1060 Unit 1 - Intro to Blood Banking
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Questions and Answers

Which method allows for the storage of platelets for up to 2 years?

  • Adding platelet substitutes
  • Freezing with synthetic media
  • Lyophilization
  • Cryopreservation using DMSO (correct)

What is the purpose of additive solutions in platelet preservation?

  • To reduce costs associated with platelet transfusion
  • To increase the shelf life of platelets (correct)
  • To enhance platelet function during storage
  • To artificially recreate the blood plasma environment

Which process is NOT mentioned as a current trend in platelet preservation research?

  • Reducing pathogen levels in platelet units
  • Storing platelets at room temperature (correct)
  • Improving platelet additive solutions
  • Platelet substitutes through various methods

What is one of the methods proposed for storing platelets at 1°C to 6°C?

<p>Integrating synthetic media (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique is specifically associated with the lyophilization of platelets?

<p>Freeze-drying of trehalose-loaded platelets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of adding glycerol to RBCs before freezing?

<p>To serve as a cryoprotectant for long-term storage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What temperature is recommended for storing frozen RBCs?

<p>-65°C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process must be performed prior to the transfusion of frozen RBCs?

<p>Deglycerolization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which compound's levels are restored during the rejuvenation of RBCs?

<p>ATP and 2,3-DPG (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a research focus in RBC preparation and preservation?

<p>Enhancing platelet activation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the potential benefits of RBC substitutes?

<p>They can eliminate problems associated with blood transfusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical aspect of managing platelet inventory annually in the U.S.?

<p>Improving platelet preservation methods (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are tissue-engineered RBCs produced?

<p>By culturing stem cells with specific cytokines (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lipid types are found in the external layer of the RBC membrane?

<p>Glycolipids and choline phospholipids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the RBC when ATP is lost?

<p>Decreased membrane deformability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following ions is actively pumped out of the RBC?

<p>Ca^2+ (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What metabolic pathway primarily produces ATP in RBCs?

<p>Anaerobic glycolytic pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consequence does membrane rigidity have on RBCs?

<p>Sequestration by the spleen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about RBC permeability is accurate?

<p>RBCs lose K+ and water during ATP depletion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary challenge associated with platelet storage?

<p>Storage limitations and a short shelf life (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of ATP in RBCs is produced through the pentose pathway?

<p>10% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following quality control measurements is NOT typically required for platelet preservation?

<p>Temperature of the storage unit (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct standard pH level for maintaining satisfactory platelet viability?

<p>6.2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical duration for which platelets can be stored at 20° to 24°C?

<p>5 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is increasingly used for preparing platelet concentrates?

<p>Apheresis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What parameter is primarily assessed to estimate the efficacy of transfused platelet concentrates?

<p>Corrected count increment (CCI) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the FDA-defined expiration time for platelets stored in the United States?

<p>Midnight of day 5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT a consequence of platelet storage lesion?

<p>Enhancement of intracellular granule release (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main consequence of transfusing RBCs that have low levels of 2,3-DPG?

<p>Increased oxygen affinity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of adding adenine to anticoagulant preservative solutions?

<p>To increase ADP and ATP levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors influences the re-formation of 2,3-DPG in stored RBCs?

<p>Acid-base status of the recipient (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a licensed additive solution for RBCs in the United States?

<p>Erythrosol (AS-2) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key requirement for the plastic material used in RBC storage bags?

<p>It must allow for CO2 permeability (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the historical obstacles to transfusion therapy?

<p>Establishing a nontoxic anticoagulant (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is NOT part of the red blood cell biology crucial for their function?

<p>White blood cell count (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does di(ethylhexyl)-phthalate (DEHP) have on the storage of RBCs?

<p>It stabilizes the RBC membrane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What year marks the first recorded blood transfusion?

<p>1492 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum recommended storage duration for packed RBCs treated with Adsol, Nutricel, or Optisol?

<p>42 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what primary purpose is RBC freezing utilized?

<p>Storing rare blood types (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organization is mentioned as overseeing blood bank standards?

<p>American Association of Blood Banks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical lifespan of red blood cells in circulation?

<p>120 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of red blood cell biology would not influence their survival in circulation?

<p>Immune response efficiency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor could lead to a reduced survival of red blood cells?

<p>Defects in RBC metabolism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the trans position of genes?

<p>Genes located on opposite chromosomes of a homologous pair (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a female to be affected by an X-linked recessive disease?

<p>Two copies of the disease allele on both X chromosomes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes individuals that possess different alleles at a given locus?

<p>Heterozygous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of chromatin is considered more active in RNA synthesis for transcription?

<p>Euchromatin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Mendel's first law indicate about alleles of genes?

<p>They segregate independently into gametes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the inheritance of X-linked dominant traits?

<p>Both genders can be affected, but males may show more severe symptoms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?

<p>Locus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes a public antigen in population genetics?

<p>Found on RBCs in more than 98% of the population (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about dosage in antibodies is accurate?

<p>Antibodies react more strongly with double dose (homozygous) red cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must occur for a male to be affected by an X-linked recessive disease?

<p>He must inherit the disease allele on his single X chromosome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes substances that can cause mutations in DNA?

<p>Mutagens (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which step of translation does the ribosome assemble proteins by linking amino acids together?

<p>Elongation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mutation involves the loss of a portion of a chromosome?

<p>Deletion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process describes the transfer of a segment from one chromosome to a different chromosome?

<p>Translocation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary goals of personalized medicine?

<p>To tailor treatments based on individual genetic and lifestyle factors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following steps is NOT part of the translation process?

<p>Transcription (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do small RNA molecules play in the cell?

<p>They have various functions, including regulation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Hardy-Weinberg principle (p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1), what does the variable 'p' represent?

<p>Frequency of the dominant allele (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly describes Mendel's second law?

<p>Genes for different traits are inherited independently. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic composition do the offspring exhibit when two plants with parental genotypes RRYY (round/yellow) and rryy (wrinkled/green) are crossed?

<p>Both wrinkled/yellow and round/green phenotypes appear. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the MNS blood group system, what is the phenotype of a heterozygous MN individual?

<p>Types M and N (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the term codominant in genetics?

<p>Both alleles in a heterozygous state are expressed equally. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In genetics, what is an amorph?

<p>A 'silent' gene that does not produce a gene product. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term genotype refer to?

<p>The total genetic makeup, both expressed and unexpressed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding codominance is true?

<p>Both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by the cis position of alleles?

<p>Alleles that are located on the same chromosome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium allow scientists to analyze?

<p>Changes in gene frequencies in populations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about phenotypes is accurate?

<p>Phenotypes are the observable products of the genes at a given locus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best defines an allele?

<p>An alternate form of a gene at a given locus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about genetic information is true?

<p>Genes are units of inheritance found at specific loci. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, how is q calculated? p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

<p>By taking the square root of q^2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What inheritance pattern requires two copies of a disease allele for an individual to show the phenotype?

<p>Autosomal recessive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about autosomal dominant inheritance is accurate?

<p>Only one copy of the disease allele is necessary to express the phenotype (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 2pq represent in the context of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?

<p>Frequency of the heterozygotes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do inheritance patterns assist in predicting genetic disease transmission?

<p>They help estimate the recurrence risk for family members (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In autosomal recessive inheritance, the parents of an affected individual are typically characterized as being:

<p>Both carriers of the recessive allele (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are alloantibodies primarily produced in response to?

<p>Non-self antigens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of antibodies is associated with autoimmune diseases?

<p>Cold autoantibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component obstructs complement activation in plasma during testing?

<p>EDTA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a non-agglutination result indicate in agglutination inhibition testing?

<p>Positive test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

<p>Duffy system (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is used to describe the strength of binding in antibodies?

