to the paraphilic object. 93. Psychodynamic theorists believe that women with _____ are overidentified with their mothers and unconsciously equate having sex as a rejection of their mothers. a. anorgasmia. b. sexual aversion disorder. c. female sexual arousal disorder. d. vaginismus. 94. All of the following are associated with conduct and oppositional defiant disorder except: a. Lower levels of adrenaline. b. ADHD. c. Maternal exposure to toxins during pregnancy. d. Living in a rural area. 95. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most consistently implicated in ADHD? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Acetylcholine d. Glutamate 96. The three essential features of oppositional defiant disorder are negative mood, defiance or argumentative behavior and ______. a. vindictiveness b. destruction of property c. impulsive aggression d. emotional outburst 97. David, 8-yr old child underwent a neuropsychological testing and the test results show that there are several areas in the brain that are considered overgrown. David is more likely to have a. Conduct disorder b. Intellectual Development Disorder c. ADHD d. Autism Spectrum Disorder 98. Diana is a ninth grade teenager with a beautiful physique and long blonde hair, but refuses to go to parties and social dances, thinking that others will label her as unfashionable, weirdo, or nerd. With this fear, at most times she stays inside her room, and sometimes feel like not going to school. Which of the following comorbidities best explain her condition? a. Social Anxiety Disorder & Agoraphobia b. Social Anxiety Disorder & Body Dysmorphic Disorder c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder & Agoraphobia d. Social Anxiety Disorder & Obsessive Compulsive Disorder 99. Which of the following would least likely be considered to reflect a deficit in executive functioning? a. interpreting the proverb, "People who live in glass houses shouldn't throw stones" to mean, "People don't want their windows broken" b. failing to recognize objects or people c. difficulty planning how to carry out a sequence of actions d. trouble stopping oneself from engaging in a behavior 100. Panic attack is an abrupt surge of intense fear or discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes. Can it occur from a calm state? a. No, it needs the individual to be anxious first to complete the abrupt surge b. No, it only comes from an emotionally aroused stimuli to reach a peak c. Yes, because it is uncued, therefore may surge unexpectedly even when relaxed d. Yes, because it can reflect real-time worries and anxieties  INDUSTRIAL/ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY Prepared and Screened by: Prof. Yvette Camantiles, RPm 1. This is a branch of psychology that involves the bad that they will lose money later on. What type analysis of jobs, recruitment, selection, of dilemma is Gerald having? compensation, training, and performance a) Type A evaluation. b) Type B a) Industrial Psychology c) Type AB b) Organizational Psychology d) Type O c) Industrial/Organizational Psychology 7. Coulson is tasked with monitoring and interviewing d) Personnel Psychology employees. He writes the task that they are doing, 2. Which of the following statements fall under the the manner in which they are doing it, and the study of human factors? machines and tools that they use. He also asks the a) Determining which employee to promote or employees what requirements are needed to do remove the job. What is he doing? b) Arranging the layout of the office for maximum a) Task analysis efficiency b) Job evaluation c) Giving surveys to employees to determine c) Performance Evaluation their attitude towards the current d) Job analysis administration 8. Which of the following will not result from what d) Creating a counseling program for the Coulson is doing? employees a) Training Program 3. He is considered the Father of Industrial b) Recruitment Ad Psychology. c) Employee Compensation a) Walter Dill Scott d) NOTA b) Henry Ford 9. Which of the following statements is an example of c) Hugo Munsterberg the Peter Principle? d) Frederick Taylor a) Marshall knows he’s a good rapper but is 4. Who were the pioneer/s of using scientific afraid of being the greatest. On stage, he principles to increase efficiency and reduce fatigue chokes and vomits the spaghetti his mom by studying the motions of workers? made him. a) Lillian and Frank Gilbreth b) Stan is an excellent public relations manager. b) Henry Ford However, when he gets promoted to be a c) Frederick Taylor private assistant, he gets easily frustrated and d) Elton Mayo and colleagues performs poorly. 