Pilot Cafe Flashcards: Instrument Rating
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Questions and Answers

What is required if operating for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore?

An approved flotation device for each occupant and at least one pyrotechnic signaling device.

What is required when flying at and above FL240 while using VOR for navigation?

DME or RNAV is also required.

What equipment is included in the GRABCARD for IFR?

Generator/alternator, radios, altimeter, ball, clock, attitude indicator, rate-of-turn indicator, directional gyro.

What does the acronym D.E.P.S stand for in VOR check sign-off?

<p>Date, Error, Place, Signature.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the frequency range for VHF Omni Directional Range (VOR)?

<p>108.0 to 117.95 MHz</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the limitations of VOR?

<p>Cone of confusion, reverse sensing, requires line-of-sight.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What frequency does Marker Beacons transmit at?

<p>75 MHz.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Area Navigation (RNAV) allow pilots to do?

<p>Navigate on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the core function of Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)?

<p>To monitor the integrity of the satellite signals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does ODP stand for?

<p>Obstacle Departure Procedure</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?

<p>It simplifies ATC clearances.</p> Signup and view all the answers

You must always accept a Departure Procedure (DP).

<p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do transition routes connect?

<p>The end of the basic SID procedure to the enroute structure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Diverse Departure Procedure provides obstacle clearance when a DP is not published.

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must a pilot advise ATC when intending to fly a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?

<p>Of the intent to fly a VCOA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does CRAFT stand for in IFR Departure Clearance?

<p>Clearance limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do STARs serve as in air traffic procedures?

<p>A transition from enroute structure to an approach for landing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Minimum Enroute Altitude ensures acceptable navigational coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements, and is also called _____ altitude.

<p>MEA</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Decision Altitude (DA)?

<p>The altitude at which the pilot must decide to continue the approach or go around.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term MORA refer to?

<p>Minimum Off Route Altitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'Altimeter' refer to?

<p>An aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of altitude to their definitions:

<p>Indicated altitude = Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial Pressure altitude = Altitude above the standard pressure plane Density altitude = Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature True altitude = Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is an instrument rating required?

<p>For flight in Class A airspace</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum aeronautical experience required for an airplane-instrument rating?

<p>50 hours cross-country PIC time, 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time, including 15 hours with CFII.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for recency of experience to act as PIC?

<p>A flight review conducted within the last 24 calendar months.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can substitute for the flight review?

<p>A proficiency check</p> Signup and view all the answers

When can a person log instrument time?

<p>Only when operating the aircraft solely by reference to instruments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A flight simulator or FTD can be used to meet flight review requirements.

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

What conditions must be met to carry passengers as PIC?

<p>Must have 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days, including 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop at night.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the '6 HITS' required to act as PIC under IFR?

<p>6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting &amp; tracking courses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

No '6 HITS' logged looking back six months means you can still regain currency easily.

<p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required after more than 6 months since IFR current?

<p>An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be recorded in a pilot's logbook to meet recent instrument experience requirements?

<p>Location &amp; type of each instrument approach accomplished and the name of the safety pilot, if required.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What areas must the IPC cover?

<p>Air traffic control clearances, flight by reference to instruments, navigation systems, instrument approach procedures, emergency operations, and post-flight procedures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A PIC who is actively employed by a part 121 operator is exempt from IFR recency requirements.

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using approved training devices for instrument experience, what is required?

<p>An authorized instructor must be present to verify the time and content.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the requirements for logging instrument approach procedures?

<p>Must operate solely by reference to instruments, established on required approach segments, and must continue to MDA or DA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the 'IM SAFE' checklist include?

<p>Stress</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'PAVE' stand for in risk management?

<p>Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, External pressure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What personal documents are required for flight?

<p>Pilot certificate, medical certificate, authorized photo ID, restricted radiotelephone operator permit.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the aircraft documents required for flight using 'ARROW'?

<p>Airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, radio station license, operating limitations, weight &amp; balance data.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'AVIATES' represent in maintenance inspections required for IFR?

<p>Airworthiness Directive inspections, VOR checks, inspections, altimeter checks, transponder checks, ELT inspections, Supplemental Type Certificate inspections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a passenger briefing during flight include?

<p>Seat belt instructions</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following briefings with their acronyms:

<p>Preflight briefing = NW KRAFT Taxi briefing = ARCH Takeoff briefing = DEPARTS Passenger briefing = SAFETY</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for an IFR flight plan?

<p>Must be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received.</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should an IFR flight plan be filed?

<p>At least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the minimum fuel requirements for IFR flights?

<p>Fuel from departure to destination plus fuel from destination to the most distant alternate plus 45 minutes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A destination alternate is always required.

