Premedication and Sedation

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is a modern goal of premedication in anesthesia?

  • To prolong the duration of anesthesia
  • To intentionally cause amnesia
  • To relieve anxiety (correct)
  • To induce a state of paralysis

Why should clinicians exercise caution regarding premedication in contemporary surgical settings?

  • Because patients are systematically encouraged to ask questions preoperatively.
  • Because patients frequently are not seen until the day of surgery and may need to complete preoperative assessments at that time. (correct)
  • Because patients are always seen well in advance allowing ample time for comprehensive assessment.
  • Because all patients routinely undergo thorough preoperative evaluations well in advance of their procedures.

Which of the following is a characteristic effect of midazolam when given early for sedation?

  • Excitation, especially in pediatric patients
  • Minimal impact on respiration when combined with acetaminophen (correct)
  • Increased heart rate
  • Rapid and short-lived analgesia

What is a notable side effect associated with ketamine when used for early sedation?

<p>Post-anesthesia delirium, particularly in children (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dexmedetomidine, an alpha-2 agonist, is utilized for which of the following purposes in pre-operative settings?

<p>Sedation and postoperative pain reduction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pharmacological effect distinguishes ketamine from other sedatives when used pre-operatively?

<p>Induces dissociative anesthesia and maintains airway reflexes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ketamine particularly useful in trauma and hypovolemic cases, even if it may lead to prolonged emergence?

<p>It maintains airway reflexes and supports blood pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which patient population are depressant medications relatively contraindicated for pre-medication?

<p>Elderly patients and newborns (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary historical reason for using anticholinergics like atropine in pre-operative medication, though it is less relevant now?

<p>To dry secretions and prevent bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of medications used in anesthesia is most likely to cause postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

<p>Opioids, especially when administered postoperatively (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant adverse consequence of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

<p>Increased tension on surgical sutures and risk of aspiration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using an H2 blocker as a measure to prevent aspiration during anesthesia?

<p>To decrease the production of gastric acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is metoclopramide (a gastropropulsive agent) contraindicated in patients presenting with a gastrointestinal obstruction?

<p>It may exacerbate the obstruction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure indicated?

<p>In emergency situations to prevent aspiration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do non-depolarizing muscle relaxants work at the neuromuscular junction?

<p>By blocking acetylcholine receptors competitively (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using muscle relaxants during tracheal intubation?

<p>To paralyze pharyngeal muscles and prevent bucking or coughing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation might therapeutic hypothermia be used, and how do muscle relaxants aid this process?

<p>To stop muscles from shivering in patients with cerebral injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind administering a muscarinic antagonist along with a reversal agent for neuromuscular blockade?

<p>To counteract the muscarinic effects of increased acetylcholine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a 'train of four' (TOF) stimulation assess in the context of neuromuscular blockade?

<p>The degree of muscle relaxation achieved (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Even with 4/4 twitches present during Train-of-Four monitoring, why is it important to continue monitoring for residual neuromuscular blockade?

<p>Because 4/4 twitches does not guarantee complete recovery as 70-75% of receptors may still be blocked (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the only depolarizing muscle relaxant used clinically?

<p>Succinylcholine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant adverse effect associated with succinylcholine?

<p>Malignant hyperthermia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which clinical scenario is the use of succinylcholine most likely to cause hyperkalemia?

<p>In patients with denervation of muscles or muscle injury (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration when evaluating a patient pre-operatively regarding medical history?

<p>Including allergies, cardiac and pulmonary history, and all medications and supplements (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to avoid ordering unnecessary lab tests during the pre-operative evaluation?

<p>To avoid false positives that lead to unnecessary further testing and procedures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) physical status classification?

<p>To classify a patient's physical status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to ASA guidelines, how would a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life be classified?

<p>ASA Class 4 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of pre-operative clearance, who holds the ultimate responsibility for clearing a patient for surgery?