<p>Avidity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which traditional laboratory method involves red cell agglutination reactions?

<p>Hemagglutination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of centrifugation on agglutination reactions?

<p>Decreases reaction time by bringing reactants closer together. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At which pH level do antigen-antibody complexes function optimally?

<p>6.5 - 7.5 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin type reacts best at 37°C and requires incubation?

<p>IgG (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of enhancement media in agglutination reactions?

<p>To enhance the reaction of IgG antibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consequence does transfusion-related immunomodulation (TRIM) have on the immune system?

<p>Causes transient immune depression. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a disadvantage of using monoclonal reagents in serologic testing?

<p>Overspecificity leading to missed reactions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true concerning IgM antibodies in agglutination reactions?

<p>They are seen at the Immediate Spin phase of testing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In blood bank serologic testing, which condition is NOT commonly associated?

<p>Epigenetic expression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of Low Ionic Strength Media (LISS) in agglutination testing?

<p>To cause RBCs to take up antibodies more quickly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of B cells in the immune system?

<p>To produce specific antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin is most significant for blood banking?

<p>IgG (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of antibodies are directed against self antigens?

<p>Autoantibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors influence antigen-antibody reactions?

<p>Distance, antigen-antibody ratio, pH, temperature, and immunoglobulin type (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of MHC Class I molecules in the immune response?

<p>They assist cytotoxic T cells in recognizing foreign antigens (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin primarily reacts at body temperature?

<p>IgG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main consequence of IgM's pentamer form?

<p>It does not cross the placenta (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important characteristic of the complement system?

<p>It can be activated through classical, alternative, or lectin pathways (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do cytokines primarily function as in the immune system?

<p>Cell communication and regulation factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of T cell is responsible for turning off the immune response?

<p>Regulatory T cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the structure of immunoglobulins?

<p>Constant and variable regions with disulfide bonds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is NOT true about IgE?

<p>It can activate complement (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of antibodies are produced without transfusion or pregnancy?

<p>Naturally occurring antibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct storage condition for blood bank tubes if there is a delay in testing?

<p>At 1-6°C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a cause for the rejection of blood specimens?

<p>Accurate labeling (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What phase involves interpreting testing results in laboratory testing?

<p>Post-analytical phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the specimen requirement for blood collection in a blood bank?

<p>6 ml PINK top tube (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following steps is included in the pre-analytical phase of laboratory testing?

<p>Specimen collection and transport (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)?

<p>To determine in vitro sensitization of red cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which step is crucial in the IAT process to remove unbound antibodies?

<p>At least three saline washings (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is agglutination interpreted in the IAT?

<p>By examining for agglutination and grading the reaction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is added to negative reactions in the IAT to verify results?

<p>Antibody coated RBCs (Check cells) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can improper washing of cells lead to in a laboratory setting?

<p>In vitro complement attachment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common cause of false negative results in immunohematological tests?

<p>Over centrifugation of cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of the Gel Test method?

<p>It allows for the immediate reading of agglutination. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can result from the contamination of AHG reagent?

<p>Development of contaminating antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Antiglobulin Test, what may result if the cell suspension is too weak or too heavy?

<p>They can lead to false negative results. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which error type involves the incorrect identification of a patient?

<p>Pre-Analytic Errors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component is crucial in the Coombs’ Test for agglutinating sensitized RBCs?

<p>Anti-IgG antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of error occurs when results are reported with control results out of range?

<p>Analytic Errors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one purpose of using Coombs’ Test in clinical settings?

<p>To assess blood transfusion compatibility (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What significant advancement occurred in 1945 related to antibody detection?

<p>Description of the antihuman globulin (AHG) test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which post analytic error can result from sending reports to incorrect locations?

<p>Specimen transport error (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibody type is associated with binding complement to the RBC membrane?

<p>IgM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure is a potential source of pre-analytic errors?

<p>Improper specimen transport (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum serum to cell ratio required to increase sensitivity in the antiglobulin test?

<p>40:1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Antiglobulin Test, which addition to the reaction medium helps enhance antibody uptake? Select all that apply.

<p>LISS (B), PEG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the optimal temperature for conducting the antiglobulin test for IgG reactions?

<p>37°C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many saline washings are required at minimum for the DAT and IAT to ensure accurate results?

<p>Three washings (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can bacterial contamination in saline lead to during the antiglobulin test?

<p>False positives (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferred amount of antihuman globulin (AHG) added to the cells after washing?

<p>As per manufacturer's recommendation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of inadequately resuspending cells after centrifugation in the antiglobulin test?

<p>Weak false-positive results (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which centrifugation speed range is recommended for the antiglobulin test to improve sensitivity?

<p>500 to 1000 RCF (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is not present in polyspecific AHG?

<p>Anti-IgM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of anti-IgG in AHG?

<p>Binding to the Fc fragment of IgG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true regarding the preparation of monospecific AHG?

<p>It contains only one specific antibody. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is detected by the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)?

<p>Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What conclusion can be drawn from a positive DAT in a patient?

<p>It requires further investigation of recent transfusions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is monoclonal AHG made?

<p>Spleen cells are fused with myeloma cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anti-complement is reactive against which substances?

<p>Designated complement components (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of antibodies is predominantly present in AHG preparations?

<p>IgG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the test with monospecific AHG differentiate among?

<p>Specific combinations of anti-IgG and anti-C3d. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is correct regarding polyspecific AHG?

<p>It can contain antibodies against kappa and lambda chains. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a clinical condition detectable by DAT?

<p>Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibody is NOT typically associated with significant clinical effects?

<p>Anti-Le^a (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of direct antiglobulin tests, what does a positive result imply?

<p>In vivo RBC coating (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Group A1 from Group A2 in terms of antigens present on the RBC surface?

<p>A1 has A and A1 antigens, while A2 has only A antigens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the Bombay phenotype?

<p>It results from a double dose of the 'h' gene (homozygous) causing absence of ABH antigens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Weak A subgroup demonstrates a mixed field pattern with anti-A and most of anti-B?

<p>A3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of weak B subgroups?

<p>They may show variations in the strength of reaction using anti-B and Anti-A,B. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does A2 react with Anti-A sera during blood typing?

<p>It reacts strongly with Anti-A sera. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In blood typing, what is ABO discrepancy?

<p>Unexpected reactions in the forward and reverse typing results. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of all Group A individuals are typically A1 or A1B?

<p>80% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of reactivity with anti-H antisera or anti-H lectin, which blood group shows the strongest reactivity?

<p>Group O (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the blood group of an individual?

<p>The terminal sugars on red blood cell membranes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What antigen is present when neither the A nor B gene is expressed?

<p>H antigen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the B gene is present, which sugar is added to the blood group antigen?

<p>Galactose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Se gene in the formation of soluble antigens?

<p>It allows for the secretion of ABH soluble antigens in body fluids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Individuals who are non-secretors of ABH soluble antigens typically have which genotype?

<p>sese (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which terminal sugar is added when the A gene is present?

<p>N-acetyl galactosamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What antigen is present in saliva for individuals with blood group AB?

<p>A and B antigens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What minimal determinant structure is associated with individuals who lack both A and B antigens?

<p>H antigen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of Group 1 discrepancies in ABO typing?

<p>Weakly reacting or missing antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors can contribute to discrepancies in ABO typing?

<p>Patient age (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is recommended to resolve Group I discrepancies effectively? (Group I: unexpected reaction in reverse grouping due to weak or missing antibodies)

<p>Incubate at room temperature for 15-30 minutes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What abnormality in plasma can lead to Group 3 discrepancies in ABO typing?

<p>Presence of rouleaux formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a technical error that could cause discrepancies in ABO grouping?

