Premedication and Early Sedation

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Questions and Answers

In contemporary anesthetic practice, which of the following best encapsulates the primary objective of premedication in adult patients undergoing elective surgical procedures?

  • Primarily focused on achieving deep sedation to facilitate smooth induction and minimize hemodynamic instability.
  • A multimodal approach encompassing anxiolysis, analgesia, and mitigation of perioperative risks such as aspiration and emesis. (correct)
  • Routine administration of anticholinergics to mitigate muscarinic side effects of neuromuscular blockade reversal agents.
  • Exclusive reliance on benzodiazepines to induce profound amnesia and eliminate intraoperative awareness.

Considering the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles of sedative agents used in pre-anesthetic medication, which statement most accurately differentiates midazolam from ketamine when administered via the oral or intramuscular route?

  • Ketamine's analgesic properties are consistently more pronounced and predictable than midazolam's sedative effects, particularly in pediatric populations.
  • Ketamine, in contrast to midazolam, is contraindicated in patients with elevated intracranial pressure due to its potential to exacerbate cerebral vasodilation.
  • Midazolam, unlike ketamine, exhibits a negligible impact on respiratory drive, rendering it safer for pre-operative sedation in patients with compromised respiratory function. (correct)
  • The incidence of post-anesthesia delirium is substantially higher with midazolam compared to ketamine, especially in pediatric patients.

Within the context of ketamine's pre-anesthetic applications, particularly in pediatric anesthesia, which of the following pharmacological attributes is LEAST consistent with its clinical utility and safety profile?

  • Dissociative anesthesia, potentially beneficial in procedures requiring patient immobility without profound respiratory depression.
  • Dose-dependent sedation and analgesia, allowing for tailored anesthetic depth based on clinical needs.
  • Consistent reduction in blood pressure compared to propofol, advantageous in hypotensive trauma scenarios. (correct)
  • Indirect release of catecholamines, contributing to hemodynamic stability in hypovolemic patients.

In evaluating contraindications for pre-anesthetic depressant medications, which of the following patient comorbidities represents the MOST ABSOLUTE contraindication, necessitating rigorous risk-benefit assessment and potential alternative anesthetic strategies?

<p>Severe pulmonary disease with baseline hypercapnia and chronic respiratory failure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the historical rationale for pre-operative anticholinergic administration, which of the following justifications remains clinically relevant in contemporary anesthetic practice, particularly in the context of modern anesthetic agents and techniques?

<p>Systematic administration to mitigate bradycardia, especially in pediatric patients and adults with asymptomatic bradycardia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is a multifactorial complication in anesthesia. Which of the following anesthetic factors is considered the MOST SIGNIFICANT independent predictor of PONV in patients undergoing general anesthesia?

<p>Post-operative opioid administration for analgesia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among the adverse sequelae of post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV), which of the following represents the MOST CRITICAL immediate physiological threat, particularly in patients with recent surgical incisions or compromised respiratory mechanics?

<p>Aspiration of gastric contents into the pulmonary system, potentially precipitating aspiration pneumonitis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of aspiration prophylaxis, which of the following interventions is considered the MOST EFFECTIVE and evidence-based strategy for mitigating the risk of aspiration pneumonitis in patients undergoing elective surgical procedures?

<p>Pre-operative fasting guidelines adhering to NPO (nil per os) status for solids and clear liquids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Differentiating between depolarizing and non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents, which of the following statements accurately characterizes a key distinction in their mechanism of action at the neuromuscular junction?

<p>Depolarizing agents initially cause muscle fasciculations followed by flaccid paralysis, a sequence not observed with non-depolarizing agents. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In clinical anesthesia, muscle relaxants are utilized for various indications. Which of the following scenarios represents the MOST compelling and primary indication for the use of neuromuscular blocking agents during general anesthesia?

<p>Facilitation of endotracheal intubation by inducing paralysis of pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding the reversal of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade (NMB), which of the following pharmacological principles underpins the mechanism of action of reversal agents like neostigmine or edrophonium?

<p>Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, leading to increased acetylcholine concentration in the synaptic cleft, overcoming residual NMB. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'Train-of-Four' (TOF) stimulation is a quantitative method for assessing neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following interpretations of a TOF response is MOST clinically relevant in determining adequate recovery from non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade?