<p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the minimum weather conditions required to list an alternate airport?

<p>For a precision approach: 600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility. For a non-precision approach: 800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Instrument Rating Requirements

  • Required for acting as PIC under IFR or in less than VFR minimum weather.
  • Necessary when carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights over 50 NM or at night.
  • Mandated for flight in Class A airspace and for Special VFR operations between sunset and sunrise.

Minimum Aeronautical Experience for Airplane-Instrument Rating

  • 50 hours of cross-country PIC time, including 10 hours in airplanes.
  • 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time, 15 hours must be with CFII.
  • At least one cross-country flight of 250 NM with instrument approaches at each airport.
  • Maximum instrument time logged in approved simulators has specific limits based on training requirements.

Recency of Experience for Acting as PIC

  • Flight review every 24 months is required, consisting of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training by an authorized instructor.

Alternatives to Flight Review

  • Proficiency checks or practical pilot tests may substitute a flight review.
  • Completion of FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency programs can also qualify.

Logging Instrument Time

  • Instrument time can only be logged when operating the aircraft solely by reference to instruments during actual or simulated conditions.
  • Authorized instructors may log time during instrument flight instruction.

Simulator Use for Flight Review

  • Approved flight simulators may fulfill flight review requirements if they represent the rated aircraft and are used in a compliant training course.

Carrying Passengers as PIC

  • Must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days in the relevant aircraft category.
  • Night operations require 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop within 1 hour after sunset.

IFR Operations within 6 Months

  • Must complete 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and course intercepts within the last 6 calendar months.
  • Simulated conditions may be utilized without needing a flight instructor.

Regaining Currency after 6 Months

  • Additional 6-month period to regain currency with a safety pilot when "6 HITS" are not logged.

More than 6 Months IFR Inactive

  • An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required to regain IFR qualifications, with specific guidelines available in the ACS.

Logging Instrument Experience

  • Logbook must include details of instrument approaches performed and the name of any safety pilot, if applicable.

IPC Areas of Operation

  • IPC must cover air traffic procedures, instrument navigation, approaches, emergency operations, and post-flight procedures.

Exemptions for IFR Recency of Experience

  • Active pilots employed by part 121 or 135 operators are exempt from some IFR recency requirements under certain conditions.

Use of Simulators for Aeronautical Experience

  • Authorized instructor verification needed for logging simulator time during training towards a certificate or rating.

Logging Instrument Approach Procedures

  • Must operate solely by reference to instruments and establish on all required segments down to published minimums.

Preflight Self-Assessment - "IM SAFE"

  • Assess personal health and readiness by checking for illness, medication use, stress level, alcohol consumption, fatigue, and emotional state.

Risk Management & Personal Minimums - "PAVE"

  • Evaluate Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, and External pressures when assessing risk for flights.

Decision Making Process - "DECIDE"

  • Follow a structured approach to detect changes, estimate needs, choose outcomes, identify solutions, act, and evaluate results.

Required Personal Documents for Flight

  • Must carry a pilot certificate, medical certificate, authorized photo ID, and radiotelephone operator permit for international flights.

Required Aircraft Documents - "ARROW"

  • Ensure aircraft has valid airworthiness certificate, registration, radio station license (if needed), operating limitations, and weight & balance data.

IFR Aircraft Maintenance Inspections - "AVIATES"

  • Specific inspections required for airworthiness, including 30-day VOR checks, annual, and 100-hour inspections as needed based on usage.

Passenger Briefing - "SAFETY"

  • Include briefing on seat belt use, air vent controls, fire extinguisher location, emergency procedures, and encourage questions.

Taxi Briefing - "ARCH"

  • Discuss assigned runways, route, crossings, and any hot spots or hazards.

Takeoff Briefing - "DEPARTS"

  • Review departure procedures, expectations, plans for concerns, and runway conditions.

Prefight Info Required for IFR - "NW KRAFT"

  • Ensure awareness of NOTAMs, weather conditions, traffic delays, runway considerations, alternative fields, fuel requirements, and performance data.

Filing an IFR Flight Plan

  • Must file a flight plan and receive ATC clearance to operate in controlled airspace under IFR; pop-up clearances available in emergencies.

IFR Filing Time Frame

  • File 30 minutes prior to departure; towered airport flight plans are automatically canceled upon landing.

IFR Minimum Fuel Requirements

  • Calculate necessary fuel including that from departure to destination, to alternates, plus reserve fuel for cruising.

Destination Alternate Rule - "1-2-3"

  • Alternate required unless both a published approach and specific weather conditions are met for timeframe around ETA.

Minimum WX Conditions for Alternate Airports

  • Determined by published minima; precision approaches require specific ceiling and visibility standards.