<p>Medication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition in elderly patients can lead to Group I discrepancies?

<p>Depressed antibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications can potentially lead to discrepancies in ABO typing?

<p>Immunosuppressants (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which group of discrepancies is associated with unexpected reactions in the forward grouping due to weakly reacting or missing antigens?

<p>Group 2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal when resolving Group II discrepancies?

<p>Enhance reaction of weak or missing antigens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is associated with weakened A or B antigens? Select all that apply.

<p>Leukemia (B), Hodgkin's disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What treatment can be applied to RBCs in suspected cases of 'Acquired B' phenomenon?

<p>Enzyme treatment and retesting with antisera (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement reflects the primary goal when addressing Group III discrepancies?

<p>Remove interfering substances (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which types of elevated levels can lead to Group III discrepancies?

<p>Elevated globulin and fibrinogen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated if a patient serum agglutinates when mixed with O cells?

<p>Presence of an unexpected alloantibody (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood type is considered a universal donor?

<p>O (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age does ABO antibody production typically peak?

<p>5-10 years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of antibodies do group O individuals produce more commonly?

<p>IgG anti-A and anti-B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene is associated with the normal expression of ABH antigens?

<p>H gene (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Bombay phenotype is characterized by a lack of which antigen?

<p>H antigen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common immunoglobulin type found in ABO antibodies?

<p>IgM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does auto-control testing confirm the absence of autoantibodies?

<p>By mixing the patient's serum with their own RBCs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following groups typically shows the highest percentage of blood type O?

<p>Mexican (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consequence of administering the wrong ABO blood group?

<p>Potentially fatal complications (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about naturally occurring ABO antibodies?

<p>Present at birth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the H gene play in the blood group system?

<p>It acts as a precursor for ABO antigens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical outcome when autoantibodies are present?

<p>Agglutination of all cell types (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a method to resolve Group IV discrepancies when dealing with cold reactive autoantibodies?

<p>Incubate at 37° for a short time and wash at 37° 3 times (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In resolving a Group III discrepancy, why is it necessary to wash cells 6-8 times with saline?

<p>To alleviate rouleaux formation caused by Wharton’s jelly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ultimate goal in resolving Group IV discrepancies?

<p>To eliminate spontaneous agglutination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When resolving a Group IV discrepancy, what does treatment with DTT aim to achieve?

<p>To neutralize the effect of alloantibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done during reverse typing if the standard method does not resolve discrepancies?

<p>Perform an autoabsorption from serum and test at room temperature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During investigation of Group IV discrepancies, unexpected isoagglutinins can indicate what issue?

<p>Transfusion of incompatible blood types (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of washing the cell suspensions after the initial treatment during typing?

<p>To remove any residual reactants that could affect results (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes Group IV discrepancies primarily linked to multiple ABO groups present in a patient's sample?

<p>Transfusion or transplant (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of antibody is primarily produced after exposure to Rh antigens in a Rh negative individual?

<p>IgG (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of red blood cell destruction due to Rh antibodies?

<p>Extravascular hemolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why must antigen negative blood be given to patients with a history of Rh sensitization?

<p>To avoid an increase in antibody production (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the main components present in monoclonal Rh Antigen Typing Reagents?

<p>Combination of IgM and IgG antibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which IgG subclass is predominantly significant in Rh antibody responses?

<p>IgG3 and IgG1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic symptom of Rh HTR? (Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction)

<p>Unexplained fever (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Rh-null syndrome, which of the following conditions is commonly observed?

<p>Mild hemolytic anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was Landsteiner's contribution to the understanding of blood antigens?

<p>Naming the Rh antibody (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features is associated with Rhmod phenotype?

<p>Less severe symptoms compared to Rhnull (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which classification system is used to describe only the presence or absence of antigens?

<p>Nomenclature systems (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by elevated bilirubin levels and reticulocytosis?

<p>Rhnull syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the phenotype defined in relation to Rh antigens?

<p>By the presence of D, C, c, E, e antigens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In phenotyping for blood groups, which outcome is NOT a purpose of the process?

<p>To identify universal donors for all blood types (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Rhnull phenotype signify?

<p>Absence of all Rh antigens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected bilirubin level in individuals with Rhnull syndrome?

<p>Elevated bilirubin levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method used by Weiner to classify Rh antigens?

<p>By defining a series of blood factors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

LW antigen reacts strongly with most D+ cells. What can cause a weak reaction with Anti LW in blood typing?

<p>Presence of Rh- cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about codominant expression of Rh antigens is accurate?

<p>It allows for mixed expression of alleles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between the genetic representation of D and d antigens?

<p>D is dominant while d is recessive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a minus sign preceding a number signify in the Fisher-Race nomenclature?

<p>The absence of an antigen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rh gene?

<p>Two closely linked genes control its expression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical process for assessing Rh status in blood donation?

<p>Coombs phase is performed if D is negative (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the ISBT Numeric System, what is the significance of the six-digit number for each blood group?

<p>It serves as a unique identifier for electronic data processing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the 'Weak D' phenomenon?

<p>Weak reaction due to genetic expression variations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are individuals with weak D classified in blood banks?

<p>Always as Rh+ or Rh- only (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does an Elution test serve when assessing Rh type in newborns?

<p>It provides a clearer reaction against anti-D (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic effect can cause a weakened expression of D antigen?

<p>Gene interaction when alleles are cis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the difference between D-positive and D-negative results?

<p>D-negative requires a Coombs test for clarification (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a risk associated with D-mosaic individuals concerning Rh status?

<p>They may produce anti-D antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens in the case of a 'Blocking Phenomenon' during Rh typing of newborns?

<p>Antibodies mask antigen sites on red blood cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the inheritance pattern of Rh genes?

<p>Codominant (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be taken if Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) is suspected?

<p>Administration of Rh immune globulin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Red Blood Cell Preservation

The preservation of red blood cells (RBCs) involves maintaining their functionality and lifespan. It's crucial for blood transfusions and storage.

RBC Survival

The ability of red blood cells (RBCs) to survive for around 120 days within the circulatory system. It's a critical factor in blood preservation.

Hemoglobin

A vital part of red blood cells (RBCs) that allows them to carry oxygen in the body. It's a key player in RBC functionality.

RBC Metabolism

The processes that occur inside red blood cells (RBCs) are essential for their survival. Defects in these processes lead to RBC destruction before their normal lifespan.

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RBC Membrane

A crucial component of red blood cells (RBCs) that controls their structure and function. It's like the protective outer layer.

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Component Therapy

Component therapy is a blood transfusion technique that involves administering specific components, like red blood cells, platelets, or plasma.

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American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)

A crucial organization that sets standards for the preparation, collection, and storage of blood. It ensures safety in blood transfusions.

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Blood Donation Process

The procedure used to obtain blood for transfusion purposes. It involves donor evaluation, screening, and collection.

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RBC Membrane Structure

The RBC membrane is a semipermeable barrier composed of a lipid bilayer supported by a protein cytoskeleton. It controls what enters and leaves the cell, protecting its internal environment.

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RBC Membrane Asymmetry

The RBC membrane has two distinct layers, the outer layer enriched in glycolipids and choline phospholipids, and the inner layer containing amino phospholipids.

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RBC Membrane Composition

The RBC membrane is made up of 52% proteins, 40% lipids, and 8% carbohydrates, providing structure, function, and identity to the red blood cell.

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RBC Deformability

The ability of RBCs to deform and change shape, allowing them to squeeze through tiny blood vessels.

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Factors Affecting Deformability

Loss of ATP reduces membrane deformability by affecting spectrin phosphorylation, and increased calcium levels stiffen the membrane, both of which reduce the cell's flexibility.