<p>Four out of four twitches (4/4) with a TOF ratio of &gt;0.9, indicating clinically acceptable recovery of neuromuscular function. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Succinylcholine, a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, is associated with a range of adverse effects. Which of the following represents the MOST concerning and potentially life-threatening adverse effect directly linked to its depolarizing mechanism?

<p>Transient increase in serum potassium (K+) levels, particularly in susceptible patient populations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients with hyperkalemia risk factors undergoing general anesthesia, which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is ABSOLUTELY contraindicated due to its potential to exacerbate hyperkalemia via potassium release?

<p>Succinylcholine, a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pre-operative patient evaluation protocols are essential for anesthetic safety. Which of the following elements is considered the MOST CRITICAL component of the pre-anesthetic medical history, directly impacting anesthetic planning and risk stratification?

<p>Thorough review of systems, specifically focusing on allergies, cardiac, pulmonary, and hematologic history. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding pre-operative laboratory testing, which of the following principles should guide the judicious ordering of tests in otherwise healthy patients undergoing elective surgery?

<p>Employing a risk-based approach, ordering tests only when clinically indicated by patient history, physical examination, and planned surgical procedure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status classification system is a widely used tool in perioperative risk assessment. Which of the following BEST describes the PRIMARY purpose and utility of the ASA PS classification?

<p>To categorize patients based on their pre-existing comorbidities, facilitating communication and risk stratification among clinicians. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of pre-operative medical clearance, particularly when discrepancies arise between surgical and anesthesia perspectives, who ultimately bears the final responsibility for ensuring appropriate pre-operative evaluation and optimization for surgery?

<p>The surgeon, as the primary physician responsible for the surgical procedure and overall patient care. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For patients on chronic steroid therapy undergoing elective surgery, which of the following perioperative steroid management strategies is considered the MOST appropriate to mitigate the risk of acute adrenal insufficiency?

<p>Stress-dose steroid supplementation with intravenous hydrocortisone administered pre-operatively and continued post-operatively. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing pre-operative medications for diabetic patients, which of the following recommendations is MOST accurate concerning the perioperative management of oral hypoglycemic agents, specifically metformin?

<p>Hold metformin on the day of surgery and resume post-operatively once oral intake is tolerated. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Supplemental oxygen administration is a routine practice in sedated patients. Which of the following physiological rationales BEST justifies the routine use of supplemental oxygen during procedural sedation and general anesthesia?

<p>To mitigate hypoxemia resulting from sedation-induced respiratory depression and reduced muscle tone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing upper airway obstruction in an unconscious patient, which of the following initial maneuvers is considered the MOST fundamental and immediately effective in restoring airway patency?

<p>Head tilt-chin lift maneuver to relieve tongue obstruction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When confirming successful endotracheal intubation, which of the following monitoring modalities is considered the GOLD STANDARD for verifying tracheal tube placement in adults and children?

<p>Continuous waveform capnography demonstrating sustained exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) detection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the assessment of upper airway obstruction, which of the following clinical signs is considered the MOST RELIABLE and earliest indicator of significant respiratory compromise, particularly in the context of evolving airway obstruction?

<p>Rocking chest motion (paradoxical breathing), indicative of diaphragmatic fatigue. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During bag-mask ventilation, effective technique is paramount. Which of the following represents the MOST CRITICAL caveat to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent complications associated with bag-mask ventilation?

<p>Maintaining a tight mask seal on the patient's face to prevent air leak and ensure positive pressure ventilation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing for difficult intubation, which of the following anatomical features is considered the MOST predictive of potential laryngoscopic challenges and intubation difficulty based on established airway assessment scores?

<p>Mallampati score Class III or IV, suggesting limited oropharyngeal visualization. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the 'Can't Intubate, Can't Ventilate' (CICV) scenario, which of the following interventions represents the MOST IMMEDIATE and life-saving definitive airway management strategy to secure oxygenation and ventilation?

<p>Performance of a Front-of-Neck Access (FONA), such as cricothyrotomy or tracheostomy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is employed in patients at high risk of aspiration. Which of the following pharmacological components of RSI is MOST crucial for minimizing the risk of aspiration during endotracheal intubation?

<p>Administration of a rapid-onset, short-acting neuromuscular blocking agent to achieve prompt paralysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aspiration pneumonitis is a severe complication of aspiration. Which of the following types of aspirated material is associated with the WORST prognosis and highest mortality rate due to its inherent characteristics and sequelae?