5. These are references that contain the latest c) Em knows that his boss, Dre, doesn’t believe developments and research studies in an industry, in him. This affects him emotionally and he which are read and written by professionals and performs poorly as a result. experts. d) ‘Shady’ and ‘Slim’ always hype each other up a) Journals before going on stage. They perform better b) Trade Magazines when they are together rather than separate. c) Bridge Publications 10. Kelly is a sharpshooter for the military. Before d) Industry Tabloids doing a job, his visual perception, visual acuity, 6. Gerald is a supplier of ice cream machines to fast and hand-eye coordination were determined first. food chains like Wackdonald’s and Jellybee. He What competencies are these? does not mention to his clients that his products a) Abilities become slow and defective within 3 years of use. b) Skills He wants to avoid losing clients even if he feels c) Physical Adeptness d) General Requirements 1 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  11. Flanagan and his students developed this job a) The right to privacy is a basic human right and analysis method to determine successful and must be upheld at all times. unsuccessful job performance. b) Valentina had no previous knowledge of the a) JCI company’s intentions. They had failed to b) TTA communicate their safety procedures to the c) CIT employees. d) ONET c) The company has the right to do these 12. Which of the following situations is not an example procedures without prior notice since they of internal pay equity? have sovereignty over their employees. a) May is paid more than Mae since she has d) It is not possible to file a case against her been with the company longer. employers since Valentina’s office and b) Denise and Denis are paid the same but computer are owned by the company. Denis demands more since he works the 17. Which of the following is NOT a reason why night shift companies use Blind box ads? c) Anne and Ann work at different companies a) Prestigious companies who are hiring want to and have different salaries although they avoid the massive influx of applicants who have the same tasks. want to work for them despite being d) Gail works for the finance department and is unqualified. paid higher than Gale who works for b) Companies that have bad reputations do not housekeeping. want their potential applicants to be 13. The issue of comparable worth is seen in which of discouraged. the following? c) Companies use these to promote ‘Costumers a) Finn finds it unfair that Poe is given bigger to Employees’ wherein ads are posted in opportunities simply because he is white. places where they are most visible. What Finn doesn’t know is that Poe has d) Companies want to avoid the hassle and better qualifications. drama from a current employee finding out that b) Leah advocates for transparency and open they will be replaced through a recruitment ad communication. She knows that there are for his/her position. problems with how funds are handled. 18. What is TRUE about employee referrals? c) Han is the oldest worker in his cruise ship but a) It is one of the most inefficient ways to recruit is given the hardest work to do. employees. d) Rey and Ben are both engineers. Ben is b) It may lead to an imbalance in the racial and always chosen as project head even if Rey is ethnic make-up of a company. as competent. c) The success of a referred employee cannot be 14. Peter has filed a complaint against OSCORP. An predicted. arbiter decided to side with OSCORP upon the d) The incentives gained are the biggest and issue. Peter is unable to pursue his case due to the primary motivators in making employee nature of the decision of the arbiter. What decision referrals. was made? 19. Which is the best method for evaluating the a) Absolute Arbitration effectiveness of a recruitment method? b) Binding Arbitration a) Determining the cost per applicant c) Non-binding Arbitration b) Determining the cost per qualified applicant d) Despotic Arbitration c) Determining the number of applicants 15. Stewie is the vice president of an advertising attracted company. He is perverted and biased since he d) Determining the number of successful gives promotions to employees who grant him applicants sexual favors. This is called? 20. What is the difference between a Realistic Job a) Hostile Environment Preview (RJP) and an Expectation-Lowering b) Sexual Harassment Procedure (ELP)? c) Quid Pro Quo a) An ELP is a variation of the RJP that focuses d) Abuse of Power on giving realistic descriptions of a job’s 16. Valentina accused her company of invading her particulars. privacy. There were security cameras installed in b) An RJP is a variation of the ELP that focuses her office without her knowledge. Her work email on work in general. It aims to promote longer was also being monitored. If she were to file a tenure and higher job satisfaction. case, on what grounds would her arguments be valid? 