Premedication Goals and Sedation Options

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a modern goal of premedication?

  • Improving coagulation
  • Sedation
  • Relief of anxiety
  • Induction of paralysis (correct)

Which of the following is a possible caution related to premedication and modern surgery?

  • Patients may need to complete preoperative history and physical on the day of surgery. (correct)
  • Patients are always seen well in advance of surgery.
  • Patients never wish to ask questions preoperatively.
  • Patients never need to sign documents preoperatively.

Which of the following is a noted side effect of midazolam when given for early sedation?

  • Increased alertness
  • Shortened sleep duration
  • Cause sleepiness for a long period afterward (correct)
  • No effect on sleep

Which of the following is a characteristic of ketamine when used pre-operatively?

<p>It can be administered orally or intramuscularly for sedation and analgesia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a relative contraindication for using depressant medications for pre-medication?

<p>Severe pulmonary disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary reason for administering anticholinergics (like atropine) as part of pre-operative medication?

<p>Prevent bradycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is MOST likely to cause postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

<p>Opioids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

<p>Increased tension on abdominal or thoracic sutures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is NOT appropriate to manage GI obstruction?

<p>Gastropropulsive agent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant?

<p>Rocuronium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a clinical use of muscle relaxants during surgical procedures?

<p>Facilitating tracheal intubation by paralyzing pharyngeal muscles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a muscarinic antagonist often administered alongside reversal agents for neuromuscular blockade?

<p>To counteract the muscarinic effects of increased acetylcholine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a train-of-four (TOF) monitoring, what does it indicate if there are 4 out of 4 twitches present?

<p>70-75% of receptors are still blocked (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker in clinical use?

<p>Succinylcholine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential adverse effect associated with succinylcholine administration?

<p>Myalgias (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of neuromuscular blockade, what condition is suggested by history of burn injury, crush injury, or massive trauma?

<p>Risk of hyperkalemia due to K+ release from muscle injury (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which element is NOT typically included in a pre-operative evaluation?

<p>Patient's preference of music during the procedure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary guideline for ordering pre-operative lab tests?

<p>Avoid tests that will not alter management. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided context, what is the main purpose of the ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) physical status classification?

<p>To compare groups of patients based on their physical status (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided text, what ASA classification would a patient with well-controlled asthma likely receive?

<p>ASA 2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who has the ultimate responsibility for pre-operative clearance for surgery and anesthesia?

<p>The surgeon (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended management of steroid use in patients undergoing elective procedures?

<p>Patients who have had steroids recently may need a hydrocortisone supplement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended approach to pre-operative management of oral hypoglycemic agents like metformin?

<p>Hold the medication on the day of surgery. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should SLGT-2 drugs be discontinued prior to a surgical procedure?

<p>3 to 4 days prior to the procedure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general recommendation regarding ACEIs and ARBs in the context of pre-operative medication management?

<p>They are generally okay except for ACEIs and ARBs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is supplemental oxygen typically given during sedation or anesthesia?

<p>Because sedation reduces ventilation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a limitation of using devices like nasal cannulas and simple masks to provide supplemental oxygen?

<p>None of them significantly increase tidal volume. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the correct first step in managing an upper airway obstruction?

<p>Relieving the obstruction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of airway management, when is a jaw thrust maneuver indicated?

<p>When cervical spine injury is suspected (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST reliable method for confirming correct placement of an endotracheal tube (ETT)?

<p>Detection of expired CO2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a sign of upper airway obstruction?

<p>Rocking chest motion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the use of an Ambu bag (bag valve mask) indicated?

<p>Once an airway is established (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient exhibits a short mento-hyoid distance, what does this indicate in the context of airway management?

<p>Potential difficult airway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Mallampati score primarily assess?

<p>Intubation difficulty (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances is a rapid sequence induction (RSI) typically used?

<p>When the patient is at particular risk for aspiration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important goal when dealing with aspiration injury?

<p>Prevention (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which measure is LEAST likely to contribute to the prevention or treatment of atelectasis?

<p>Worsening V/Q mismatch &amp; shunt post-op (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor is LEAST likely to cause intraoperative hypotension?