<p>Aspiration of fecal material, often seen in bowel obstruction scenarios. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In preventing aspiration pneumonitis, which of the following pharmacological interventions is MOST effective in reducing the severity of lung injury if aspiration occurs, by modifying the characteristics of gastric contents?

<p>Administration of non-particulate antacids, such as sodium citrate, to increase gastric pH. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atelectasis is a common pulmonary complication following general anesthesia. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for the development of post-operative atelectasis and subsequent ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch?

<p>Post-operative hypoventilation and decreased tidal volumes causing alveolar collapse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Closing capacity, a physiological parameter relevant to pulmonary function, is altered in certain patient populations. In which of the following groups is closing capacity MOST significantly increased relative to functional residual capacity (FRC), predisposing them to airway closure and atelectasis?

<p>Morbidly obese individuals and pregnant women in the third trimester. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hypotension is a frequent occurrence during general anesthesia. Which of the following mechanisms is the MOST COMMON underlying cause of hypotension induced by general anesthetic agents?

<p>Systemic vasodilation and reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Post-operative hypoventilation is a significant concern in the recovery period. Which of the following factors contributes MOST significantly to post-operative hypoventilation and respiratory depression in patients recovering from general anesthesia?

<p>Effects of residual anesthetic agents, particularly opioids, causing respiratory depression. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pediatric anesthesia, cardiac output physiology differs from that in adults. Which of the following statements accurately reflects a key physiological difference in cardiac output regulation in small children compared to adults?

<p>Pediatric myocardium is less compliant and stiffer, limiting stroke volume augmentation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Neonatal hematocrit levels differ significantly from adult values and undergo physiological changes post-birth. Which of the following statements BEST describes the typical hematocrit trajectory in healthy term neonates in the first few months of life?

<p>Hematocrit physiologically decreases from birth levels, reaching adult-like levels by approximately 3 months of age. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Infants are particularly susceptible to hypothermia. Which of the following physiological features in neonates and infants contributes MOST significantly to their increased heat loss and vulnerability to hypothermia?

<p>Higher ratio of body surface area to mass, promoting greater heat dissipation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pre-operative fasting guidelines in pediatric anesthesia are crucial for patient safety. Which of the following clear liquids is considered acceptable for consumption up to 2 hours prior to elective surgery in children, according to current guidelines?

<p>Clear liquids including apple juice, clear broth, and electrolyte solutions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In massive transfusion protocols for trauma patients, current evidence-based practice emphasizes a balanced resuscitation approach. Which of the following component ratios is currently recommended as an initial strategy for massive transfusion in actively bleeding trauma patients?

<p>Equal ratios of packed red blood cells, plasma, and platelets (1:1:1 ratio). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is a serious complication of blood transfusion. Which of the following mechanisms is considered the PRIMARY pathophysiological basis for the development of TRALI following blood product transfusion?

<p>Antibody-mediated activation of neutrophils in the pulmonary vasculature, causing endothelial damage and capillary leak. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Several risk factors have been identified for the development of chronic post-surgical pain (CPSP). Which of the following patient-related factors is considered the STRONGEST independent predictor of developing CPSP following surgical procedures?

<p>Pre-operative anxiety, catastrophic thinking, and pre-existing chronic pain conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Shock, irrespective of etiology, is fundamentally defined by a common pathophysiological endpoint. Which of the following BEST describes the unifying definition of shock in the context of cellular physiology and systemic homeostasis?

<p>Inadequate tissue perfusion and cellular oxygen and nutrient deprivation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Acetylcholine receptors are broadly classified into muscarinic and nicotinic subtypes. Which of the following physiological effects is PRIMARILY mediated by muscarinic acetylcholine receptor activation in the context of neuromuscular blockade?

<p>Bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, and increased salivary and bronchial secretions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During pregnancy, physiological changes impact anesthetic management. Which of the following alterations in respiratory physiology is MOST SIGNIFICANT in pregnant patients, influencing airway management and predisposing to rapid desaturation?

<p>Decreased functional residual capacity (FRC) and reduced oxygen reserve. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mild allergic reactions are a potential complication of procedural sedation. Which of the following pharmacological classes is considered the FIRST-LINE treatment for managing mild allergic reactions, such as urticaria and pruritus, during procedural sedation?

<p>H-1 antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) to block histamine effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Among the common causes of anaphylaxis in the perioperative setting, which of the following drug classes is statistically the MOST frequent culprit, accounting for a significant proportion of anaphylactic events?