Filing Alternate with GPS Considerations

  • Specific GPS capabilities influence alternate flight planning, with different requirements based on equipment performance.

IFR Cruising Altitudes

  • Governed by magnetic course; specific altitude assignments apply in uncontrolled and controlled airspace.

IFR Takeoff Minimums

  • Specific conditions must be met to ensure safety and compliance with regulations.

Departure Procedures

  • Ensure obstacle clearance and follow procedures for altitude and turn protocols after takeoff.

Types of Departure Procedures

  • Obstacle Departure Procedures provide clearance while Standard Instrument Departures help streamline ATC communications.

Departure Procedure Equipment Requirements

  • Categorized by navigation capabilities; RNAV and non-RNAV DPs require specific equipment for compliance.

Transition Routes

  • Connect SIDs to enroute structures for effective flight planning.

Diverse Departure Procedure

  • Clearance provided for airports without published DPs when no obstacles are present.

Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)

  • An option for IFR aircraft in visual meteorological conditions.### VCOA (Visual Climb Over Airport)
  • Pilots conduct visually climbing turns over the airport until reaching the specified "climb to" altitude before the instrument departure phase.
  • Designed to prevent obstacles within 3 statute miles from the runway's departure end as an alternative to steep climb gradients exceeding 200 ft/NM.
  • Early notification to ATC of the intent to perform a VCOA is essential prior to takeoff.
  • Found in the "Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures" section of the Terminal Procedures publication.
  • Availability of VCOA may be depicted in graphical Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs).

IFR Departure Clearance ("CRAFT")

  • C refers to Clearance limit; R to Route; A to Altitude; F to Departure frequency; T to Transponder code.
  • Clearance void time indicates when a departure clearance is no longer valid, with a requirement to notify ATC within 30 minutes post-void if not departed.
  • "Hold for release" means no takeoff until authorized for IFR departure.
  • Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) is assigned during high traffic scenarios, indicating specific departure timing.
  • An abbreviated clearance confirms that the pilot is cleared for takeoff as filed.

Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)

  • STAR facilitates transition from the enroute structure to a point suitable for approaching landing.
  • STAR transition routes connect high altitude fixes to the base STAR procedure.
  • Typically named based on the fix where the STAR begins, and pilots can opt out by stating "NO STARs" in the flight plan remarks.
  • RNAV STARs demand RNAV 1 performance from the aircraft.

Minimum IFR Altitudes (§91.177)

  • Aircraft must not operate under IFR below prescribed minimum altitudes unless otherwise authorized by FAA.
  • Mountainous areas require flying at least 2,000 ft above the tallest obstacle within 4 NM horizontally.
  • Non-mountainous areas necessitate at least 1,000 ft clearance above the highest obstacle in a 4 NM radius.

Decision Altitude / Height (DA/H)

  • DA/H represents the altitude or height in a vertically guided instrument approach where the pilot decides whether to continue or initiate a go-around.

Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA)

  • MAA is indicated on IFR charts, ensuring compliance with altitude limits for safe operations.

Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)

  • MCA designates the lowest altitude at fixes for crossing when transitioning to a higher Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA).

Minimum Descent Altitude / Height (MDA/H)

  • MDA/H is the lowest permitted altitude/height for descent on a non-precision approach before visual references are established.

Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)

  • MEA guarantees navigational signal coverage and obstacle clearance along routes between radio fixes.
  • Gaps in MEA are indicated on charts to depict areas wherein navigational coverage is insufficient.

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

  • MOCA ensures obstacle clearance and provides navigation coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR station.
  • In scenarios where both MEA and MOCA are published, aircraft operation is permitted at or above MOCA if navigation signals are available.

Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA)

  • Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within a 10 NM radius of airway centerlines and applicable grid blocks.

Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)

  • MRA is the lowest altitude where intersection identification can be determined using radio navigational aids.

Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA)

  • MTA grants vertical and lateral obstacle clearance during turns over defined fixes and is annotated accordingly.

Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)

  • MVA is the lowest altitude at which IFR aircraft will receive radar vectoring, except during designated operations.

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)

  • OROCA permits obstacle clearance with specified vertical buffers depending on the terrain type.

Attitude Indicator (AI)

  • Operates based on rigidity in space, providing bank and pitch information necessary for pilot situational awareness.
  • AIs should accurately reflect attitude within five minutes of engine start and may display small errors during acceleration or deceleration.

Heading Indicator (HI)

  • Displays heading changes but requires calibration with a magnetic compass for accuracy. Typically powered by the aircraft's vacuum system.

Turn Indicators

  • Employ the principle of precession to display rate-of-turn and roll, aiding pilots in maintaining coordinated flight.