<p>Chronic Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 75-year-old patient is scheduled for surgery. Considering closing capacity, what is MOST likely to occur?

<p>Airway closure early (collapses) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic regarding the cardiac system of a child?

<p>Limited stroke volume compared to adults (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to adults, Neonates have ~60% Hct. What are the clinical implications of this?

<p>Impaired ability to clot --&gt; risk of bleeding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most accurate statement regarding hypothermia in infants?

<p>Infants have low BSA --&gt; high heat loss --&gt; increased risk for hypothermia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Goals of premedication

Relief of anxiety, sedation, analgesia, prevention of nausea/vomiting and allergic reactions.

Premedication cautions

Frequently, patients are not seen until the day of surgery and may need to complete preoperative H&P, answer questions, and sign documents preoperatively

Midazolam effect

It causes sleepiness for a long period afterward

Ketamine effect

It is sedation and analgesic, and causes post-anesthesia delirium (less common in children) and prolong emergence

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Ketamine

Rapid onset dissociative anesthetic, sedative, analgesic and antidepressant. Maintains airway reflexes. Direct cardiac depressant. Synergistic with GABA agonists.

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Contraindications: depressants

Newborns, elderly, decreased level of consciousness, severe pulmonary disease, hypovolemia.

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Anticholinergics purpose

Dry secretions, prevent bradycardia, antiemetic

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Medications cause PostOp Nausea

Opioids, nitrous oxide, anticholinesterases

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Consequences: postop nausea

Put tension on sutures, aspiration, increase venous back pressure, increase intracranial/ocular pressure

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Measures to prevent aspiration

H2 blocker, gastropropulsive agent (not if GI obstruction), non-particulate antacid, rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure.

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Examples non-depolarizing relaxants

Rocuronium, atracurium, cisatracurium, pancuronium, tubocurarine, mivacurium, doxacurium, etc.

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Use muscle relaxants

Facilitate intubation, muscle relaxation for surgery, electric shock therapy, therapeutic hypothermia, and to prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony.

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Reversal of NMB

Reversal agents need to be given in combination with a muscarinic antagonist.

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Termination of muscle relaxants

Head lift/leg lift for 15 sec, grip strength test, nerve stimulator.

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Train of four caution

If 4/4 responses (twitches) → can still have 70-75% receptors blocked → does not guarantee complete recovery

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Succinylcholine

Only clinical example and causes adverse effects

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Succinylcholine adverse effects

Myalgias, transient increase in serum K+, trigger for malignant hyperthermia, tachydysrhythmias, bradycardia

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Hyperkalemia Risk Factors

Burn, crush, massive trauma, bedbound pt with atrophy, myopathies, rhabdomyolysis. UMN injury, demyelinating lesion, denervation injury, head trauma, polyneuropathies, encephalopathy, SC injury

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Elements of pre-op evaluation

Allergies, cardiac history, pulmonary history, hematologic history, renal history, prior anesthesia/surgery, meds, supplements. Vitals, heart, lungs, airway, OSA evaluation, fluid status (BP dec w/ less fluid), NM stability

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Preop History focuses

Planned procedure, family history, NPO, acute changes

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Testing for minimally invasive procedures

Minimize testing and minimize fluid shifts.

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ASA classification

Does not tell you a risk. It just compares the group of pts

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ASA categories

ASA 2: asthma under control. ASA 3: not under control. ASA 4: constant to life. ASA 5: Dying

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Surgeon's role pre-op

Final responsibility for pre-op clearance

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Steroid use and surgery

Patients with recent steroid use may have impaired adrenal function. Give hydrocortisone.

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Diabetes Meds: pre-op

Insulin: half dose AM. Oral hypoglycemics: hold.

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Give supplemental oxygen?

Sedation and anesthesia reduce ventilation, reduce muscle tone

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Pros of face mask

Simple to use in a conscious/responsive patient, no special expertise required

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Cons of face mask

None of these devices significantly increase tidal volume, remove CO2, or treat obstruction

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Upper airway obstruction

Relieve the obstruction. Chin lift pulls tongue forward away from the throat.

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Confirmation of ETT placement

Bilateral breath sounds, absence of sounds in stomach, chest wall movement, vapor in ETT, expired CO2.