2 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  c) An ELP focuses on expectations about work in c) Validity, reliability, selection ratio general. It does not dwell on a particular job or d) Validity, number of employees hired/year, task. average tenure of employees d) An RJP is most effective when given at the 27. Which result is NOT adverse impact? beginning of the recruitment process, while the a) Poca, a Native American, was not hired ELP is better delivered during the selection because she did not meet the job’s minimum process. requirements. 21. A company was sued for negligent hiring by one of b) Briar was removed from her job as an opera their clients after an employee stole cash and singer at the London Theater due to rising jewelry. The company had done a thorough tensions between the UK and Russia, her background and reference check before hiring the home country. employee and found nothing suspicious. Which of c) A university in the United States did not hire the following is TRUE? Zel and her fellow applicants who did not a) The client is justified in suing the company speak English. since the employee was under their d) Cindy, a Caucasian, was considered over jurisdiction. Tiana, a black woman, by a hospital with b) The client is justified in suing the company mostly white employees. since they did not do enough to ensure the 28. Susan, Peter, and Edmund scored the highest integrity and moral character of the people during the selection process. The recruiter submits they hire. their profiles to the HR director, who makes the c) The client is not justified in suing the company hiring decisions. What kind of selection technique since it should be the employee who should be is this? sued. a) Passing Scores d) The client is not justified in suing the company b) Top-Down since all the procedures they had done gave c) Rule of Three them no reason not to hire the person. d) Multiple cut-off 22. This is a widely-used group cognitive-ability test 29. This selection technique is a compromise between that is administered in more or less 12 min. top-down hiring and passing scores. It attempts to a) Wonderlic Personnel Test hire the top test scorers while still allowing some b) Wonderlic Personality Test flexibility for affirmative action. c) Siena Reasoning Test a) Compensatory Approach d) Basic Cognitive Reasoning Test b) Banding 23. This selection technique simulates job tasks c) Multiple hurdles wherein applicants have to sort information into d) Rule of Three those already completed and those to be handled. 30. Which of the following is FALSE? a) Simulation a) High performers evaluate their peers more b) Business Games strictly than low performers. c) Work Sample b) Employees tend to react worse to negative d) In-basket feedback from peers than from experts. 24. The employees’ test scores are correlated with c) Peer ratings are fairly reliable only when the their performance appraisals and tenure in the raters are similar to and well acquainted with company. What kind of validity is established? the colleagues they are rating. a) Internal Consistency d) Peer-ratings are the most common type of b) Criterion performance appraisals. c) Convergent 31. This approach for performance appraisals focuses d) Content on attributes such as employee honesty, courtesy, 25. These were designed to determine the percentage and assertiveness. of future employees who will become successful if a) Competency-focused a particular test is used. b) Trait-focused a) Utility Formula c) Character-focused b) Lawshe Tables d) Contextual-focused c) Taylor-Russel Tables 32. I. Forced-choice distribution is an example of an d) Expectancy charts objective employee comparison method. 26. What are the three variables needed in using the II. In using the paired comparisons method for answer to no. 25? evaluating 6 employees, there will be 15 pairs. a) Validity, selection ratio, base rate III. When measuring performance using quality of b) Validity, test scores, base rate work, errors are considered. 