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Deformability and RBC Lifespan

Inefficient deformability leads to spleen removal of RBCs, affecting the lifespan of the cell. Cells with altered shapes, like spherocytes and bite cells, lose their deformability and are prematurely removed.

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RBC Membrane Permeability

The RBC membrane controls the entry and exit of ions and molecules, preventing the cell from bursting or shrinking, and maintaining its proper volume.

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RBC Ion Transport

RBCs use active transport to maintain low intracellular calcium and sodium levels, preventing cell rigidity and loss of potassium and water.

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Anticoagulant Preservative Solution

A substance added to stored red blood cells (RBCs) to prolong their lifespan and maintain their function.

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Platelet Storage Challenges

Storing platelets for extended periods is a challenge due to their short shelf life (5 days), susceptibility to bacterial contamination when incubated at 22°C, and potential for activation, aggregation, and release of intracellular granules. A reduction in ATP/ADP levels also contributes to degradation.

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Adenine

A type of anticoagulant preservative solution that contains adenine. Adenine helps maintain energy levels in RBCs by boosting ATP production through increased ADP levels.

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Platelet Storage Lesion

A set of changes that occur in platelets during storage, leading to decreased functionality and a shorter lifespan.

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What is RBC freezing?

A process where glycerol is slowly added to red blood cells (RBCs) to protect them from damage during freezing.

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Platelet Quality Control

Quality control measurements for platelet units, ensuring their safety and effectiveness.

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What is RBC rejuvenation?

A technique used to restore the energy levels (ATP and 2,3-DPG) in stored red blood cells (RBCs) that have decreased over time.

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2,3-DPG and Oxygen Affinity

The ability of RBCs to carry oxygen is influenced by 2,3-DPG levels. Low 2,3-DPG levels lead to increased oxygen affinity of RBCs, meaning they hold onto oxygen more tightly. This can cause issues like increased cardiac output and lower oxygen in the blood.

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What is an additive solution?

A solution used to preserve red blood cells (RBCs) during storage. It helps maintain their function and viability.

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Permeable Plastic for Storage Bags

A type of plastic material used for storing blood. The plastic allows for the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) to maintain a healthy pH level within the stored blood.

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Corrected Count Increment (CCI)

The count increase observed in platelets after transfusion, indicating how well they've functioned.

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DEHP (Di(ethylhexyl) Phthalate)

A chemical used to make some plastic storage bags. It can leach into the stored blood, but it seems to help stabilize RBC membranes and reduce hemolysis.

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How can you convert blood types?

A method to convert blood types A, B, and AB into type O red blood cells (RBCs). This is helpful for transfusions as type O blood can be given to anyone.

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Platelet Storage Conditions

The process of storing platelet concentrates routinely at a controlled temperature (20-24°C) with constant shaking.

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Additive Solutions (AS)

Preserving solutions added to RBCs after plasma removal. They help maintain RBC viability and adjust the viscosity of the concentrates.

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Platelet Expiration

The expiration date for platelet units in the US, determined by the FDA.

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What is bioengineering of RBCs?

The process of creating red blood cells (RBCs) outside the body using biological methods, such as stem cell cultures.

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What are RBC substitutes?

Substances designed to carry oxygen in the blood, often used as alternatives to blood transfusions. They can be derived from hemoglobin or synthetic materials like perfluorocarbons.

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Platelet Storage Media

The use of a 100% plasma medium or a platelet additive solution to preserve platelets during storage.

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RBC Freezing

Freezing RBCs, primarily used for autologous units and rare blood types. Cryoprotective agents are added to protect the RBCs during the freezing process.

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Platelet pH Importance

Maintaining the pH level within a specific range (6.2) is crucial for ensuring the viability of platelets during storage.

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What are hemoglobin-based oxygen carriers?

A type of RBC substitute that uses hemoglobin extracted from red blood cells. It can be engineered for better stability and function.

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Cryoprotective Agents

The chemical agents used in RBC freezing to protect the cells from damage during the freezing process.

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What are perfluorocarbons?

A type of RBC substitute that uses synthetic molecules called perfluorocarbons. These molecules can hold oxygen in their structure.

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Platelet Additive Solutions

Additive solutions, also known as synthetic media, are specifically designed to support platelet function and viability during storage.

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Platelet Pathogen Reduction

Various procedures aim to reduce or completely inactivate harmful pathogens that might be present in platelet units, ensuring the safety of transfusions.

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Platelet Substitutes

Platelet substitutes are alternatives to donated platelets, offering potential solutions for shortages or for patients with specific needs. Two main approaches involve lyophilization (freeze-drying) and cryopreservation (freezing).

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Lyophilization of Platelets

Lyophilization, also known as freeze-drying, is a technique used to preserve platelets by removing water from them, allowing for long-term storage at room temperature. It works by adding a special sugar, trehalose, to protect platelets from damage during freeze-drying.

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Cryopreservation of Platelets

Cryopreservation involves freezing platelets at ultra-low temperatures, often using a cryoprotective agent like DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide), enabling storage for extended periods.

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Trans Position

The position of two or more genes on opposite chromosomes of a homologous pair.

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Heterozygous

An individual with different alleles for a specific gene at a given locus on a pair of chromosomes. It's like having one copy of each version of the gene.

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Homozygous

An individual with identical alleles for a specific gene at a given locus on a pair of chromosomes. It's like having two copies of the same version.

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Recessive Allele

An allele that's only expressed in the homozygous state, meaning it's masked by a dominant allele when paired with it.

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Dosage Effect

The phenomenon where an antibody reacts more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a double dose of an antigen compared to a single dose.

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Genetics

The study of genes, how they are passed down, and how they affect traits.

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Gene

A unit of inheritance that codes for a specific trait. They reside on chromosomes.

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Alleles

Alternative forms of a gene located at the same position on a chromosome.

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Amorph

A gene that doesn't produce a noticeable product or its effect is masked by another gene.

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Codominance

When both alleles in a pair are expressed equally in a heterozygote.

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Genotype

The complete set of genes an individual has, encompassing both expressed and unexpressed genes.

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Phenotype

The observable characteristics of an individual resulting from the expression of their genes.

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Cis position

Genes located on the same chromosome.

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Law of Independent Assortment

The fundamental principle of genetics that states that pairs of alleles for different traits are inherited independently of each other.

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Hardy-Weinberg Principle

A model that describes how gene frequencies remain stable across generations in a population.

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Dihybrid Cross

A homozygous cross-breeding experiment that involves two traits with two alleles each.

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First Filial (F1)

The first generation resulting from the cross-breeding of two parent plants.

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Second Filial (F2)

The offspring produced from self-fertilizing or cross-breeding of the first filial generation.

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Parental Generation (P)

The original parent generation in a cross-breeding experiment.

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X-linked dominant inheritance

A gene located on the X chromosome that requires only one copy to cause the disease. Both males and females can be affected, but males may experience more severe symptoms due to having only one X chromosome.

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X-linked recessive inheritance

A gene located on the X chromosome that requires two copies to cause the disease in females. Males with only one copy of the gene are affected.

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Locus

The specific location of a gene on a chromosome. Think of it as the 'address' for a gene.

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Heterochromatin

The condensed form of chromatin that stains darkly and is usually inactive in transcription. Think of it as the 'sleeping' form of DNA.

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Hardy-Weinberg Equation

The Hardy-Weinberg equation helps us calculate the percentage of a population that carries a specific trait. It's based on the frequencies of alleles (gene versions) and genotypes (combinations of alleles).

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Dominant Allele

A dominant allele is one that expresses its trait even if only one copy is present. For example, if a plant has one allele for tallness and one for shortness, and the tallness allele is dominant, it will be tall.

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Autosomal Dominant Inheritance

Autosomal dominant inheritance means that only one copy of a disease allele is needed for someone to have the disease. It's often passed down through families vertically, from parent to child.