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Sign of airway obstruction

Rocking boat movement, accessory muscles start to work harder, clavicle becomes prominent, rocking chest motion, nasal flaring.

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Bag-mask ventilation caveats

Proper seal, don't press too hard, don't fight the patient's ventilation

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Difficult intubation

Short mento-hyoid distance, prominent maxilla, immobility of TMJs, inability to fully open mouth, long overriding incisors, limitations of neck extension/flexion, thick neck

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Mallampati score

Describes/predicts intubation difficulty during pre-op

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Rapid sequence induction

Used if intubation is unsuccessful

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Indications rapid intubation.

Pregnant, obese, recently eaten, trauma, delayed gastric emptying

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Aspiration main risk

Main risk is between induction and securing the airway

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Aspiration severity

Particulate aspiration is the worst, fecal aspiration has the highest mortality

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Prevention measures for pneumonia

H2 blocker, gastropropulsive, non-particulate antacid, rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure

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Consequences of atelectasis

Worsened V/Q mismatch. Can be prevented and treated with incentive spirometer.

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Study Notes

Premedication Goals

  • Modern premedication aims to relieve anxiety using BZDs (-zolams).
  • Goals include sedation, analgesia, prevention of nausea/vomiting, prevention of allergic reactions.
  • Further goals are reduction of gastric fluid volume and acidity, and improvement of coagulation.
  • The aim is to attenuate autonomic reflexes.

Premedication Cautions in Modern Surgery

  • Patients might not be seen until the surgery day, possibly requiring completion of preoperative H&P.
  • Patients may need to answer questions and sign documents before surgery.
  • Patients may want to ask questions preoperatively.

Early Sedation Options

  • Midazolam (BZD --> GABAa), given orally or rectally with Tylenol, has little impact on respiration and may cause prolonged sleepiness.
  • Ketamine (CCB/NMDA antagonist), administered orally or IM, provides sedation and analgesia and may cause post-anesthesia delirium or prolong emergence in children.
  • Dexmedetomidine (Alpha 2 agonist) is administered IV or intrabuccally (in peds), provides SA and decreases post-operative pain.

Ketamine for Pre-Op

  • Oral or IM ketamine provides dose-dependent sedation and analgesia.
  • Ketamine can cause postanesthesia delirium, particularly in children, and may lead to prolonged emergence.
  • As a dissociative anesthetic, sedative, and analgesic, ketamine is administered IV/IM with rapid onset.
  • Ketamine has antidepressant effects, which make it useful for pediatric and trauma/hypovolemic cases,
  • It is used for postop pain control (infusion) and maintains airway reflexes.
  • Compared to propofol, ketamine triggers less drop in blood pressure.
  • It has a direct cardiac depressant effect
  • Further, it acts synergistically with GABA agonists.

Contraindications for Depressant Pre-Meds

  • Relative contraindications include newborns (<1 year).
  • Relative contraindications include elderly, decreased level of consciousness, severe pulmonary disease, obstructive sleep apnea.
  • Relative contraindications include hypovolemia.

Pre-Op Anticholinergics (Atropine)

  • Anticholinergics reduces secretions (less important currently).
  • These are used to prevent bradycardia, especially in newborns, infants, and asymptomatic adults, and act as an antiemetic.

Post-Op Nausea and Vomiting (PONV)

  • Anesthetic factors such as opioids, especially postoperatively, nitrous oxide, and anticholinesterases for reversal of neuromuscular blockade, can cause nausea and vomiting

Consequences of Post-Op Nausea

  • Post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) can cause adverse consequences.
  • Adverse consequences put tension on abdominal and thoracic sutures.
  • Aspiration, increased venous back pressure in the head and neck and increased intracranial and ocular pressure may further result.

Measures to Prevent Aspiration

  • Aspiration prophylaxis involves using an H2 blocker to reduce gastric acid production.
  • Aspiration prophylaxis can involve a gastropropulsive agent (metoclopramide) unless GI obstruction is present.
  • It is important to use a non-particulate antacid.
  • Rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure can also be used in an emergency.