<p>Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the immediate management of anaphylaxis, which of the following interventions is considered the ABSOLUTE FIRST-LINE pharmacological treatment, critical for reversing the life-threatening hemodynamic and respiratory compromise?

<p>Intramuscular epinephrine administration to counteract vasodilation and bronchospasm. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Neonates, particularly preterm infants, have limited glucose reserves and are prone to hypoglycemia. Which of the following glucose concentrations is typically administered intravenously to neonates to treat hypoglycemia and prevent neurological sequelae?

<p>D10W (10% dextrose in water), commonly used for maintenance and hypoglycemia treatment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Liver function undergoes age-related changes, impacting drug pharmacokinetics in elderly patients. Which of the following hepatic alterations is MOST SIGNIFICANT in elderly patients, leading to altered drug metabolism and prolonged drug effects?

<p>Decreased hepatic mass and reduced functional capacity of hepatocytes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pharmacokinetic changes occur with aging, influencing drug disposition and effects. Which of the following age-related physiological alterations MOST significantly impacts the volume of distribution of water-soluble drugs in elderly patients?

<p>Decreased total body water and reduced lean body mass. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Premedication goal: Anxiety

Relief of anxiety with BZD (-zolams)

Premedication goal: Gastric fluid

Reduction of gastric fluid volume and acidity to minimize the risk of aspiration during surgery.

Midazolam (BZD)

Midazolam causes sleepiness for a long period afterward given orally or rectally.

Ketamine pre-op effects

Ketamine can cause post-anesthesia delirium (less common in children) and prolong emergence.

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Depressants: Contraindications

Newborns less than one year old have relative contraindications to depressant pre-meds.

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Depressants: Elderly Caution

Elderly patients have relative contraindications to depressant pre-meds.

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Anticholinergics Usage

Anticholinergics prevent bradycardia, especially in newborns and infants, and adults with asymptomatic bradycardia.

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Nausea meds: Opioids

Opioids, especially postoperatively, can cause nausea and vomiting.

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Nausea meds: Anticholinesterases

Anticholinesterases, used for reversal of neuromuscular blockade, can induce nausea and vomiting.

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Aspiration: RSI

Rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure is used in emergency situations to prevent aspiration.

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Muscle Relaxant Termination

Head lift or leg lift for 15 seconds indicates termination of muscle relaxant.

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Succinylcholine Effects

Succinylcholine causes adverse effects like myalgias and transient increase in serum K+.

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Pre-Op: History

Planned procedure, family history, NPO status, and acute changes matter.

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Pre-Op tests: Minimal

Minimize tests that won't alter patient management.

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Coagulation Studies: Liver disease

Liver disease is a reason coagulation studies will be needed.

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ASA Classification

ASA classification does not include the procedure you're doing.

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ASA Class 5

ASA Class 5 means My patient is dying!!

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Clearance Check

Surgeon primarily clears for surgery, anesthesiologist clears for anesthesia.

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Managing Steroid Use

Patients on steroids may need stress dose of hydrocortisone.

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ACE Inhibitors before surgery

Stop ACEIs 3-4 days pre-op for elective surgery.

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Why give Supplemental Oxygen?

Sedation and anesthesia reduce ventilation.

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Intubation signs

Check bilateral breath sounds, expired CO2, and chest wall movement.

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Airway obstrucion

Rocking boat movement means upper airway obstruction.

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Chest Falls: adults

Diaphragm descends pushing contents up (abd rises) and chest falls.

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Ambu bag concerns

Poor seal, high pressure and fighting ventilation.

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Rapid Sequence Intubation

Muscle relaxants, sedation, and proper planning.

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Aspiration Injury Prevention

H2 blockers and non-particulate acids.

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Intra-op Complications

Pulmonary, cardiac, volume and shifting.

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High risk aspirations

Pregnant, obese, ate recently with delayed emptying.

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Hypotension during GA

Decreased ventilation or cardiac output.

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Postop Hypoventilation

Opiates and lack of movement postop lead to splinting.

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Increase Atelectasis

Atelectasis means a V/Q mismatch.

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Cardiac system in children

Weaker heart, limited stroke volume.

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Separation of blood

Packed RBCs are a component of blood for massive transfusions.

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Neonates with hypothermia

Neonates lack shivering ability.

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Massive Transfusions

Trauma get plasma and platelets.

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Transfusion Reactions

TRALI and TACO can happen during transfusion.