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Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

Autosomal recessive inheritance means that two copies of a defective allele, one inherited from each parent, are needed for someone to have the disease. Parents might be carriers, meaning they have one copy of the faulty gene but don't have the disease.

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Inheritance pattern

Describes how a genetic disease is passed through families. It helps doctors predict the likelihood of a relative getting the disease.

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Mutation

A change in a gene that can be passed on to offspring.

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Deletion

The loss of a portion of a chromosome.

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Inversion

A break in a chromosome where the broken piece reattaches in a reversed order.

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Translocation

The transfer of a portion of one chromosome to its homologous partner.

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Transcription

The process where a strand of DNA is copied into RNA.

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Translation

The process where RNA transcripts are used to make proteins.

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Personalized medicine

The process of customizing medicine based on a person's unique genes, environment, and lifestyle.

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Mutagens

Chemicals or conditions that can cause mutations.

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Alloantibodies

Antibodies produced naturally in response to exposure to antigens found in different individuals within the same species.

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Autoantibodies

Antibodies produced by the immune system against antigens present on the individual's own cells.

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Affinity

The initial attraction between an antibody and its antigen. Indicates the strength of the first bond.

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Avidity

The overall strength of the bond between an antibody and its antigen, considering all binding sites.

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Antibody Specificity

The ability of an antibody to bind specifically to a particular antigen.

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Cross-reaction

The ability of an antibody to react with an antigen that is structurally similar to its intended target.

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Hemagglutination

A method used in blood banking that detects and measures the presence of antibodies in a blood sample.

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Precipitation

A laboratory technique that uses an antigen-antibody reaction to identify and quantify antigens in a sample.

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Antigen

A molecule found on the surface of foreign cells or damaged internal cells that triggers an immune response. They act as flags for the immune system to recognize and attack.

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Innate Immunity

The body's primary defense against foreign invaders. It includes physical barriers like skin, chemical defenses like stomach acid, and cells like macrophages and neutrophils.

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Acquired Immunity

A specific and adaptive immune response triggered by exposure to antigens. It involves lymphocytes (B and T cells) and antibodies.

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Cellular Immunity

Immune responses that involve cells. Think of this as the immune system's army, with specialized cells fighting off invaders.

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Humoral Immunity

Immune responses that involve antibodies, proteins that bind to specific antigens. This is like sending out missiles to target invaders.

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Antibody

A large protein molecule produced by B cells in response to an antigen. It binds to the antigen and helps neutralize it.

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Complement System

A system of proteins that work together to destroy pathogens and activate other immune cells. Think of it as the immune system's signal cascade.

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MHC Class I

A major histocompatibility complex protein that presents antigens to T cytotoxic cells, helping the body recognize and destroy infected or cancerous cells.

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MHC Class II

A major histocompatibility complex protein that presents antigens to T helper cells, activating the immune response and helping coordinate the fight against invaders.

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IgG

The most abundant antibody in the blood, it can cross the placenta, providing immunity to the fetus. It can also activate complement.

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IgM

The largest antibody, found primarily in the blood, it is the first antibody produced during an infection. IgM activates complement efficiently.

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IgA

Found primarily in mucosal secretions, it protects against pathogens in those surfaces. IgA does not activate complement.

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IgE

The antibody involved in allergy responses. It binds to mast cells, triggering the release of histamine when exposed to allergens.

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Zeta Potential

A natural repulsive effect that RBCs have, keeping them separate.

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Ideal pH for Agglutination

The optimal pH for the formation of antigen-antibody complexes in blood banking reactions is between 6.5 and 7.5.

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Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)

A technique that increases the sensitivity of agglutination reactions by reducing the distance between RBCs.

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Antigen-Antibody Ratio

Antigen-antibody complexes are formed in a specific ratio. Excess antibodies or antigens can result in a weak or no reaction.

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Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS)

Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS) promotes faster antibody uptake by RBCs, enhancing agglutination reactions.

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Lattice Formation

Antigen-antibody bridges form between RBCs, causing them to clump together.

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Flow Cytometry

This technique uses fluorescent dyes to label cells and detect specific antigens or antibodies. It's used in blood banking for various purposes, including quantifying fetal-maternal hemorrhage.

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ELISA (EIA)

This method, along with IF and WB are common techniques for the detection and identification of antibodies.

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Anti-Human Globulin (AHG) Reagent

This reagent helps to detect IgG antibodies by bridging the gaps between sensitized RBCs.

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Red Cell Agglutination Reactions

A type of antibody test that uses the principle of red blood cell agglutination to detect the presence of antibodies in a blood sample.

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Antiglobulin Test

Analysis of blood samples to detect antibodies that bind to red blood cells (RBCs). It's used in blood typing and for identifying antibodies involved in transfusion reactions.

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Pre-analytical Phase

The process of collecting, transporting, and preparing a blood sample for testing. It's the first critical step in ensuring accurate results.

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Analytical Phase

Involves the actual procedures used to analyze the blood sample, such as identifying antibodies or blood types. It's the heart of the blood bank process.

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Post-analytical Phase

The final stage of blood bank testing, where results are reviewed, processed, and communicated to the patient or doctor. It's crucial for making informed decisions.

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Blood Product Preservation

The process of maintaining the quality and viability of stored blood products. It includes methods like refrigeration, additive solutions, and pathogen reduction techniques.

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What is the Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)?

This test determines if red blood cells (RBCs) have antibodies attached to them. It's used to find out if blood is compatible for transfusion or to identify antibodies in someone's blood.

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How is the IAT used in Compatibility Testing?

The IAT checks for compatibility in blood transfusions by detecting antibodies against donor red blood cells. It's like a security check to make sure the blood types match.

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How is the IAT used in Antibody Identification?

The IAT helps identify the specific type of antibody by testing against red blood cells with known antigens. It's like using a key to unlock the identity of the antibody.

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How does the IAT help determine Red Blood Cell Phenotype?

The IAT can determine a person's red blood cell phenotype using known antisera, like anti-D antibodies. It helps define the blood type.

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How is the IAT used to Titrate Antibodies?

The IAT can measure the strength of an antibody reaction by grading the agglutination (clumping) of red blood cells. It allows us to understand how strong the reaction is.

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Serum to cell ratio

The ratio of serum to cells in an antiglobulin test impacts sensitivity. A higher ratio, like 40:1, increases the chance of detecting antibodies.

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Temperature in antiglobulin test

The optimal temperature for IgG antibody binding in the antiglobulin test is 37°C.

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Incubation Time in antiglobulin test

The time allowed for antibodies to bind to red blood cells in the antiglobulin test is crucial. Shorter incubation times (like 15 minutes with LISS) might be suitable, but a longer incubation time (up to 120 minutes) can improve antibody detection.

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Washing in Antiglobulin Test

Thorough washing of red blood cells in the antiglobulin test is essential to remove unbound globulins, avoiding false-positive results.

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Saline in Antiglobulin Test

Fresh saline solution, buffered to a pH of 7.2-7.4, is crucial for accurate antiglobulin test results. Contamination can cause false positives.

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Timing of AHG addition

Antihuman globulin (AHG) reagent must be added immediately after washing to minimize the chance of antibodies eluting from cells and neutralizing the AHG reagent.

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Centrifugation in Antiglobulin Test

Appropriate centrifugation speed (500-1000 RCF) and cell resuspension are crucial for optimal antiglobulin test results, as they affect sensitivity and accuracy.

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Pre-Analytic Errors

Errors that occur before the actual laboratory analysis, such as patient misidentification or improper specimen collection.

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Analytic Errors

Errors that happen during the laboratory analysis itself, like using expired reagents or contaminated equipment.