Nondepolarizing Muscle Relaxants

  • There are two types of muscle relaxants, depolarizing and nondepolarizing.
  • Nondepolarizing agents include Rocuronium, atracurium, cisatracurium, pancuronium, tubocurarine, mivacurium, and doxacurium.
  • Nondepolarizing relaxants block the receptors; thus, acetylcholine can't work.

Clinical Use of Muscle Relaxants

  • Muscle relaxants facilitate tracheal intubation through paralyzing pharyngeal muscles and preventing bucking and coughing.
  • They provide muscle relaxation for surgery and reduce violent seizures with limb movement during electric shock therapy (ECT).
  • Muscle relaxants prevent muscles from shivering in therapeutic hypothermia to minimize cerebral injury.
  • These prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony, which stops a patient from fighting the ventilator.

Reversal of Muscle Relaxation

  • Reversal of NMB requires giving reversal agents in combination with a muscarinic antagonist.
  • This is because the dramatic increase in acetylcholine would cause an overdose at the muscarinic receptors.

Signs of Termination

  • Head lift or leg lift for 15 seconds, grip strength test, and a nerve stimulator are signs of termination
  • Nerve stimulator is the most objective test.
  • Train of four involves stimulating the nerve 4 times to test muscle response/twitch using an electrode at the thumb.
  • Even if 4/4 responses (twitches) are present, 70-75% of receptors could still be blocked.
  • 8% of patients in the recovery room have residual blockade.

Muscle Relaxants and Tachydysrhythmias

  • Depolarizing and nondepolarizing agents are the two types of muscle relaxants.

Depolarizing Muscle Relaxants

  • Succinylcholine (sux) is the only example in clinical use.
  • The adverse effects are myalgias from fasciculation, transient serum K+ increase, malignant hyperthermia trigger, tachydysrhythmias, and bradycardia (especially in children).

Non-depolarizing Muscle Relaxants and Hyperkalemia Risk Factors

  • Hyperkalemia can stop the heart / cause dysrhythmias.
  • It can be caused by muscle injury, which is K+ release from the muscle or denervation of muscles.
  • Muscle injury from burns, bodily crush, massive trauma, bedbound patients w/ atrophy, myopathies, and rhabdomyolysis.
  • Denervation of Muscles due to UMN injury (stroke), demyelinating lesion, denervation injury, head trauma, polyneuropathies, encephalopathy, and SC injury

Pre-Op Evaluation Protocols

  • Elements of evaluation include: medical history, physical exams, and patient history, labs, and testing.

Elements of Evaluation

  • A medical history of allergies, cardiac history, pulmonary history, hematologic Hx, renal Hx, prior anesthesia/surgery, meds, and supplements
  • Physical exams should include vitals, heart, lungs, airway, OSA eval, fluid status.
  • Patient history should take into account planned procedure, family history, NPO, and any acute changes.

Labs and Testing

  • Tests that won't change management should be avoided
  • False positives can result, leading to unnecessary further testing and procedures.

Tests Driven by H&P: Indications

  • Coagulation studies should be conducted if there is a history of excessive bleeding or a known coagulation disorder, liver disease, malnutrition / vit K deficiency, or anticoagulant use.
  • CXR: COPD, Lung Operation or symptomatic smoker should be checked but otherwise age does not matter.
  • EKG for asymptomatic heart disease should be carried out if the patient displays arrhythmias or symptoms, risk factors for CAD, high-risk surgery, long procedures, and neurosurgery or spinal surgery patients but otherwise age does not matter.
  • Electrolytes should be checked for patients with diabetes, kidney disease, lithium use, contrast use, or use of medications that affect kidney function
  • A CBC is indicated with a history of anemia/bleeding, immune deficit, chemo/radiation history, chronic renal failure, or bleeding/bruising.
  • Check blood type.
  • Get Pregnancy test (bHCG) for women, but avoid when patient refuses.

Minimally Invasive Procedures and Tests

  • Minimally invasive surgery (cataracts, knee arthroscopy, etc.) usually requires no pre-op testing without specific indications.
  • Testing indicated are short cases w/ no fluid shifts or abnormal tests in the absence of abnormal history/symptoms.