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Anaphylactic Causes

NMBAs are common during anaphylaxis.

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Glucose Metabolism

Glucose control in diabetes.

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Hepatic functions in elderly

Low albumin in elderly causes higher free concentration.

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Study Notes

Premedication Goals

  • Modern premedication aims to relieve anxiety using Benzodiazepines (-zolams).
  • Further goals include sedation and analgesia.
  • Premedication helps prevent nausea, vomiting, and allergic reactions.
  • It reduces gastric fluid volume and acidity and improves coagulation.
  • Premedication attenuates autonomic reflexes.
  • Be cautious that patients may need to complete preoperative history and physicals or answer questions and sign documents.
  • Some patients may wish to ask questions preoperatively.

Early Sedation

  • Midazolam (BZD --> GABAa) is given orally or rectally and has little effect on respiration when given with Tylenol, but cause sleepiness for a long period afterward.
  • Ketamine (CCB/NMDA antagonist), given orally or IM, provides sedation and analgesia; post-anesthesia delirium is less common in children, but there may be prolonged emergence.
  • Dexmedetomidine (Alpha 2 agonist) given IV or intrabuccally (in pediatrics) decreases post-operative pain.

Ketamine Pre-op

  • Oral or IM ketamine provides sedation and analgesia that is dose-dependent.
  • Ketamine is associated with post-anesthesia delirium, which is less common in children, and may prolong emergence.
  • IV or IM ketamine results in rapid onset, dissociative anesthesia, sedation, and analgesia.
  • Ketamine acts as an antidepressant and is useful in pediatric and trauma/hypovolemic cases.
  • It also provides post-op pain control via infusion and maintains airway reflexes.
  • Ketamine indirectly releases catecholamines, resulting in less drop in blood pressure compared to propofol.
  • Ketamine directly depresses the heart and is synergistic with GABA agonists.

Contraindications of Depressant Meds

  • Relative contraindications include newborns (

ASA Physical Status Classification

  • The ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) status classifies physical status, not risk.
  • It provides a simple description of a patient's condition used for comparing groups in studies.
  • It only deals with physical status and does NOT include the current procedure being undertaken.
  • ASA 2 includes patients who have asthma but it is under control.
  • ASA 3 means their asthma is not under control.
  • ASA 4 indicates a constant threat to life.
  • ASA 5 means the patient is dying.
  • If a patient has heart failure, move them from ASA 3 to ASA 4.

Steroid Use and Surgery

  • Patients who have had steroids recently may have impaired adrenal function.
  • Usually receive 100mg IV hydrocortisone pre-anesthesia and 100mg every 8 hours
  • There is a risk of acute Addisonian crisis with refractory hypotension.
  • If the steroid use was longer than 2 weeks in the past few years, give a hydrocortisone supplement because the body can't produce enough cortisol on its own.

Management of Pre-Op Meds

  • Important to note the following medications
  • For diabetics: give one half usual dose of insulin in AM.
  • Hold oral hypoglycemic agents (metformin) due to increased stress hyperglycemia.
  • Hold GLP-1 drugs, including semaglutide, tirzepatide, dulaglutide, and liraglutide.
  • Stop SLGT-2 drugs 3 to 4 days before the procedure, including empagliflozin and dapagliflozin.
  • ACEIs (-pril) and ARBs (-sartan) should be held, but other antihypertensives are typically okay for pre-op.
  • If opioid analgesics are anticipated post-op, stop naltrexone 3 days prior to surgery.
  • Make arrangements for patients on methadone maintenance.
  • Psychiatric medications are okay except for MAOIs; SSRIs and ketamine can usually be continued.
  • Anticoagulants and antiplatelet medications a big issue, and you must note NOACs, Coumadin, Aspirin, and NSAIDs.

Supplemental Oxygen

  • Supplemental oxygen given to reduce ventilation in sedation and anesthesia.
  • This is done because it can cause a diminished response to hypoxia and hypercarbia.
  • Reduced muscle tone can lead to reduced tidal volume and possible obstruction.
  • Everyone who gets sedation/anesthesia gets supplemental O2, pre and post the procedure.
  • Examples of supplemental oxygen are nasal cannulas, HFNC (High-Flow Nasal Cannula), and masks.
  • All of these devices can be used in a conscious/responsive patient, with no special expertise required.
  • None of these devices significantly increase tidal volume, actively remove CO2, or treat obstruction.