3 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  IV. The graphic rating scale is the most common a) I and IV are FALSE tool used in rating performance. b) Only II is TRUE a) I an IV are FALSE c) Only III is TRUE b) I,II and III are TRUE d) II, III and IV are FALSE c) II, III and IV are TRUE e) I, II and III are TRUE d) II and IV are FALSE 39. This is an incentive method wherein employees e) All are TRUE attend training to improve a skill that they need to 33. Diana is about to rate Caitlyn. Although Diana get a promotion or a pay raise. observes that Caitlyn is not a good worker, she still a) Competency-based pay decides to rate her highly since the previous rater b) Skill-based pay did the same. What error is being committed? c) Experience-based pay a) Halo Error d) Knowledge-based pay b) Leniency Error 40. Reviewing seriously two weeks before the board c) Assimilation Error examination is called? d) Reference Error a) Distributed practice 34. This method of communicating appraisal results b) Aggregated practice starts with telling employees what they had done c) Massed practice poorly, then marketing ways on how they can d) Bravery improve. 41. First respondents are trained in CPR using a) Feedback sandwich simulated emergencies and dummies. This trains b) Tell and Sell them for actual events when CPR is needed. What c) Negative-positive training method is used? d) Collaborative a) Behavior Modeling 35. Companies are allowed to fire employees at any b) Role Play time because of the employee-at-will doctrine. In c) Programmed Instruction what situation would this be invalid? d) NOTA a) If the employee has no contract with the 42. During training, the manager shows the trainees company. how to deal with customer complaints, after which b) If the company is in the private sector the trainees take turns in doing the exercise. What c) If an employee has refused to violate the ethics training method is used? of his profession for the company a) Behavior Modeling d) If the employee is still in the probationary b) Role Play period c) Programmed Instruction 36. Developed by Latham and Wexley, it is a d) NOTA sophisticated method for measuring the frequency 43. What training method employs self-paced learning of desired behaviors. where information is presented in small chunks? a) BARS a) Behavior Modeling b) BOS b) Role Play c) Critical-incidents c) Programmed Instruction d) Forced-choice d) NOTA 37. This is defined as the systematic acquisition of 44. A company wants to use an interactive e-learning skills, rules, concepts, or attitudes that result in training method. What method should they use? improved performance a) Webinars a) Training b) Webcasts b) Development c) Simulations c) Socialization d) Assessment Centers d) Team Building 45. This is commonly used to train non-managerial 38. I. Task analysis is the first step in a Training Needs employees. It allows for lateral transfers within the Analysis (TNA) company and is effective in ensuring that tasks of II. Organizational analysis looks at the goals absent employees are accomplished. company wants to achieve with training its a) Apprentice Training employees b) Backlog Training III. Job Analysis is most relevant in the last stage c) Cross Training of TNA d) Coaching IV. Person Analysis determines whether the 46. Which of the following statements is FALSE? company is able to fund the training of its employees. 4 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  a) In overlearning, time and effort is spent in 53. In Herzberg’s Two Factor theory, job-elements that studying information, but retention is not result from but do not involve the job itself belong lengthened. to what category? b) The more similar training environments are to a) Hygiene factors/ Job context actual work environment increases the b) Hygiene factors/ Job content effectivity of the training c) Motivators/ Job context c) Transfer of training increases when the ‘big d) Motivators/ Job content picture’ and basic principles are taught rather 54. What is NOT a component of motivation potential? than just specific tasks or techniques a) Task Significance d) It is better to train employees in as many b) Autonomy different situations as possible. c) Task Identity 47. This is the lowest and most common method of d) NOTA evaluating a training method. 55. Despite its popularity, Abraham Maslow’s needs a) Employee Learning theory has weaknesses and limitations. Which is b) Employee Reactions NOT one of them? c) Business Impact a) He proposed too many levels of needs d) Return of Investments b) Contrary to Maslow’s theory, not everyone 48. This method of evaluating a training program progresses up the needs hierarchy. involves considering the cost of the program and c) Even if lower needs are satisfied, higher needs the revenue that was generated as a result of it. do not necessarily become the most important a) Employee Learning in reality. b) Employee Reactions d) It does not give recommendations as to how c) Business Impact employee motivation can be increased d) Return of Investments 56. What is the major difference between Maslow’s 49. Scarlet is discouraged because