<p>The surgeon (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended approach to managing patients who have taken steroids within the past few months who are undergoing elective surgery?

<p>To administer hydrocortisone pre- and post-anesthesia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adjustment should be made to the dose of insulin for a patient with diabetes on the morning of their surgery?

<p>Administer half the usual dose (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should oral hypoglycemic agents like metformin be held on the day of surgery?

<p>To avoid hypoglycemia and because stress may increase blood glucose (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should ACE inhibitors and ARBs be managed in the pre-operative period?

<p>They are okay preoperatively, but they should be stopped on the day of surgery. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should naltrexone be discontinued prior to surgery if opioid analgesics are anticipated for postoperative pain management?

<p>3 days prior to surgery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is supplemental oxygen routinely administered to patients undergoing sedation or anesthesia?

<p>To counteract reduced ventilation and muscle tone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a limitation of using a nasal cannula for supplemental oxygen delivery?

<p>It does not significantly increase tidal volume or actively remove CO2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial step in managing an upper airway obstruction?

<p>Relieving the obstruction with maneuvers like a chin lift (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During endotracheal intubation, what is considered the 'gold standard' for confirming proper placement of the endotracheal tube (ETT)?

<p>Detection of expired carbon dioxide (CO2) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary indicator of an upper airway obstruction in an adult patient?

<p>Rocking chest motion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a 'can't intubate, can't ventilate' scenario, what immediate intervention is required?

<p>Front of Neck Airway (FONA) such as a cricothyrotomy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of rapid sequence induction (RSI)?

<p>To reduce the risk of aspiration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following aspiration of gastric contents, which type of aspirate is associated with the highest mortality rate?

<p>Fecal material (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant pulmonary complication that can occur following general anesthesia?

<p>Post-op hypoventilation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cardiovascular complication is most likely during general anesthesia due to decreased cardiac output or reduced systemic vascular resistance?

<p>Hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Modern premedication goals?

Relief of anxiety, sedation, analgesia, prevent nausea/vomiting, allergic reactions, reduce gastric fluid, improve coagulation, attenuate autonomic reflexes.

Premedication cautions

Patients may need to complete H&P, answer questions, and sign documents preoperatively.

Midazolam (BZD)

Causes sleepiness, little effect on respiration. Given orally or rectally.

Ketamine

Sedation and analgesia. Can cause post-anesthesia delirium, especially in children.

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Dexmedetomidine

Sedation with decreased post-op pain. Alpha 2 agonist, given IV or intrabuccally.

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Contraindications of depressants

Newborns, elderly, decreased consciousness, severe pulmonary disease, hypovolemia.

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Anticholinergics (atropine) use

Reduce secretions, prevent bradycardia, sometimes antiemetic.

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Post-op nausea/vomiting meds

Opioids, nitrous oxide, anticholinesterases.

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Consequences of postop nausea

Aspiration, increased pressure on sutures, elevated cranial pressure.

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Measures to prevent aspiration

H2 blockers, gastropropulsives, non-particulate antacids, rapid sequence intubation.

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Nondepolarizing muscle relaxants

Rocuronium, atracurium, cisatracurium, pancuronium, etc.

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Use of muscle relaxants

Facilitate intubation, muscle relaxation for surgery, ECT, hypothermia, prevent ventilator dyssynchrony.

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Reversal of NMB

Dramatic increase in acetylcholine can cause muscarinic overdose.

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Signs of NMB termination

Head/leg lift, grip strength, nerve stimulator (train of four).

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Train of four

Stimulate nerve 4 times; 4/4 twitches means 70-75% receptors blocked.

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Depolarizing adverse effects

Succinylcholine causes myalgias, increased K+, malignant hyperthermia, dysrhythmias.

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Hyperkalemia risk factors

Burn, crush, bedbound, stroke, demyelination – K+ release.

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Pre-op evaluation elements

Allergies, cardiac/pulmonary history, meds.