Upper Airway Obstruction

  • Interventions to relieve obstruction
  • The Chin lift pulls the tongue forward away from the throat.
  • The Head tilt lines up the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes, creating a straight path for airflow.
  • Use Jaw thrust if suspect cervical injury, pull tongue and soft tissue forward avoiding cervical spine extending.
  • Oral Airway for unconscious patients without a gag reflex.
  • Nasopharyngeal Airway for conscious patients that have an intact gag reflex.

Endotracheal Intubation

  • After successful endotracheal intubation, check bilateral breath sounds and look for absent sounds in the stomach (maybes).
  • Look for chest wall movement and vapor in the ETT (maybes) and expired CO2, which is gold standard.

Signs of Upper Airway Obstruction

  • Sings of obstructions include Rocking boat movement.
  • Accessory muscles start to work harder and the clavicle becomes prominent with inspiration.
  • Note any Rocking chest motion (chest falls + abd rises → opposite of normal) where Diaphragm descends maximally pushing abd contents up and Negative pressure without air coming into the chest cavity.
  • Nasal flaring can also indicate obstruction.
  • Faint/absent breath sounds can also indicate obstruction.
  • Cyanosis is a late and unreliable and indicates O2 saturation is < 85%.

Ambu Bag

  • To ventilate properly, note these Bag-mask ventilation caveats
  • Proper mask seal is imperative
  • Don't press too hard on the patient's face
  • Don’t fight the patient’s ventilation
  • Once the airway is established from previous interventions, use the ambu bag to attach the mask to the face, valve helps create pressure, The Self-inflating bag supplies the O2 reservoir , and tubing helps you connect to the O2 source

Difficult Airway Signs:

  • The inability to see the airway can be caused by
  • Having a Short mento-hyoid or mento-thyroid distance.
  • Prominent maxilla
  • Immobility of TMJs
  • Inability to fully open mouth
  • Long overriding incisors
  • Limitations of neck extension/flexion
  • Or having a thick neck
  • If you can’t intubate and can’t ventilate use
  • FONA – Front of Neck Airway
  • Cricothyrotomy and a Tracheostomy / Tracheotomy
  • Note the Mallampati score should be noted to see describes/predicts intubation difficulty during pre-op, III or IV indicates difficult intubation.
  • The Cormak Lehane grades describe the view you have when performing direct laryngoscopy to insert a breathing tube and if it is a III or IV then this will be a difficult intubation.
  • Grade 1: see everything
  • Grade 2: see vocal cord
  • Grade 3: see the hood of epiglottis
  • Grade 4: cannot see epiglottis

Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI)

  • Performed if intubation has been unsuccessful.
  • Prepare by providing Preoxygenation and then proceed with Hypnosis/sedation then administer a Muscle relaxant and perform the Laryngoscopy for Intubation.
  • Keep in mind that RSI has a higher rate than conducting normal induction.
  • Consider RSI in any patients at risk for aspiration and include:
  • Those that are Pregnant
  • Obese Patients
  • If the Patient has recently fatty meal
  • Trauma patients
  • Patients with any reasons for Delayed gastric emptying like:
  • Bowel obstruction
  • Acute abd
  • Narcotic usage
  • Patients that has also recent Pt has also swallowed a gastrograffin (constant), or bleeding in mouth, oropharynx, or upper GI.
  • Increases risk if Aspiration injury (prevention)
  • The main risk is with induction securing the airway with RSI and can lead to Aspiration pneumonia.
  • Most serious cause is Aspiration of particulates causing mortality or Fecal aspiration causing the highest mortality (particulate + bacteria) and if not prevented can lead to Alveolar capillary breakdown that will lead to Interstitial edema, Intra-alveolar hemorrhage, Atelectasis leading to and Increased airway resistance and leading to eventual Hypoxia.

Steps to Prevent Aspiration

  • Administer and use a H2 blocker to decrease the production of gastric acid in addition to a Gastropropulsive agent (metoclopramide) (avoid using of course if GI obstruction is present).
  • Use an antacid ( Non-particulate) comprised of : BicitraⓇ or Sodium Citrate buffer during emergency situations.
  • Use a Rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure

Cardiovascular Complications and Prevention

  • These are a direct result of general anesthesia and commonly lead to Atelectasis. In order to prevent hypoventilation a few things you can do is be aware of:
  • Worsend V/Q mismatches and is more common for shunt post-op, prevent /treat from this is to implement and mobilize patient and teach them how to use an incentive spirometer
  • Other signs include cardiac issues like Hypo/Hypertension and Arrhythmias or Perioperative myocardial infarction and or lastly Thrombo-embolic phenomena or significant fluid shifts.