her boss does not and Aldefer’s theories besides the number of believe that she cannot establish a successful levels proposed? partnership with another prestigious company. If a) Aldefer’s needs cannot be over satisfied this causes her to perform poorly, what would the b) Maslow concentrated on different kinds of effect be called? motivators while Aldefer focused on needs a) Golem effect directly relevant to the industrial setting b) Golum effect c) Aldefer’s theory allows for individuals to skip c) Pygmalion effect levels. d) Galatea effect d) Maslow’s theory is structured into a hierarchy 50. Despite what her boss thinks, Scarlet is confident whereas Aldefer’s wasn’t. in her abilities. If she performs well as a result, 57. Jordan likes to take on challenging tasks. She what would the effect be called? dislikes being grouped with other people and a) Self-fulfilling prefers to have control over the decision-making b) Golem effect process. What need is she high and low in? c) Pygmalion effect a) Affiliation; Achievement d) Galatea effect b) Achievement ; Affiliation 51. Scarlet agrees with her boss and believes that she c) Power; Affiliation is not good enough to do the job, which causes her d) Power; Achievement to perform poorly, what would the effect be called? 58. Which of the following is TRUE? a) Golem effect a) Hygiene factors are necessary and sufficient b) Self-fulfilling for job satisfaction and motivation. c) Pygmalion effect b) Recognition programs and awards satisfy self- d) Galatea effect actualization needs 52. This theory on employee motivation postulates that c) The Job Characteristics theory states that a there is a correlation between self-esteem and meaningful job and good feedback are motivation. What is the theory and who is its sufficient to increase employee motivation proponent? d) Realistic job previews reduce applicant pools a) Self-generated motivation; Nox and Lucis but also decrease the chance of hiring b) Intrinsic motivation theory; Deci and Ryan employees who will become dissatisfied in the c) Consistency Theory; Korman future d) ERG; Aldefer 59. I. ‘Improve teamwork’ and ‘Work as quick as possible’ are examples of motivating goals according to the goal setting theory. 5 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  II. Allowing employees to participate in the process e) Continuous of setting goals improves their motivation. 66. A manager rewards high-performing employees by III. Difficult and challenging goals will result to letting them serve less crowded areas of the greater performance only if employees accept restaurant during rush hour. This method of giving them incentives is called? IV. Feedback accompanying goal attainment a) Shaping encourages better job performance b) Peter Principle a) I and III are FALSE c) Premack Principle b) Only IV is TRUE d) Merit performance c) III and IV are TRUE 67. Banksy is paid for every piece of artwork he d) II,III and IV are TRUE creates in a day. What incentive plan is used? 60. This is a questionnaire developed by Hackman a) Merit pay and Oldham that measures five core job b) Earnings-at-risk characteristics. c) Base Rates a) Position Analysis Questionnaire d) Gainsharing b) Job Elements Survey 68. What is NOT a group incentive plan? c) Job Diagnostic Survey a) Profit sharing d) Job Characteristics Survey b) Merit pay 61. According to the Equity theory, people c) Gainsharing experiencing underpayment inequity will least d) Stock options likely ? 69. Bob has been working for Krab Burgers for 10 a) Look for other people to compare themselves years. He enjoys his work and gets along with his to. coworkers. He believes in the goals of his b) Increase the effort and input that they put into company and doesn’t mind working overtime. The their work. type of commitment that Bob has is? c) Leave their company altogether a) Normative d) Confront their superiors and ask for a pay raise b) Collective 62. According to Huseman et al., there are individual c) Continuance differences in the perception of equity. Some d) Affective people are more affected by imbalances more than 70. What does the individual difference theory others. This is called? postulate? a) Equity sensitivity a) Individuals have different criteria and b) Equity moderator thresholds for staying in or leaving their jobs. c) Equity ratio b) Individuals have varied tendencies across d) Equity expectancy situations to enjoy, be satisfied and motivated 63. This a cognitive theory of motivation that states with their work. that workers weigh expected costs and benefits c) Individuals are motivated by different types of before they are motivated to take action. management styles or incentive pays. a) Expectancy theory d) NOTA b) Equity theory 71. Potpot always hears his mentor, Brigildo, complain c) Theory Y of motivation about problems in the company. Eventually, Potpot d) Job Elements theory begins to share the sentiments of his mentor. What 64. “If I go to the moon, I will get promoted,” Howard theory would explain the situation? thinks. What component of Vroom’s theory is a) Equity theory manifested? b) Transactional Theory a) Expectancy c) Social Information Processing Theory b) Instrumentality d) Peer Influence Theory c) Valence 72. Colin and Firth are competing for a supervisory d) Value position.They had rigorous tests and assessments. 