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Pre-op physical exams

Vitals, heart, lungs, airway, OSA eval, fluid status.

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Pre-op labs and testing

Avoid tests that won't change management.

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Indications for coagulation studies

Excessive bleeding, liver disease, malnutrition, anticoagulants.

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Indications for CXR pre-op

COPD, lung operation, smoker with symptoms.

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Indications for EKG pre-op

Heart disease, arrhythmias, CAD risk, high-risk surgeries.

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Indications for electrolytes pre-op

Diabetes, kidney disease, psych pt on lithium, diuretics.

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Indications for CBC pre-op

Anemia, immune deficit, renal failure are indicators.

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Pregnancy test pre-op

Women of childbearing age need the test

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ASA physical status

Does NOT tell you a risk. Just classifies the group of pts and their physical status.

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ASA 2

Pts with asthma, but under control.

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Clearance responsibility

The surgeon clears for surgery in all cases needing a procedure.

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Steroid use management

Give 100mg IV hydrocortisone pre-anesthesia + 100mg every 8 hours.

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Naltrexone treatment

Stop the drug 3 days prior to the anticipated procedure.

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Additional O2 use

Everyone gets sedation and additional O2 in anesthesia.

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Why give supplemental oxygen?

B/c there is is diminished response to hypoxia, and hypercarbia

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Upper airway management

Relieve the obstruction.

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Head tilt/chin lift

Airway blockage occurs.

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Airway obstruction

Rocking boat movement

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CO2 detection

The end point measurement.

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Study Notes

Premedication Goals

  • Modern premedication aims to relieve anxiety using BZDs (-zolams).
  • Goals include providing sedation and analgesia
  • Prevent nausea and vomiting
  • Prevent allergic reactions
  • Reduce gastric fluid volume and acidity
  • Improve coagulation
  • Attenuate autonomic reflexes
  • Caution required due to patients frequently being seen on the day of their surgery needing preoperative H&Ps.
  • Patients may need to answer questions and sign documents preoperatively.
  • Patients may wish to ask questions preoperatively.

Early Sedation

  • Midazolam (BZD --> GABAa) can be administered orally or rectally
  • Midazolam has little effect on respiration when given with Tylenol
  • Midazolam causes sleepiness for a long period afterward
  • Ketamine (CCB/NMDA ant) can be administered orally or IM
  • Ketamine causes sedation and analgesia
  • Ketamine may cause post-anesthesia delirium, especially in children
  • Ketamine results in prolonged emergence
  • Dexmedetomidine is an Alpha 2 agonist and can be administered IV or intrabuccally (pediatrics)
  • Dexmedetomidine provides SA and decreases post-op pain

Pre-Op Ketamine

  • Ketamine, when given orally or IM, provides sedation and analgesia, dose-dependent
  • Use of Ketamine is associated with postanesthesia delirium, less common in children
  • Ketamine may prolong emergence
  • Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic, sedative, analgesic, and antidepressant
  • Ketamine has a rapid onset when administered IV/IM
  • Ketamine causes an indirect catecholamine release and less drop in BP compared to propofol
  • Ketamine is a direct cardiac depressant and synergistic with GABA agonists
  • Ketamine is useful in pediatric and trauma/hypovolemic cases and for postop pain control via infusion
  • Ketamine maintains airway reflexes

Contraindications of Depressant Meds

  • Relative contraindications for depressant pre-meds include newborns (<1 year), elderly, and decreased level of consciousness
  • Severe pulmonary disease/obstructive sleep apnea and hypovolemia also act as contraindications

Anticholinergics (Atropine)

  • Anticholinergics, like atropine, dry secretions, which is not as important anymore
  • They prevent bradycardia, critical in newborns/infants, adults w/ asymptomatic bradycardia, and also act as an antiemetic.