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Post-Analytic Errors

Errors that occur after the lab analysis is complete, such as reporting results to the wrong person or failing to call a critical value.

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Coombs' Test

A serological test used to detect the presence of antibodies against red blood cells (RBCs).

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Indirect Coombs' Test

A test that uses antihuman globulin (AHG) to detect the presence of IgG antibodies on red blood cells (RBCs).

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Direct Coombs' Test

A test that uses antihuman globulin (AHG) to detect the presence of IgG antibodies on red blood cells (RBCs) in a sample containing red blood cells.

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Autoagglutinable cells

Cells that agglutinate (clump together) spontaneously, even without the presence of specific antibodies. This can lead to false-positive results in blood typing tests.

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Preservative-dependent antibody

Antibodies in reagents like LISS that are affected by preservatives used in the red blood cell preservation process.

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Contaminating antibodies in AHG reagent

Contaminating substances in AHG reagent, such as heavy metals or chemicals that can block the AHG reaction.

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In vitro complement attachment

Involves the attachment of complement proteins to red blood cells in vitro, even though there may be no antibodies present. It is often a result of improper specimen handling.

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Polyspecific AHG

A reagent that contains antibodies against multiple components found on red blood cells. Includes IgG, C3d, and sometimes anti-C3b, anti-C4b, and anti-C4d. Limited activity against IgA and IgM.

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Monospecific AHG

A reagent that contains antibodies against only one specific component on red blood cells, like IgG or C3d.

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Anti-IgG

Antibodies that target the Fc fragment of the IgG molecule. May also detect cells sensitized with IgM and IgA, if not labelled gamma heavy-chain specific.

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Anti-complement

Antibodies that specifically react with the designated complement components, like C3b, C3d, or others. They do not react with human immunoglobulins.

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Preparation of Polyspecific AHG

AHG is made by immunizing animals like rabbits, goats, or sheep with IgG and C3. The animals produce high-titer, high avidity antibodies which are then purified and absorbed with A1, B, and O cells to remove unwanted reactivity.

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Preparation of Monoclonal AHG

Monoclonal AHG involves immunization of mice with purified human globulin. Spleen cells are fused with myeloma cells, resulting in hybridoma cells which are screened for specificity and affinity. These clones are then propagated and their antibodies collected. No absorption is needed.

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Anti-IgG and Nonagglutinating Antibodies

The ability of nonagglutinating blood group antibodies, specifically IgG1 and IgG3, to be detected with anti-IgG AHG.

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Anti-complement and Blood Antibodies

Anti-complement AHG can detect antibodies that fix complement to red blood cells. Some of these antibodies are clinically insignificant (e.g., anti-Lea, anti-P1), while others are clinically significant (e.g., anti-Jka).

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Principle of AHG Test

The principle of the AHG test lies in the fact that both antibodies and complement components are globulins. Animals injected with human globulin produce antibodies against these globulins. AHG reacts with human globulins bound to red blood cells, causing agglutination.

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Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

The Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) detects in vivo sensitization of red blood cells with IgG and/or complement. C3 and C4 split into C3b and C4b, which bind to the RBC membrane. Further degradation leaves C3d and C4d attached. This degradation occurs in vitro with both warm and cold autoimmune hemolytic anemias.

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Clinical Conditions with Positive DAT

DAT detects in vivo sensitization of red blood cells. Several clinical conditions can cause in vivo coating, including hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), hemolytic transfusion reaction (HTR), and autoimmune and drug-induced hemolytic anemias (AIHA).

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DAT Panel and Interpretations

The DAT panel involves testing washed red blood cells with polyspecific AHG (anti-IgG and anti-C3d reagent). Monospecific AHG can help further differentiate the cause of a positive DAT. A positive anti-IgG and anti-C3d suggests warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

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Evaluation of a Positive DAT

A positive DAT requires evaluation in light of the patient's diagnosis, drug therapy, and recent transfusion history. It can occur without clinical manifestations of immune-mediated hemolysis.

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AABB Guidelines on DAT Results

The AABB manual emphasizes that serological tests are not diagnostic by themselves. Their significance must be assessed based on the patient's clinical condition.

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Evaluating a Positive DAT Beyond the Test

When evaluating a positive DAT (except for neonates), look for evidence of in vivo hemolysis, recent transfusions, and current medications. Additional testing may be required based on these factors.

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Group A1

A blood group with A and A1 antigens present on red blood cells.

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Group A2

A blood group with only A antigens present on red blood cells.

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Bombay Phenotype

A rare blood group that lacks both A and B antigens due to the absence of H gene.

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Ax

A blood group with weak reactions to anti-A reagent, but agglutinates with anti-AB reagent.

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ABO Antigens

Antigens present on the surface of red blood cells, responsible for blood type.

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Anti-A1 Sera

Antibodies that react with A1 antigens but not A2 antigens.

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Anti-A

An antibody that reacts with both A1 and A2 antigens, but not B antigens.

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ABO Discrepancy

A blood group discrepancy occurs when the results of forward and reverse blood typing are inconsistent.

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What is an ABO Discrepancy?

An issue during ABO blood typing, where one of the forward or reverse groupings fails to align, resulting in a discrepancy between the expected and observed reactions. It could imply inaccuracies in the test or a presence of unexpected antibodies or antigens in the sample.

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What are the four major groups of ABO discrepancies?

A group of discrepancies during blood typing classified by the cause of the discrepancy and the reactions associated with it. They include discrepancies related to weak antibodies, missing antigens, rouleaux formation, or miscellaneous issues influencing the test results.

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What causes ABO Discrepancies in Group 1?

ABO discrepancies that arise due to weakly reacting or absent antibodies in the reverse grouping. This is often seen in newborns, elderly individuals, or those with certain medical conditions.

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What causes ABO Discrepancies in Group 2?

ABO discrepancies that occur due to weakly reacting or missing antigens in the forward grouping. The blood cells may not express the expected antigens for the individual's ABO blood type.

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What causes ABO Discrepancies in Group 3?

ABO discrepancies resulting from the formation of rouleaux, a stacking of red blood cells, which can interfere with the reverse testing making it appear as if there are unexpected antibodies or antigens present.

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What causes ABO Discrepancies in Group 4?

ABO discrepancies that arise from a variety of miscellaneous issues, such as technical errors, clerical errors, or interference by medication or previous transfusion.

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How to resolve Group I discrepancies?

Techniques employed to resolve a Group I discrepancy. They aim to improve the detectability of weak or missing antibodies by modifying test conditions. Includes methods like increased incubation time and temperature changes.

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What's the main goal when resolving Group I discrepancies?

An important goal when resolving Group I discrepancies. The aim is to detect the presence of even the faintest antibodies by optimizing the test conditions and ensuring no false negatives.

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O Cell Testing

Testing used to detect unexpected antibodies in a patient's serum, using O red blood cells, which lack A and B antigens.

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Auto-control Testing

Testing used to ensure that there are no autoantibodies in a patient's serum, mixing serum with their own red blood cells.

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ABO Antibody Production

The natural occurrence of antibodies in individuals based on their ABO blood group.

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Antibody Affinity

The initial attraction between an antibody and its antigen, reflecting the strength of the first bond.

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Antibody Avidity

The overall strength of the bond between an antibody and its antigen, considering all binding sites.

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Bombay Phenotype (hh)

The lack of the normal expression of ABH antigens, despite the presence of A and B genes, due to the absence of the H gene.

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Naturally Occurring Antibodies (Non-ABO)

Antibodies that are usually IgM in type, sometimes produced against non-ABO blood group antigens without transfusion or pregnancy.

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Inheritance of ABO Blood Groups

Individuals inherit one ABO gene from each parent, with specific alleles determining blood group expression.

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Group IV Discrepancy

A type of blood group discrepancy where unexpected antibodies are found in the patient's serum, causing false-positive or false-negative reactions.