ASA Physical Status

  • ASA physical status (PS) classification compares groups of patients, classifies physical status, and is designed as a simple description of the patient's condition.
  • It is useful for comparing groups of patients in studies, only deals with physical status, and does not take the procedure into account.
  • ASA 2= pts w/ asthma but under control, ASA 3= not under control, ASA 4 = constant threat to life, ASA 5= my patient is dying.
  • If it's a heart failure, move 3 → 4.

Surgeon and Anesthesiologist Responsibility for Pre-Op Clearance

  • The surgeon is responsible for surgical clearance
  • An anesthesiologist is responsible for anesthesia clearance.

Management of Steroid Use and Elective Procedures

  • Patients using steroids recently may have impaired adrenal function, usually requiring 100mg IV hydrocortisone pre-anesthesia and 100mg every 8 hours.
  • There is risk of acute Addisonian crisis w/ refractory hypotension
  • Check to see if Steroid use longer than 2 weeks previously.

Management of Pre-Op Meds: Problematic Meds

  • Diabetic medications can be problematic: insulin, oral hypoglycemic agents (metformin), and GLP-1 drugs
  • Take ½ dose of insulin.
  • Hold oral hypoglycemic agents (metformin) and GLP-1 drugs b/c usually hyperglycemic the day of surgery (stress increased).
  • Hold SLGT-2 drugs 3 to 4 days prior to the procedure.
  • ACEIs (-pril) and ARBs (-sartan); antihypertensives other than these are okay before operation.
  • Naltrexone medications for opioid use disorder should be stopped 3 days prior to surgery.
  • MAO inhibitors (also tramadol and St John’s Wort).
  • Anticoagulants and antiplatelet medications can pose a big issue.

Supplemental Oxygen and Sedated Patients

  • Sedation and anesthesia can reduce ventilation.
  • These reduce ventilation by diminished response to hypoxia and hypercarbia. Reduced muscle tone can be attributed.
  • Reduction in tidal volume and/or possible obstruction are possible.
  • Pre and post supplemental O2 is given.
  • Nasal Cannula, HFNC (High-Flow Nasal Cannula), and Masks are all options.

Supplemental Oxygen Types

  • All these devices can be used in a conscious/responsive patient and are simple to use with no special expertise required,
  • None increase tidal volume significantly.
  • None actively remove CO2, or treat obstruction.

Management of Upper Airway Obstruction

  • You must relieve the obstruction.
  • Chin lift pulls the tongue forward away from the throat.
  • Head tilt lines up the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes, which allows for a straight path for airflow
  • Jaw thrust is used if suspect cervical injury.

Successful Endotracheal Intubation: Placement of ETT

  • Checking for placement of ETT (endotracheal tube) through bilateral breath sounds, absence of sounds in the stomach, chest wall movement, and vapor in ETT is imperative.
  • Expired CO2 is the winning value.

Evaluating Signs of Upper Airway Obstruction

  • Look for the following signs: Rocking boat movement, accessory muscles start to work harder.
  • The clavicle becomes prominent w/ inspiration, rocking chest motion (chest falls + abd rises → opposite of normal) appears.
  • Diaphragm descends maximally → push abd contents up (abd rises), negative pressure w/o air coming into the chest cavity (chest falls), and a nasal flaring appear.
  • Faint/absent breath sounds and Cyanosis (late and unreliable sign) → indicates O2 saturation < 85%.

Ambu Bag Use

  • Proper mask seal is imperative, don't press too hard on the patient's face, and don’t fight the patient’s ventilation.
  • Used once airway is established from #21

Signs of Difficult Airway

  • Indicators: short mento-hyoid / mento-thyroid distance, prominent maxilla, immobility of TMJs, and inability to fully open mouth.
  • Indicators range from long overriding incisors, limitations of neck extension/flexion to thick neck.
  • FONA – Front of Neck Airway as 1. Cricothyrotomy or 2. Tracheostomy / Tracheotomy are performed.
  • Mallampati score describes and predicts intubation difficulty during pre-op (III or IV will be difficult intubation).

Cormak Lehane Grades

  • During direct laryngoscopy, Grades are the view of the glottis.
  • Grades III or IV will be difficult intubation
  • 1: see everything; 2: see vocal cord; 3: see the hood of epiglottis; 4: cannot see epiglottis

Rapid Sequence Induction

  • Rapid sequence induction is used if intubation is unsuccessful.
  • Preoxygenation and Hypnosis/sedation are critical.
  • Intubation involves higher failure rate.