Post-Op Nausea and Vomiting

  • PONV (post-operative nausea & vomiting) is caused by anesthetic factors such as opioids, especially postoperatively and nitrous oxide
  • PONV is also caused by anticholinesterases when reversing neuromuscular blockade (neostigmine)
  • Adverse consequences of PONV include tension on abdominal/thoracic sutures and aspiration
  • Increased venous back pressure in the head and neck
  • Increase intra-cranial & ocular pressure

Preventing Aspiration

  • Aspiration prophylaxis includes H2 blockers to decrease gastric acid production and gastropropulsive agents (metoclopramide)
  • Gastropropulsive agents are not used for GI obstruction
  • Non-particulate antacids like BicitraⓇ or Sodium Citrate buffer can be used
  • Rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure is effective in emergency situations

Muscle Relaxants

  • There are two types of neuromuscular blockers, depolarizing and nondepolarizing

Non-Depolarizing Muscle Relaxants

  • Rocuronium, atracurium, cisatracurium, pancuronium, tubocurarine, mivacurium, doxacuriu are examples of nondepolarizing relaxants

Clinical Use of Muscle Relaxants

  • Muscle relaxants are used clinically to facilitate tracheal intubation by paralyzing pharyngeal muscles to prevent bucking/coughing
  • They are also used to provide muscle relaxation for surgery
  • Muscle relaxants are used during ECT(electric shock therapy) because it causes violent seizures w/ limb movement
  • They are useful in therapeutic hypothermia to stop muscles from shivering
  • Muscle relaxants prevents patient-ventilator dyssynchrony by stopping patients from fighting the ventilator

Reversal of Muscle Relaxation

  • Reversal of NMB (neuromuscular blockade)
  • The dramatic increase in acetycholine would also cause an overdose at the muscarinic receptors
  • Therefore reversal agents need to be given in combination w/ a muscarinic antagonist
  • Termination sings include:
    • Head lift or leg lift for 15 sec
    • Grip strength test (ask to grab finger and squeeze)
    • Nerve stimulator (most objective test)
    • Train of four

Train of Four

  • Stimulate a nerve 4 times to test muscle response/twitch with an electrode at thumb
  • If 4/4 responses, 70-75% receptors blocked, this does not guarantee complete recovery
  • 8% pts in the recovery room have residual blockade and need to monitor

Muscle Relaxants and Tachydysrhythmias

  • There are two types of muscle relaxants: depolarizing and nondepolarizing

Depolarizing Muscle Relaxants

  • The only example in clinical use is succinylcholine (sux)
  • Succinylcholine's adverse effects include myalgias from fasciculation
  • Succinylcholine may cause transient increase in serum K+,trigger malignant hyperthermia, tachydysrhythmias, and bradycardia, especially in children
  • Hyperkalemia RF can stop the heart and cause dysrhythmias

Hyperkalemia and Muscle Injury

  • Muscle injury such as burn, trauma, bedbound pt, myopathies, rhabdomyolysis causes K+ release from muscle
  • Denervation of muscles: UMN injury (stroke), demyelinating lesion, denervation injury, head trauma, polyneuropathies, encephalopathy, SC injury

Pre-Op Evaluation Protocols

  • Elements of evaluation include medical history allergies, cardiac history, pulmonary history, hematologic Hx, renal Hx, prior anesthesia/surgery, meds, supplements
  • Physical exams such as vitals, heart, lungs, airway, OSA eval, fluid status (BP dec w/ less fluid), NM stability
  • History like Planned procedure, family history, NPO, acute changes
  • Avoid tests that won't change management, false positives lead to unnecessary further testing and procedures.

Tests Driven by H&P

  • Only conduct tests driven by the H&P
  • Hx of excessive bleeding or known coagulation disorder, liver disease, malnutrition / vit K deficiency, on anticoagulants will indicate coagulation studies
  • A symptomatic patient with no hx will not require coagulation studies
  • COPD, Lung Operation, Smoker + symptoms (sputum, coughing, wheezing) will indicate CXR
  • An asymptomatic patient will not require CXR with age being a non factor.