65. For two weeks straight, a manager makes sure to Colin eventually got the job, but Firth complained praise employees whenever they perform well. that Colin was hired simply because he could talk What reinforcement schedule is the manager louder. What is Firth’s complaint about? using? a) Procedural injustice a) Fixed Interval b) Distributive injustice b) Fixed Ratio c) Interactional injustice c) Variable Interval d) Decisive injustice d) Variable Ratio 6 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  73. Sasha works at the assembly section of an c) Single-strand grapevine automobile company. To make him motivated and d) Cluster grapevine satisfied, his manager allows him to decide what 81. Unfortunately, Kacey did not hear about the car to work.This makes him feel trusted. What is message since she was at a conference. What is shown? Kacey called? a) Job Rotation a) Dead-ender b) Job Enlargement b) Isolate c) Job Enrichment c) Liason d) Job Crafting d) Outlier 74. If Sasha’s manager allowed him to assemble both 82. Hugh,Cam and Julia are talking about an alleged the car exterior and interior instead of deciding decision of the management to remove some what car to work on, then this would show? employees. This conversation is called? a) Job Rotation a) Rumors b) Job Enlargement b) Gossip c) Job Enrichment c) Grapevine d) Job Crafting d) Casual 75. What is the most common tool used in determining 83. Daniel and Luce are conversing inside the office. job satisfaction that measures five dimensions The chatter of the group behind them and the such as pay, coworkers and supervision? music coming from the speakers above are called? a) Job Elements Survey a) Interference b) Job Descriptive Index b) Media c) Faces Scale c) Noise d) Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire d) Paralanguage 76. Negative information is hardly communicated 84. This is the space that is 18 inches to 4 feet away inside a company due to the discomfort and stress from a person that is usually reserved for friends felt when delivering such messages. Rosen and and acquaintances. Tesser called this phenomenon as? a) Social Distance Zone a) Minimize Unpleasant Messages Effect b) Personal Distance Zone b) Communication Avoidance Effect c) Intimacy Zone c) Serial Communication d) Public Distance Zone d) Censorship Effect 85. Nora likes to wear monochromatic clothes. Jev 77. This a neutral entity that mediates communication likes to hang his diplomas and awards in his office.. between employees and management. V uses purple highlighters exclusively. These are a) Arbiter examples of people using? b) Message Man a) Paralanguage c) Middle Man b) Nonverbal Cues d) Ombudsperson c) Artifacts 78. Which is NOT a channel of downward d) Identifiers communication? 86. Linda is overwhelmed by the constant ringing of a) Intranet the office telephone. She tries to deal with all the b) Bulletin Boards messages but eventually commits mistakes. c) Focus groups Becky, on the other hand, deals with the constant d) Policy Manuals ringing by simply ignoring the calls until she is 79. This is a type of office design where a wide hallway available to take them. What techniques are Linda runs through different departments. It encourages and Becky using to overcome communication employee interaction and communication but overload? reduces privacy. a) Omission and Cueing a) Bullpen b) Cueing and Escape b) Free-form c) Error and Escape c) Uniform d) Omission and Error d) Boulevard 87. This type of listening involves taking note of only 80. Denis passes a message to Barry, who passes it the main and important ideas behind any to Hedwig, who passes it to Kevin. This continues communication. until everyone in the office has received the a) Technical Listening message. What kind of communication is this? b) Nonconforming Listening a) Probability grapevine c) Inclusive Listening b) Rumors d) Deductive Listening 7 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  88. Farrah doesn’t really agree with the politician’s a) Norming views on the economy, so