Airspeed Indicator (ASI)

  • Measures dynamic pressure resulting from the difference between ram air and static pressure.
  • Connected with the pitot tube, it shows accurate airspeed based on calibrations and altitude adjustments.

V-Speed Definitions

  • Va is design maneuvering speed, Vs is stall speed clean config, and Vx and Vy represent the best climb angles and rates, respectively.
  • Vno, Vne, Vs0, Vs1, and Vfe denote various maximum speeds and configurations for safe operation.

Static Port and Pitot Tube Blockage

  • Blockage of the static port provides inaccurate readings on ASI, VSI, and altimeter, where ASI indicates altitude instead.
  • The pitot tube blockage leads only to airspeed indicator failure, reflecting unreliable readings based on the type of blockage.

Flight Equipment for VFR

  • VFR day equipment includes essential instruments like altimeters, airspeed indicators, oil pressure gauges, and more, summed up in "A TOMATO FLAMES".
  • Night operations require additional equipment denoted by "FLAPS" for safety through night conditions.

IFR Equipment Requirements

  • Equipment needed includes all VFR gear plus "GRABCARD" items essential for IFR operations, highlighting the need for navigational aids and indicators.

VOR and DME Considerations

  • VOR operates within mandated frequency ranges, requiring periodic checks with defined tolerance levels to ensure reliable navigation.
  • DME measures slant range distances and is paired with a VOR station for automatic tuning, accounting for its limitations at varying altitudes.### Vertical Position and Glide Slope
  • Vertical position derived from the intensity of 90 and 150 Hz UHF signals.
  • Full deflection width measures 1.4º, optimizing accuracy in navigation deviations.
  • Glide slope typically angles at 3°, with a range extendable up to 10 NM.
  • Caution required for false glide slopes that can mislead pilots.

Marker Beacons

  • Provide critical range information at key approach points, transmitting at 75 MHz.
  • Outer Marker positioned 4-7 miles from the runway, helps aircraft intercept the glide slope at the correct altitude (±50 ft), identified by a blue indicator.
  • Middle Marker is approximately 3,500 ft from the runway, marking where the glide slope intersects decision height, typically 200 ft above touchdown zone elevation, shown as an amber signal.
  • Inner Marker exists between the Middle Marker and runway threshold, indicating where the glide slope meets decision height on CAT II ILS, represented by a white signal.
  • Back Course Marker shows the Final Approach Fix (FAF) on back course approaches, not part of ILS guidance.

Approach Light Systems (ALS)

  • Facilitates transition from instrument to visual approach, extending from the landing threshold into approach zones.
  • Coverage distances: 2,400-3,000 feet for precision and 1,400-1,500 feet for non-precision instrument runways.
  • May feature Sequenced Flashing Lights ("The Rabbit") assisting pilots in estimating flight visibility.

Area Navigation (RNAV)

  • Enables direct navigation without reliance on fixed ground-based facilities.
  • Variants include Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS), VOR/DME RNAV, DME/DME RNAV, and Inertial Reference Unit/System (IRU/IRS).
  • RNAV VNAV provides vertical navigation guidance; BARO-VNAV uses barometric altitude for vertical guidance.
  • RNAV routes categorized into Q (FL180 to FL450) and T (1,200 AGL to 18,000 MSL), typically marked RNAV 2 unless noted as RNAV 1.
  • Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB) indicates the bearing between waypoints on an RNAV route.

Global Positioning System (GPS)

  • U.S. operated GNSS featuring a minimum of 24 operational satellites in orbit at approximately 10,900 NM altitude.
  • Ensures visibility of at least 5 satellites at any Earth location for accurate positioning.
  • Aircraft GPS receiver determines distance to satellites using broadcast timestamps and onboard atomic clocks.
  • A single satellite allows positioning on a spherical radius, while intersections from multiple satellites provide exact geographical coordinates.
  • At least 3 satellites are necessary for 2D positioning, while 4 are required for 3D positioning.
  • GPS databases include vital navigational details such as airports, navaids, and routes; it supports great-circle navigation.
  • GPS units can replace ADF or DME, with considerations for NDB approaches without GPS overlays.

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)

  • RAIM ensures GPS signal integrity through continuous monitoring.
  • Requires a minimum of 5 satellites for fault detection; or 4 satellites plus altimeter input for baro-aided RAIM.
  • To exclude a faulty satellite, at least one additional satellite is required, totaling 6 or 5 with baro-aid.

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Test your knowledge on when an instrument rating is required for pilots and understand the minimum aeronautical experience needed. These flashcards cover essential regulations and scenarios for IFR operations. Perfect for aspiring pilots and aviation enthusiasts.

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