Testing For EKG

  • Heart disease, Arrhythmias or symptoms, risk factors for CAD, high-risk surgery (fluid shifts), including liver transplant, involving pancreas, splenectomy, long procedures, including neurosurgery, spinal surgery requires EKG
  • Testing should be done if patient is asymptomatic, if age does not matter, and if patient is undergoing low-risk surgery
  • Diabetes, Kidney disease, Psych pt (on lithium), contrast use (for creatinine), Pt on medications that affect kidney function, history of anemia, bleeding, immune deficit, Hx of chemo/radiation, chronic renal failure, estimated blood loss > 500 cc, Hx of bleeding/bruising requires electrolyte testing
  • Testing should be done if EBL > 500 cc and withheld id EBL < 500 cc

Testing For Pregnancy

  • Women of childbearing age, patient uncertain of the status, irregular menstrual hx, Pt requests all require pregnancy test
  • Pregnancy testing is refused if patient refuses tests or screening
  • Minimally invasive surgeries (cataracts, knee arthroscopy, etc.) usually requires no pre-op testing in absence of specific indications, short cases w/ no fluid shifts, abnormal tests do not necessarily cancel the case as these surgeries have minimal risk

ASA Classification and Asthma

  • ASA physical status (PS) classification does not tell you a risk, just compares the group of patients
  • Classifies physical status is designed as a simple description of the patient's condition useful for comparing groups of patients in studies and only deals w/ physical status
  • ASA classification does NOT include the procedure you're doing.
  • ASA Class 1: A normal healthy patient.
  • ASA Class 2: Pt with mild systemic disease.
  • ASA Class 3: Pt with severe systemic disease (e.g., end organ damage).
  • ASA Class 4: Pt with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life(uremia, Stroke,..)
  • ASA Class 5: Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the surgery.
  • ASA Class 6: Patient pronounced dead by neurological criteria (brain dead) going for organ harvest.
  • Emergency surgery: save life or limb
  • ASA 2 = pts w/ asthma but under control
  • ASA 3 = not under control.
  • ASA 4 = constant threat to life
  • ASA 5 = My patient is dying!!
  • If it's a heart failure, move 3 → 4

Pre-Op Clearance

  • The surgeon has final responsibility for pre-op clearance for surgery.
  • Only the surgeon clears for surgery; only an anesthesiologist clears for anesthesia.

Managing Steroid Use

  • Patients who have had steroids within the past few months may have impaired adrenal function.
  • Usually receive 100mg IV hydrocortisone pre-anesthesia + 100mg every 8 hours, at risk of acute Addisonian crisis w/ refractory hypotension.
  • If pt has steroid use longer than 2 weeks in the past few years body cannot put proper cortisol, give supplement (hydrocortisone)

Management of Pre-Op Meds

  • Problematic pre-op medications include diabetic medications
  • For Insulin, administer one half the usual dose in the AM
  • For oral hypoglycemic agents (metformin), hold because usually hyperglycemic the day of surgery (stress increased)
  • For GLP-1 drugs Semaglutide (Ozempic; Wegovy), Tirzepatide (Mounjaro; Zepbound), Dulaglutide (Trulicity) and Liraglutide (Victoza), hold these drugs.
  • SGLT-2 drugs Empagliflozin (Jardiance) Dapagliflozin (farxiga) stop these drugs 3 to 4 days prior to the procedure
  • ACEIs (-pril) and ARBs (-sartan) Antihypertensives are okay preop except for ACEIs and ARBs
  • Medications for opioid use disorder, Naltrexone, stop 3 days prior to surgery if opioid analgesics are anticipated
  • Arrangements should be made for patients on methadone maintenance
  • MAO inhibitors (also tramadol and St John's Wort)
  • Psychiatric medications are okay except for MAOIs, SSRIs, ketamine, etc. can usually be continued.
  • Anticoagulants and antiplatelet medications Big issue such as NOACs, Coumadin, Aspirin, NSAIDs, etc.