At-Risk Aspiration and Bronchospasm Patients

  • Pregnant women from the second semester.
  • Obese Individuals
  • Pts who have recently eaten (esp. Meals high in fat)
  • Pts that have swallowed Gastrograffin
  • Pts w/ delayed gastric emptying (bowel obstruction, acute abdomen, ileus, narcotic use, etc.)
  • Pts that are Trauma patients or have Bleeding into the mouth, oropharynx, or upper Gl tract.

At-Risk Bronchospasm Patients

  • Pts that are known to have Asthma or COPD, or have a History of smoking and/or if they have a resent/concurrent Resp Infections.
  • You will see an inflamed, hyperreactive airway/environment caused by these cases.

Anesthesia-Induced Hypotension

  • Primarily is caused by dec'd Cardiac output (CO)+Systemic vasular resistance (SVR), but can also come from Hypovolemia .
  • Chronic hypotension can cause labile BP. The same can be said if an anaphalaxis and fluid shift happens as well as Cardiac.
  • MI-> low BP Rapid fluid shift -> low BP

Post op hypoventilation

  • Hypoventilation is defined as:
  • Related to meds: opiates, NMB (decrease ventilation)
  • Relate to pain: pt doesn’t wanna breath/ “splinting” (decrease breathing hypoventilation) Very common - see in the recovery room (give nasal cannula)

Closing Capacity Note

  • Closing capacity increase in children (60) compared to FRC functional residual capacity which mean every time they inhale -> airway closes causing Increased atelectasis and increased V/Q mismatch that worsens post-op atelectasis, leading to problems during ventilation.
  • This leads to patients having to put in more effort into inhalation known as their Resp Muscles. This in turn then Dec their Resp strength (inc wall compliance plus less recoil, no pump handle movement all due to abdominal contents that are hindering any chest movements which lead to dec’d Min ventilation, in return inc RR compensation that then does Dec closing volume- this leads to air trapping that worsens V/Q mismatch of gases that is ultimately caused by atalectasis)

Cardiac and Cardiac Functions

  • Cardiac muscle in children is known to be weaker that is resistant to venous return cause of heart muscle
  • Limited stroke volume is cause of 2 things
  • Cant increase SV response to demands cause heart depend on Heart Rate Bradycardia -> low CO due to < 60 beats Hypoxia is big demand for babies . 3.Hemocrat levels a.Separation of blood components i. Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs)
  1. 250-350 ml Hgb increases approx. 1 gm.dl
  • Hct increases approx. 3 pt who is not bleeding out Plasma (FFP)
  • 200-300 ml Plasma protein
  • Many clotting factors Cryoprecipitate i. 10-20 ml Fibrinogen, factors VIII and XIII
  • Platelets Usually comes as a pool from 5 or 6 units Heart increase is significant for new borne

Pre Op for Pediatric patients on certain medication

  • Fasting, give clear fluids that ensure clear juice and Gatorade to ensure clear
  • Give the pre Op
  • 4 Breast Milk and Infant
  • Normal Fasting Schedule for all of those
  • Breast Milk and Infant should be light given and have less fats

Notes on Trauma

  • Make note is Mass Transfusions that might cause bleeding- here’s what to do
  • Give one unit FFP for every 4 units of PRBC
  • Give red cells plasma.

Tips for Infants from Transfusion

  • Try to maintain constant body temperature
  • Avoid letting body drop as heat loss increases
  • Hypoxia due to heat lost cause cardio demand
  • Decrease in the the amount of subcutaneous fat
  • Impaired body to ability to shiver due muscle growth cause infants use brown fats

Trauma

  • One unit for every four units of PRBC and platelets a ratio of 1:1:1:Initial testing with viscoelastic tech and a more modern approach

Notes for Transfusions

  • Check for Transfusion Reaction which affects lung injury
  • TRAIL transfusion acute lung
  • Leadin cause death when that usually occurs because of RCB increase with neutrophils

Risk Factors for Chronic Pain

  • Preoperative anxiety can cause patient to feel pain
  • Depression
  • severe acute postoperative pain lasting up to 5 days
  • Long inference with activities
  • Smoking or substance use
  • Lack of proper support

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