Indications for Rapid Sequence Induction

  • In cases of those at high risk of aspiration: Pregnant, obese, recently eaten fatty meal, Trauma pt, Delayed gastric emptying, Pt who swallowed gastrograffin (constant), and Pt w/ bleeding in mouth, oropharynx, or upper GI.

Aspiration Injury (Prevention)

  • Aspiration the main risk of between induction + securing the airway.
  • Aspiration has worse outcomes with rapid intubation.

Aspiration Pneumonia

  • Particulate aspiration is more dangerous, and non-particulate antacids should be used to decrease risk.
  • Fecal aspiration has the highest mortality.
  • Alveolar Capillary Breakdown: Interstitial edema, Intra-alveolar hemorrhage, Atelectasis, Increase airway resistance, and Hypoxia are issues.

Prevention of Aspiration

  • H2 blocker decreases the production of gastric acid.
  • A Gastropropulsive agent (metoclopramide) unless a GI obstruction in present.
  • A non-particulate antacid should be used. Rapid sequence induction w/ cricoid pressure if used.

Cardiovascular Complications of General Anesthesia, Atelectasis

  • Pulmonary complications: Post-op hypoventilation and or Post-op ciliary dysfunction.
  • Post-op ciliary dysfunction means is there is Poor clearance of pulmonary secretions!

Atelectasis

Atelectasis is due to the following:

  • Worsened V/Q mismatch & shunt post-op, or can be prevented/treated by mobilizing the patient quickly and using an incentive spirometer

Cardiac/Cardiovascular

  • Cardiac/cardiovascular issues: Hypotension, Hypertension, Arrhythmias, worsening of conduction defects,Perioperative myocardial infarction, Myocardial depression (pump failure), Significant fluid shifts, and or Thrombo-embolic phenomena.

Patients at Risk for Aspiration, Brochospasm Anesthesia

  • Pregnant women (from the start of the second trimester).
  • Obese patients and Patients who have recently eaten (esp. Meals high in fat).

At Risk due to Aspiration

  • Patients who have recently swallowed gastrograffin.
  • Pts w/ delayed gastric emptying (bowel obstruction, acute abdomen, ileus, narcotic use, etc.).

Bronchspasm Risk

  • Bronchospasm – patients at risk: History of asthma or COPD, History of smoking, or Current or recent respiratory tract infection. You’ll see an inflamed, hyperreactive airway.

Hypotension during General Anesthesia

  • Hypotension during GA is usually due to decreased cardiac output (CO), reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR), or hypovolemia.

Causes of Low BP

  • Chronic hypotension can cause labile BP during case
  • Cardiac MI → low BP, or a Rapid fluid shift → low BP

Post Op Hypoventilation

  • Post-op hypoventilation due to Related to meds: opiates, NMB (decrease ventilation).
  • Related to pain: “splinting”(decrease breathing – hypoventilate).

Closing Capacity

  • Closing capacity increase in children ( 6) and elderly (> 60) compared to FRC (functional residual capacity).

Children and Elderly

  • They have increased atelectasis → increased V/Q mismatch → increased problems w/ ventilation Worsen post-op atelectasis or Prolong recovery time.

Small Children Respiration

  • Dec resp muscles
  • Dec strength
  • Inc wall compliance
  • Less recoil.

Small Children Diaphragm

  • Cardiac/cardiovascular system – child
  • Heart muscle is weaker and less stiff or Limited stroke volume

Limited Stroke Volume

  • Not responsive to increased venous return (preload)
  • Cardiac output (CO) = stroke volume (SV) x heart rate (HR)
  • Cant increase SV response to demand; Very dependent on HR Bradycardia = low CO
  • Neonate w/ HR , give red cells, plasma, and platelets in a ratio of 1:1:1 to increase oxygen support and better lung function.
  • This is especially needed with hypoxia
  • High blood volume per kga

Treatment for Reaction

  • Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs).
  • Plasma (FFP)orCryoprecipitate
  • Platelets Hematocrit levels in small children Neonates have Hct 60% compared to adults 40-45%

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