Supplemental Oxygen

  • Supplemental oxygen is given because sedation (and anesthesia) reduce ventilation.
    • Ventilation is reduced due to:
      • Diminished response to hypoxia
      • Diminished response to hypercarbia
  • Reduced muscle tone
    • Reduces tidal volume
    • Possible obstruction
  • Everyone who gets sedation/anesthesia gets supplemental O2 pre and post (recovery room)

Supplemental Oxygen Devices

  • Supplemental Oxygen include a nasal cannula
  • High-Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNC)
  • Simple mask, Venturi mask and a non-rebreather mask
  • Pros of using this device:
    • All of these devices can be used in a conscious/responsive patient and are Simple to use, no special expertise is required
  • Cons of using these devices:
    • None of these devices significantly increase tidal volume, actively remove CO2, or treat obstruction.

Upper Airway Obstruction

  • Relieve the obstruction
  • Chin lift → head tilt pull tongue forward away from the throat
  • Head tilt lines up oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes creates straight path for airflow
  • Jaw thrust to avoid extending cervical spine, pulls tongue and soft tissue forward to open pharynx and relieve obstruction

Successful Endotracheal Intubation

  • Endotracheal Tube contains Cuff, Murphy's Eye, Tube, Pilot balloon, Connector, Radiopaque Line, Depth Markings.
  • Checking for Placement of ETT (endotracheal tube) you should look for things like:
    • Bilateral breath sounds (maybe); Absence of sounds in stomach (maybe) Chest wall movement (maybe)
    • Vapor in ETT (maybe) Expired CO2 (Winner!) – gold standard
    • Indications for the evaluation of upper airway obstruction

Evaluating Upper Airway Obstruction

  • Signs of obstructions include:
    • Rocking boat movement
    • Jaw thrust and chin lift.
    • Accessory muscles starts to work harder
    • The clavicle becomes prominent w/ inspiration
    • Rocking chest motion (chest falls + abd rises opposite of normal) Diaphragm descends maximally → push abd contents up (abd rises)
    • Negative pressure w/o air coming into the chest cavity (chest falls)
    • Faint/absent breath sounds, which indicate that this is the clearest sign in adult
    • Nasal flaring and cyanosis (late and unreliable sign) indicate O2 saturation < 85%

Ambu Bag

  • Self-inflating bag is used
  • Bag-mask ventilation:
    • is imperative
    • Important to have a proper mask seal ; Do not press too hard on the patient's face
    • Do not fight the patient's ventilation
  • Use once airway established from methods, such as:
    • Mask (attach to face)
    • Valve (create pressure)
    • Self-inflating bag (O2 reservoir)
    • Tubing (connect to O2 source)

Signs of Difficult Airway

  • Difficulties during intubation involve:
    • Short mento-hyoid or mento-thyroid distance
    • Prominent maxilla -Immobility of TMJs
    • Inability to fully open mouth -Long overriding incisors
    • Limitations of neck extension/flexion, and a thick neck.
      • Can't intubate - can't ventilate FONA – Front of Neck Airway which includes Cricothyrotomy and Tracheostomy / Tracheotomy -Mallampati score describes/predicts intubation difficulty during pre-op

Mallampati Score

  • Class 1: see everything; see vocal cord 3: see the hood of epiglottis 4: cannot see epiglottis

Rapid Sequence Induction

  • Used if intubation is unsuccessful
  • Involves Preoxygenation, Hypnosis/sedation and Muscle relaxant, Laryngoscopy, Intubation
  • Higher failure rate than normal induction at risk for aspiration
    • Common Indications (at risk for aspiration) includes a Pregnant , Obese, Recently eaten fatty meal,Trauma pt Delayed gastric emptying (Bowel obstruction,Acute abd,Narcotic usage), Pt who swallowed gastrograffin (constant), Pt w/ bleeding in mouth , Increased complications compared to regular intubation & higher rate of failure