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Cold Reactive Antibodies

Antibodies that react best at lower temperatures (e.g., 4°C)

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Mixed Cell Population

The presence of red blood cells from more than one ABO group.

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Unexpected ABO Isoagglutinins

Antibodies that are not normally expected in the patient's serum, potentially leading to false-positive reactions during blood typing.

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Unexpected Non-ABO Alloantibodies

Antibodies produced by an individual against non-ABO blood group antigens.

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Warm Incubate and Wash

A process to eliminate false-positive reactions due to cold-reactive antibodies or mixed cell populations by incubating the sample at room temperature.

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DTT Treatment

A treatment for Group IV discrepancies where the patient's red blood cells are treated with DTT (dithiothreitol), a chemical agent that breaks down the red cell surface.

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Autoabsorption

A technique to remove interfering antibodies from the patient's serum by absorbing them onto red blood cells.

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What happens in the presence of the A gene?

The presence of the A gene on the red blood cell results in the addition of the sugar N-acetyl galactosamine to the H antigen.

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What happens in the presence of the B gene?

The presence of the B gene on the red blood cell results in the addition of the sugar galactose to the H antigen.

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What is the 'O condition'?

If neither the A nor the B genes are present on the red blood cell, the antigen is H.

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What is an antibody?

Antibodies are proteins that bind to antigens, they are part of the body's immune defense system.

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What is an antigen?

Antigens are molecules found on the surface of cells that trigger an immune response.

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How is the ABO Blood Group determined?

ABO blood groups are determined by the specific sugar attached to a core structure on the red blood cell.

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What determines the blood type?

The terminal sugar placement on the red blood cell determines the blood type.

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What does the Se gene do?

If someone inherits the Se gene, they will secrete ABH soluble antigens in their body fluids.

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Group II Discrepancies

A type of blood group discrepancy where the forward typing and reverse typing results don't match due to weakened or missing antigens in the red blood cells. This can happen due to various factors such as subgroups of A or B, diseases affecting antigen expression, or presence of antibodies that interfere with the typing process.

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Group III Discrepancies

A specific type of blood group discrepancy where the problem is not in the red blood cells but in the serum. This usually happens when there are high amounts of proteins like globulin, fibrinogen, or other interfering substances.

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"Acquired B" phenomenon

A phenomenon where a patient with a blood group A develops an antibody against the B antigen. This can happen because of exposure to B antigens from bacteria, which can form structures that resemble the A antigen.

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Subgroups of A OR B

These are variants of the standard A and B antigens. They may react weakly with anti-A or anti-B antibodies. The subtypes are often identified using different antibodies or techniques.

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Naturally Occurring Antibodies

These are antibodies that are produced naturally without prior exposure to an antigen. They are found in the serum and are important for determining blood type.

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Enzyme Treatment for Red Blood Cells

The process of treating red blood cells (RBCs) with enzymes to enhance or weaken the antigen reactions during blood typing. This can help to resolve discrepancies.

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Acetic Anhydride Reacetylation

This involves a process where red blood cells are treated with acetic anhydride, a chemical that can reacetylate the antigens. This is done to differentiate between acquired B phenomenon and a true B blood type.

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Incubation at Room Temperature

A process where red blood cells (RBCs) are incubated at room temperature for a prolonged time to enhance the antigen-antibody reactions during blood typing.

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Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)

A critical condition where Rh antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, causing anemia and other complications.

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Anamnestic Response

The process by which a previously sensitized Rh negative individual rapidly produces antibodies after a second exposure to Rh positive blood. This is the basis of Rh immunoprophylaxis.

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Rh Antibody and Complement Binding

A type of antibody that binds complement poorly due to the distance between Rh antigens on the red blood cell surface. This leads to extravascular hemolysis.

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Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)

A severe type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) caused by anti-D antibodies. The antibodies target the RhD antigen present on red blood cells, leading to destruction of fetal red blood cells. This condition can cause various complications, including anemia, jaundice, and even death in the fetus or newborn.

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Rhnull Syndrome

A rare blood group phenotype where individuals lack all Rh antigens (D, C, c, E, e). This absence of Rh antigens can lead to immune reactions in individuals with anti-Rh antibodies. Transfusions must be with Rhnull cells only due to the high risk of hemolytic reactions.

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Rhmod

A blood group phenotype that exhibits features similar to Rhnull, but with milder clinical symptoms. These individuals may also have reduced expression of other blood group antigens.

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LW blood group system

A blood group system closely related to the Rh system. The LW antibody targets antigens on red blood cells, primarily on D+ cells, and reacts weakly, if at all, with Rh- cells. This system plays a role in blood typing but isn't directly responsible for the mechanisms of Rh hemolytic disease.

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Phenotyping

The process of determining blood group antigens present on red blood cells using serological methods. It helps identify blood types and individuals with rare phenotypes.

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Fisher-Race Model

A genetic model that describes the inheritance of Rh antigens. It uses letters to represent different Rh alleles (D, C, E, c, e). Each allele contributes to the overall Rh phenotype of an individual.

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Wiener shorthand

A simplified shorthand notation for describing the Rh phenotype, using letters and symbols to represent different Rh alleles. It's often used in blood banking to quickly and easily indicate the Rh type.

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Shorthand Fisher-Race

A system of assigning numbers to Rh antigens, based on serological reactions, not genetics.

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Weak D

Red blood cells that react weakly with anti-D antibodies, needing further testing to confirm the presence of D antigen.

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D-mosaic

A variant of the D antigen where parts are missing, often leading to the production of anti-D antibodies.

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Rh gene

A gene located on chromosome 1 that controls the expression of Rh antigens.

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Linked Rh genes

The situation where two genes affecting Rh expression are close together, making them rarely separate.

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Anti-D made by D-mosaic individuals

An antibody that forms against the missing part of the D antigen in D-mosaic individuals.

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Blocking Phenomenon

A situation where newborn red blood cells are coated with maternal antibodies, making it hard to determine Rh type.

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Rh immune globulin (RhIG)

An injection given to Rh-negative mothers after childbirth to prevent the formation of anti-D antibodies.

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Rhnull

A rare phenotype where individuals lack the expression of all Rh antigens.

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Rh Haplotype

A set of genes and the corresponding antigens they produce that define an individual's Rh blood group.

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Fisher-Race Nomenclature

A series of nomenclatures used to classify Rh antigens, emphasizing the genetic mechanisms behind their expression. It follows the Fisher-Race system.

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Rh Gene Complex

A set of alleles closely linked on a chromosome that determine Rh antigen expression. The combination of these alleles defines an individual's Rh blood group.

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Rh Genotype

An individual inherits two sets of Rh genes, one from each parent. The combination of these sets determines their genotype.

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Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

A reaction that occurs when incompatible blood is transfused into a recipient, causing the recipient's antibodies to attack the donor's red blood cells. This can lead to severe complications like anemia.

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Study Notes

Introduction

  • Blood and historical events leading to current blood storage techniques will be discussed.
  • Red blood cell (RBC) biology will be reviewed as a foundation for RBC preservation.
  • Platelet metabolism will be examined to understand the platelet storage lesion.

Historical Overview

  • 1492: First recorded blood transfusion involving Pope Innocent VII.
  • Transfusion therapy challenges:
    • Non-toxic anticoagulants.
    • Appropriate devices.
    • Preservative solutions.
    • Circulatory overload.

Current Status

  • Efforts and standards of the American Association of Blood Banks (AABB).
  • General requirements for collecting blood from volunteer donors.
  • Blood components prepared from donated whole blood.

The Donation Process

  • Educational materials.
  • Donor health history questionnaire.
  • Abbreviated physical examination.