she tunes his voice out b) Storming and scrolls through social media on her phone. c) Performing This type of listening is called? d) Forming a) Nonconforming Listening e) Adjusting b) Stylistic Listening 94. Jessie is soft-spoken and timid. He doesn’t social c) Empathetic Listening events and keeps to himself. He was tasked to d) Exclusive Listening endorse the company to 500 graduating students 89. Which of the following is FALSE? at a university. According to research on audience a) People high in conscientiousness, effect, what would happen? extraversion and openness, and low in a) Nothing, the audience effect was disproved. neuroticism are more likely to emerge as b) There would be an increase in Jessie’s leaders. performance b) More intelligent people are more likely to c) There would be a decrease in Jessie’s emerge as leaders than less intelligent people. performance c) High self-monitors emerge as leaders more d) It would depend on the composition of the often than low self-monitors. audience and the length of his exposure on d) NOTA stage 90. Caleb knows that being project manager will 95. In a group, this is the person who always asks increase his standing in the company, thus he questions or disagrees with the group. volunteers for the position. What type of leadership a) Know-it-all motivation is he showing? b) Devil’s Advocate a) Non-calculative motivation c) Nuisance b) Calculative motivation d) Sniper c) Affective Identity motivation 96. What are the stages in Gabora’s Five Stages of d) Social-normative motivation Creative Process? 91. There are three candidates vying to be the next a) Preparation, Incubation, Illumination, CEO of Missswiss. Leo is the most experienced Evaluation, Implementation and has the highest educational attainment in the b) Preparation, Illumination, Incubation, company. Sisa is well-loved among her colleagues Evaluation, Implementation and the majority of the employees are rooting for c) Preparation, Incubation, Illumination, her. Felix is the vice president of the company and Implementation, Evaluation would naturally take the position if not for the other d) Preparation, Illumination, Incubation, two. Leadership through power would tell us that? Implementation, Evaluation a) Although Sisa is well-liked; she would not be 97. This is the stage in organizational change wherein able to secure the loyalty and respect of her employees start ditching their old ways and habits followers. and start accepting the change. b) Leo will influence others using legitimate a) Adaptation power because he is the most ‘legitimate’ or b) Internalization qualified person for the job. c) Unloading c) Although Felix is the vice president, his power d) Discarding to persuade his employees would still be weak 98. These are employees who only change when d) Leo has the best chance of being CEO and necessary but do not instigate or welcome change Sisa has the worst. openly. 92. Among the following statements, which is NOT a a) Reluctant Changers criterion to be called a group? b) Change Resisters a) Events that affect a member also affect all the c) Change Analysts other group members. d) Change Skeptics b) Groups provide rewards to its members 99. I. Continued exposure to high levels of noise can c) Group members share a singular and common raise the blood pressure of employees doing goal complicated tasks. d) Group members see themselves as individuals II. People can eventually adapt to extreme that have common goals temperatures and perform tasks close to how they e) NOTA would perform in normal conditions 93. In the development of a team, this is the stage III. Cynicism towards the organization and where team members begin to ease conflict and colleagues is a behavioral symptom of burnout. accept their roles and responsibilities. 8 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or the review center.  IV. Employees involved in workplace violence are typically men between the age of 20 and 50 whose self-esteem is tied to their job. a) II and IV are FALSE b) I, III and IV are TRUE c) All are FALSE d) All are TRUE 100. Who is Jean-Marc Gaspard Itard? a) He was a patriarch of special education; he proposed that an enriched environment could compensate for developmental delays. b) He was a follower of eugenics who believed that people with mental disorders should be prevented from reproducing. c) He differentiated organizational development from training. d) He was a proponent of the sacred cow hunt in organizational development. 9 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED No part of this exam/material may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without permission in writing from the lecturer or th