Aspiration

  • The main risk is in b/w induction + securing the airway Increase risk w/ rapid intubation
  • Aspiration pneumonia Particulate aspiration is the worst (take non-particulate antacids to decrease risk); , Interstitial edema Intra-alveolar hemorrhage Atelectasis Increase airway resistance Hypoxia
  • Common Prevention includes: H2 blocker to decrease the production of gastric acid Gastropropulsive agent and Non-particulate antacid
  • Rapid sequence induction w/ cricoid pressure for emergency situations

Cardiovascular Complications

  • Pulmonary complications include : Post-op hypoventilation Post-op ciliary dysfunction

Atelectasis

  • Worsened V/Q mismatch & shunt post-op mobilize the patient ,and use an incentive spirometer
  • Cardiac/cardiovascular complications involve : Hypotension Hypertension Arrhythmias ,Perioperative myocardial infarction Myocardial depression Significant fluid shift: Thrombo-embolic phenomena

Risk Factors

  • Pts with higher risk for aspiration Bronchospasm Anesthesia Pregnant women(from the start of the second trimester) Obese patients have recently eaten (esp. Meals high in fat)Patients have recently swallowed gastrograffin
  • Patients that have W/ delayed gastric emptying or had Bleeding into the mouth, oropharynx patients
  • Bronchospasm have a higher risk of having these complications ;Patients may have current or recent respiratory tract infection hyperactive airway

Hypotension During General Anesthesia

  • Hypotension during anesthesia is usually due to decreased cardiac output, reduced systemic vascular resistance hypotension. Chronic hypotension can cause labile BP during case, Anaphylaxis hypotension and Rapid fluid shift causes hypotension
  • Post op hypoventilation has close association with Pulmonary complications and has direct effect on "splinting" pain*
  • Closing capacity increase in children (decrease ventilation for both)

Closing Capacity

  • Closing capacity increase in children and elderly compared to FRC functional residual capacity They have increased atelectasis increase problems with ventilation
  • Decrease problems with ventilation= Airway closes early that can worsen post atelectasis and prolong very time they inhale —> increase problems w/ ventilation

Respiration

  • Dec resp muscles, strength and Increased wall compliance
  • Dec FRC, Dec tidal volume and Minute ventilation .Increases RR to compensate
  • Closing volume increased
  • Higher high risk of hypoxemia and Smaller O2 reserve and rapid depletion

Impaired diaphragm

  • Impaired diaphragm abdomen contents. Airway impairment and rapid depeletion of oxygen

Cardiac Output

  • Heart muscle is child Heart muscle is child cardiac output stroke . Neonate need may require compression from neonatals

Hemocrat Levels

  • Separation that has approx and is not out
  • Neonatales have high decrease by Neonatales are deficient and volume for
  1. blood high

Separation and Blood Volume

  • Sepertation of blood for bleeding . Neonatales have and are deficient in

Neonatoles Blood Voulme

Blood volume in and decese in bleeding for

Hypothermia in Infants

  • High body surface area relative to mass significantly increases heat loss Children get cold quickly increase cardiac demand ) Low subcutaneous fat Underdeveloped muscle . Primary mechanisms to combat hypothermia are peripheral vasoconstriction and Infants
  • Infant has high BSA high heat loss combat hypothermia Shrinking is not effective management of small children – Clear liquids

Management

  • Clear Liquids Clear to hours preop heavy meal . massive what to

Management

  • Is give unit to the and later is related acute , which may occur

Separation and Transfusion

  • Separational for
  • Anoxia, OEE are

Tali

  • Tranlson related to acute lung injury . Can be has

Risk Factor

  • CPSp has highy

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