RBC Biology and Preservation

  • Three crucial areas in RBC biology for normal survival and function: membrane, hemoglobin structure/function, and metabolism.
  • Defects in any of these areas lead to reduced RBC survival (less than the normal 120 days).

RBC Membrane

  • A semipermeable lipid bilayer.
  • Supported by a protein meshlike cytoskeleton.
  • Phospholipids and their orientation.
  • Integral and peripheral proteins.
  • Membrane deformability.
  • Composition: 52% protein, 40% lipid, 8% carbohydrate.
  • Asymmetrical organization: external layer with glycolipids and choline phospholipids, internal layer with amino phospholipids.

Deformability

  • Loss of ATP decreases phosphorylation of spectrin, leading to reduced deformability.
  • Increased membrane calcium causes rigidity and splenic sequestration.

Permeability

  • The RBC membrane is permeable to water and anions (e.g., Cl-, HCO3-), and impermeable to cations (e.g., Na+, K+).
  • Crucial for maintaining proper RBC volume.
  • Calcium (Ca2+) is actively pumped out.
  • ATP is needed to maintain ion balance.

Metabolic Pathways

  • RBC metabolism is mainly anaerobic, involving glycolysis as the primary ATP source.
  • Importance of the anaerobic glycolytic pathway accounts for 90% of ATP production.
  • Three ancillary pathways support hemoglobin structure and function: pentose pathway, methemoglobin pathway, and Luebering-Rapaport pathway, which produces 2,3-DPG.

Hemoglobin Oxygen Dissociation Curve

  • Hemoglobin's role in oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide excretion.
  • The relationship is a sigmoid curve, depicting cooperative oxygen binding.

Hemoglobin Oxygen Dissociation Curve (Cont'd)

  • Allosteric changes (e.g., pH, temperature, 2,3-DPG) modulate hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, affecting the curve position (left or right shift).
  • 2,3-DPG plays a critical role in the oxygen dissociation curve, influencing oxygen release to tissues.
  • Shifts in the curve (left or right) are related to hypoxia or alkalosis, affecting oxygen release.

RBC Preservation

  • Maintaining RBC viability during storage is crucial for effective transfusion.
  • FDA requirements for average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival are over 75%.
  • Hemoglobin levels in the stored blood are less than 1% of the total.

RBC Preservation (Cont'd)

  • Loss of RBC viability correlates with the "storage lesion" and associated biochemical changes (e.g., decrease in 2,3-DPG).
  • 2,3-DPG (2,3-diphosphoglycerate) levels decrease significantly during storage, impacting oxygen delivery.
  • Pathophysiologic impacts of low 2,3-DPG include increased cardiac output and decreased mixed venous (pO2) tension, potentially affecting patient outcomes.

Anticoagulant Preservative Solutions

  • Adenine incorporation increases ADP/ATP levels for sustained glycolysis.
  • Storage at 1-6°C for up to 21 days is possible, promoting stability and extending the useful life of RBCs, maintaining high pH.
  • PVC bags and plasticizers (DEHP) affect pH and RBC stability during storage, needing to be considered.

Additive Solutions

  • Additive solutions (AS) are added to RBCs after plasma removal to improve RBC viability during storage and extend the shelf life beyond 21 days to 42 days.
  • Currently, three additive solutions (Adsol, Nutricel, Optisol) are licensed in the US for extended (42 days) storage of packed RBCs.
  • None maintain 2,3-DPG levels throughout the entire storage period, potentially affecting oxygen delivery.

RBC Freezing

  • Primarily for autologous units and rare blood types.
  • Glycerol (40% or 20% w/v) cryoprotective agent is used to protect RBCs during freezing.
  • Storage is typically at -65°C.
  • The FDA specifies 10-year storage from the freezing date.
  • Deglycerolization is essential before transfusion, removing glycerol, and closely monitoring osmolality to prevent hemolysis.

RBC Rejuvenation

  • Rejuvenation attempts to restore or enhance ATP and 2,3-DPG levels in stored RBCs to improve function and viability, but may not always be successful.
  • Stored RBCs may be rejuvenated under specific conditions, but not reliably after long-term storage.

Research and Development in RBC Preparation and Preservation

  • Improved additive solutions are being developed to enhance RBC storage and function.
  • Procedures to reduce pathogens are implemented to ensure safety.
  • Conversion of blood types (A, B, AB to O) is being explored for wider compatibility.
  • Bioengineering methods for RBC production offer alternative solutions, like blood pharming.

Research and Development in RBC Preparation and Preservation (Cont'd)

  • Tissue engineering of RBCs (stem cell-based) is under research to develop RBCs from other sources in a lab.
  • Research and development are underway to develop better platelet substitutes, and new methods of preserving platelets (e.g., longer storage periods).

Platelet Preservation

  • Platelet units are distributed and transfused annually in large numbers.
  • Challenges include inventory management issues, financial impacts of wasted units, storage limitations (5-day shelf life), risks of bacterial contamination, and leading to adverse events and requires screening.
  • Ensuring proper storage and reducing contamination are significant factors, including implementing pathogen-reduction techniques.

Platelet Preservation (Cont'd)

  • Quality control measures, including platelet concentrate volume, platelet count, pH, residual leukocyte count, and platelet swirl assessment, are important for maintaining quality, monitoring platelet viability, and avoiding contamination.

Clinical Use of Platelets

  • Platelet concentrates are used for treating thrombocytopenia and preventing or treating bleeding complications associated with hematological disorders.
  • Platelet concentrates can be prepared from whole blood or apheresis and are typically stored at 20-24°C with continuous agitation for a maximum 5-day life span according to FDA standards.
  • Efficacy of the transfusion is assessed by monitoring corrected count increments after transfusion, considering factors influencing platelet viability.

Clinical Use of Platelets (Cont'd)

  • Platelet concentrates are typically stored at 20-24°C, with a typical storage period of 5 days as per FDA standards.

Platelet Testing and Quality Control Monitoring

  • Actual platelet yield is assessed for each collection.
  • Weight/volume conversion is necessary for precise platelet volume determination.
  • Bacterial contamination testing is conducted.
  • Platelet viability is assessed by comparing platelet counts before and after transfusion, ensuring viability during and after transfusion. This usually includes assessing counts at specific timepoints or using methods to estimate their functional capacity.

Platelet Storage and Bacterial Contamination

  • Storage at 20-24°C poses contamination risks and requires vigilant maintenance to prevent microbial growth and sepsis in platelet storage.
  • Bacterial contamination in platelets has significant implications including severe complications, and sepsis, and requires screening procedures.
  • Prevention and control strategies like pathogen reduction systems and improved storage methods are implemented to reduce risks.

Pathogen Reduction for Platelets

  • Pathogen inactivation (PI) is crucial/essential to reducing the risk of transfusion-related infections in platelets.
  • Platelet additive solutions for improved viability and longer storage.
  • Procedures to inactivate pathogens, ensuring safety in stored platelets.
  • Platelet substitutes. Development of storage methods for longer periods, and new storage approaches like cryopreservation.
  • Advances, including lyophilization (freeze-drying), frozen platelets (with cryopreservation using cryoprotectants like DMSO), new storage approaches now being investigated, including tissue engineering to create platelets.

Postamble

  • Students should read the textbook thoroughly for detailed unit objectives to answer all possible exam questions.
  • The unit objectives are to guide study and act as a comprehensive study guide for the required unit material, with detailed aspects for both blood and platelet preservation.
  • Testing material stems from/relates to the unit objective details within the textbook, but do not rely on the slides for exam preparation.

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Related Documents

Antiglobulin Testing PDF
Rh Blood Group System PDF

Description

Preservation of platelets and red blood cells (RBCs). Storage techniques, additive solutions, and current trends in blood preservation research.

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